Naming and Necessity, reading group?
We've got the Philosophical Investigations reading group up and going. I'm reading it; but, don't have much to contribute to it.
I was wondering if we could multi-task and address the book by Kripke called Naming and Necessity?
Any takers?
EDIT: Banno has started the reading group here: https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/230603
I was wondering if we could multi-task and address the book by Kripke called Naming and Necessity?
Any takers?
EDIT: Banno has started the reading group here: https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/230603
Comments (1817)
https://academiaanalitica.files.wordpress.com/2016/10/kripke-saul-a-naming-and-necessity-cambridge-harvard-university-press-1981.pdf
Great to have you on board @Snakes Alive!
The Investigations thread is dying out as we speak, so I hope we can get this one started.
When this came out Kripke was the New Messiah.
Will you start at the beginning, or before that, at the preface?
I'm not certain. I feel as though elucidating Kant's ideas about categories and a priori and a posteriori needs some elucidating if someone is unfamiliar with those notions. There's also a lot of Wittgenstein in Kripke or known as Kripkenstein.
Do you care to lead this reading group? Pretty please?
'Kripkenstein' is a reference to Kripke's particular take on Wittgenstein on interpreting a rule, which he (Kripke) expounded in his book Wittgenstein on Rules and Private Language. The topic is quite different from the topic of Naming and Necessity.
Oh, sorry about that mistake. I stand corrected. Do you care to join us on this reading group Pierre?
For sure. I may not be able to participate assiduously, but, if this gets going, I'll likely comment occasionally.
Right on! Thanks for getting on board. I hope @Banno can assist us in the interpretive part of understanding the main gist of the book. Some narrative is always needed on these sort of things, IMO.
My time here is too erratic... trying to spend it learning bass and reading actual books.
But I might start.
Skip the Preface - we can come back to it for clarification.
Proper names, then.
They are not definite descriptions.
Any questions?
I will wait for other members to address this claim. But, can you explicate the rationale behind this conclusion?
And it can be successful even when it doesn't work - as the man with the champaign example shows.
And the thing a proper name or a definite description picks out is its referent.
Some curious stuff about unicorns that we can come back to.
Yes; though, when we talk about the qualitative aspect of things or facts, they can be different than the quantitative aspect of that thing or fact.
Quoting Banno
I'm not aware of this example. Can you please explain it to us folk?
Quoting Banno
A proper name ought to have a rigid designator. Definite descriptions not necessarily so.
Quoting Banno
Yes, what's your take on empty names like Harry Potter, Pegasus, or the definite description of the member of this forum who lives in Australia known as "Banno"?
After setting up the terms involved, Kripke continues to push a wedge between names and descriptions. The notion is that name work, even when they do not satisfy some definite description. Notice here that he is working from common natural language examples.
p. 25
I hope we can get by without too much formal logic here; but possible world semantics will always be sitting there, watching.
I wouldn't mind at least mentioning it. I like the juicy parts of a thorough analysis.
The second theory is that the description is what links the name to its referent; a proper name without a corresponding definite description fails to refer. Until the appearance of N&N, this was the preferred view.
The elephant in the corner is that proper names can refer even if the corresponding definite description fails.
First, the afore mentioned man who does not have a glass of champaign.
Second, Dartmouth, which one succeeds in referring to even should it not stand at the mouth of the Dart.
Third, The United Nations and the Holy Roman Empire.
Fourth, an example from Twain.
Fifth, Hesperus and phosphorus. We will probably revisit Venus.
Sixth, existential Aristotle,
So, how does a name attain meaning? Through baptism?
How does baptism occur for names and their referring rigid designators?
For a while I had much sympathy for Searle's approach (p.31), defending it using baptism; not too far from causal links, but inadequate.
I feel as though we should pause and go through the process of how names attaining their meaning through baptism, which is further instantiated through causal links. Care to explain and where should we be looking at in the text?
Thank you.
Modality of meanings deserves a mention too.
I'm still playing catch up. But, if you want to hear my dribble then a name attains meaning when it has a rigid designator that instantiates a concepts or a web of beliefs about it or otherwise known as definite descriptions in the world. My only concern is how do definite descriptions obtain wrt. to rigid designators.
Again, modality is eluding me here.
Quoting Posty McPostface
My bolding.
Consider pp. 31-33, where Kripke points to a difference between a name having a meaning, and a name singling out its referent. "Moses does not exist". If the sentence is true, and Moses does not exist, then "Moses" means, say "the man who led the Israelites out of Egypt"; and refers to nothing, since there is no such man.
So there seems to be a difference between the meaning of a name and what it refers to.
That is, the meaning of a name is not its referent.
Quoting Saul Kripke
What does he mean by saying that a description need (not) to refer to an object for that object to have meaning in the first place? Am I sounding confused here?
Objects have meaning?
Not in isolation. This goes back to the Tractatus; but, objects have meaning in relation to other objects, which are states of affairs, deriving from atomic facts.
Sometimes. Definite descriptions also have covarying readings with no single referent:
"Every author who writes a story shows the story to an editor."
Here "the story" does not refer to a single story.
Some definite descriptions do not even refer to any existing individual:
"If I had written a story, I would have shown the story to an editor."
A terminological thing here: a name doesn't have a rigid designator according to Kripke, it is a rigid designator. A rigid designator is a kind of term or word. A name has a referent.
Quoting Banno
I don't think there's any reason to think the name refers to nothing if there is no such man. That is, Moses need not exist for us to refer to him – we refer to all sorts of things that don't exist. Prima facie the opposite opinion isn't plausible, so I wouldn't adopt it without some good ulterior reason. And so I think this problem, or distinction, or whatever, doesn't get very far.
I will let Banno clarify my confusion. I've always held that objects are rigid designators to the act of baptism of a name.
I digress and hope you guys can flesh this beast out.
Nope. "Rigid designator" applies to terms, or words. The definition is on p. 48. You can say that a name rigidly designates an object.
Okay, then I had it backwards then. Thanks.
But not the other way around, yes?
I think I will just continue to take it as read.
Let's clarify the difference between a rigid designator and a definite description.
A definite description is (supposedly) a predication that picks out an individual by what it true of them. "The first man to walk on the moon" picks out Armstrong.
A rigid designator (supposedly) picks out the very same individual regardless of what is true of them. "Neil Armstrong might not have been the first man to walk on the moon."
The taste of N&N so far (we are up to about p30?) is that there are issues here that might be philosophically interesting.
SO if "Neil Armstrong" means "The man who first walked on the moon", and yet it is true that some other person, not Armstrong, might have accomplished that task in his stead, then...
Are we to conclude that the man who was first to walk on the moon, might not have been the first to walk on the moon? Or does this give some undue importance to the actual world? So the statement "Armstrong might not have been the first man to walk on the moon" really means that the man who, in the actual world, was first to walk on the moon, might not, in some other world, have been first to walk on the moon...
Not a bad first guess.
Perhaps a name attains a meaning when it has associated with it a definite description, such that only the individual concerned instantiates the concepts or web of beliefs set out by that description.
This view could be contrasted with the view that a proper name rigidly designates the same individual regardless of what concepts or web of beliefs are true of it.
Quoting Posty McPostface
Right, an object (that isn't a word) doesn't designate anything, in Kripke's terminology.
Quoting Banno
The significance of the claim, as I read it, is that the sentence 'Neil Armstrong might not have been the first man to walk on the moon' is true, and has no intuitively false reading. But if Neil Armstrong has the same semantic value as 'the first man to walk on the moon,' then there should be a false reading of that sentence (though there may be a true one as well, which you highlight here). In other words, the definite description account overgenerates readings here, and there is no way to read the sentence as necessarily false. This is evidence that the name refers to that man, and not to whoever was the first to do what he did.
Quoting Banno
A couple things here:
-Definite descriptions and rigid designators aren't mutually exclusive. Most definite descriptions aren't rigid designators, but some, perhaps, are (I think Kripke's example is 'the even prime,' which rigidly designates 2).
-"The first man to walk on the moon" picks out not Armstrong, but whoever happens to have been the first man to walk on the moon. In actuality that happens to be Armstrong, so in the modal logic, relative to the actual world, it picks out Armstrong. "Armstrong," we might say, then just picks out Armstrong simpliciter, and its semantics has nothing to do with walking on the moon.
I really don't think these things can be elucidated without understanding the modal logic, so maybe we differ here. I'm almost inclined to think that reading NN is pointless without a first course in modal logic.
Kripke points out that the traditional view, that a priori stuff is what is known without experience, is at the least debatable. His examples (p. 35) is a computer calculating that a certain number is a prime. We know this, not because of our own a priori calculations or what have you, but because we know and trust the computer, a result of our empirical understanding of how it works.
But we don't know which.
We know, a posteriori, that it is true up to 400,000,000,000,000,000 or thereabouts, as a result of some clever computing.
Kripke pushes the wedge between being necessary and being a priori ever deeper.
Now if you want to object to this configuration, that’s fine. Me, I’m happy to go along with him just to see how it works out. And I think that the result is a reasonably coherent, consistent way of talking about names and nesecity.
Then please continue. I'm on page 34, reading about the a priori and necessary.
But that necessity is a metaphysical notion - it's necessary if and only if it is true in all possible worlds.
SO there is no simple relation between the two.
Understood. So, how does baptism occur? What are causal links? Ontologically speaking.
Kripke talks about "criteria of identity". Can you elaborate on this?
If one supposes that there are essential properties, and that these are what distinguish one individual from another, then to identify Posty McPostface in some other possible world, all one has to do is to find the individual with the essential properties of Posty McPostface in that world. Or something like that.
So these properties would be the criteria by which we recognise their Posty as the very same as our Posty.
But this is a wrong way to think about possible worlds.
I think of possible worlds as being stipulated: that is, we set them up as we want them to be. hence,
Can you clarify your terms by which you mean "stipulative"?
We cannot suppose that Moses could not have led the Israelites out of Egypt. For "Moses" refers to the man who led the Israelites out of Egypt. And if in some possible world the Israelites were not led out of Egypt by some man, then in that world there is no Moses. Further, it is not possible that someone else, who was not Moses, led the Israelites out of Egypt. In whatever possible world you pick, whomever leads the Exodus is Moses.
Again, I see Kripke here as setting up a decent modal grammar for English, by interpreting his more formal modal logic in English.
Please elaborate on that. I'm stumped by "trans-world identification" as I'm on page 44.
That's what Kripke avoids; one is not obliged to observe some possible world and identify an individual (a "counterpart") with some arbitrary degree of similarity to Moses and then posit that the person so identified is the very same as the actual Moses. One just stipulates the identity: suppose Moses only had one hand. Suppose Moses had an innate fear of water. Suppose Moses could not speak Egyptian.
Keep it simple.
Go on...
By virtue of talking about Moses in another possible world, all we've done is posit the exact same thing(Moses) into another set of circumstances(those of our own imagining). If it is - in part at least - the circumstances themselves that definitively determine what counts as Moses, then we've just committed an error in thought/belief by stipulating different circumstances to the 'same' thing. Different circumstances will produce different things when circumstances themselves are part of what definitively establishes identity.
That is the case with Moses.
Kripke showed the incoherency/self-contradiction that results from attempting to use particulars as a criterion for identity across possible worlds by showing that if we attribute different circumstances(possible worlds) to the same thing, we end up saying some thing both... was and was not... the thing that 'X'.
So, here Kripke clearly argues against the idea that all circumstances(properties) definitively establish identity(are essential). He does however, allow room for such essential properties by stipulating that essential properties are true of that object in any case where it would have existed.
Postys on downtime. I hope others can contribute.
Honestly Banno, I am struggling to set aside my own position. It must be done in order to grasp what Kripke is getting at. One must also have a good grasp of all the notions(possible worlds semantics, a priori/a posteriori, and types of truth) that he is working with besides setting out his own theory of identity.
This piques my interest. I agree to some extent. However, this assessment is already theory laden with notions that I reject for various reasons. Kripke is rejecting them as well as some of the conventional 'takes' based upon them, but he's also accepting them, in some strong sense, as useful(intuitive).
His distinctions, I think, are key to understanding his lectures on Necessity and Naming.
Quoting creativesoul
I'm not quite sure. It seems to me that the rigid designator isn't the state of affairs here because those can be contingent. The rigid designator is who and not; what, when, where, how.
I think this goes back to your reply to my question about the "criteria of/for identity".
I'm currently on page 60 of the book.
You can, with the actual indexical, produce an necessary, a posterior identity statement, like:
"The actual 1970 US president was Nixon."
Don't worry that there are possible worlds in which that statement, if spoken in that world, would be false. It's still true with respect to that possible world.
Right, Banno?
I agree that the rigid designator in this example is Nixon. I didn't mean to imply otherwise.
Designators can be contingent. Kripke makes a point to distinguish between rigid designators and accidental/nonrigid ones. As you say, because possible world semantics allow us to change the circumstances(Kripke calls these 'properties') and retain the identity of Nixon(the object of thought).
I suggest that you back up and re-read the bit about the meaning of a name and the meaning of a reference(pg. 32, 33, 34). Kripke draws a distinction between the two. Theory laden... sigh. For me, understanding this takes setting aside pre-existing certainty about some things. the more I re-read, the clearer it seems.
Kripke is not offering a theory of the meaning of a name. He is arguing for a theory of reference. The two are not the same by any stretch.
"Nixon", as a referent, is adequate and necessary to identify and refer to this man. That holds good in all possible worlds. That is a theory of referent(what counts as such).
"Nixon", as a name, identifies this man and everything that makes this man who he is(surely some circumstances are irrevocable - say if this man has one hand as a result of warfare). That is a theory of the meaning of a name, and as such it does not hold good in all possible worlds. To quite the contrary, it is to change the circumstances while retaining the identity of an object of thought that makes possible world semantics what they are.
Yeah, I dunno about this take...
Seems to me that the very use of "actual" eliminates coherent use of possible world semantics.
...is quite intriguing by my lights. It not only allows the discussion of basic, foundational, and/or otherwise irrevocably important necessary elemental constituents, but he goes even farther and offers a special status for them(what counts as a strongly rigid designator)!
A rigid designator of an essential property can be called strongly rigid.
Perhaps it may be worth mentioning and/or asking ourselves the following...
Aren't we talking about the object of our thought when we're identifying and subsequently providing so-called "counterfactual" possible worlds scenarios in light of it? Aren't we then saying that after we identify this thing(this object of thought), whatever else we may say about it, if it is to qualify as being rigid, can only be strongly rigid.
Rigid designator. Strongly rigid designator. Accidental/nonrigid designator.
Circumstances(states of affairs that can be stipulated without changing the identity) can only be accidental/non-rigid designators.
Elemental constituents then - as a result of being necessary for the very existence of the thing being identified - remain intact across all possible worlds scenarios for a different reason than a name does.
If it is the case that all A's consist of B's, then there is no possible world scenario that can be coherently posited about A's without B's, for that would be to talk about something other than this A.
There are no apple pies in any meaningful possible world if there are no apples in that possible world. There are no apple pies without apples... not counterfactually, not sensibly, not intuitively...
"Apple" is a strongly rigid designator.
Where yat Banno?
:cool:
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/230677
p.48.
Yup.
Not that I have a dog in this race. But that's pretty much how I read philosophy in my first brush -- and how I read Kant the some-odd 7 years ago I started that reading group up.
Guess I'm just giving a thumbs up to this interpretive technique more than anything -- since it seems to be something that folks don't pick up on.
What have I written here that is incommensurate with anything you've quoted?
:brow:
I read Kripke as setting up a grammar that allows coherent discourse on modal issues. Hence it is especially important to recognise the way he seperate names from descriptions, necessity from the a priory and the analytic, and so on.
I've just no clear idea of what you mean here: Quoting creativesoul
My bolding.
A truth is a priori if it is known without referring to experience.
Pre-Kripke, such truths were generally taken to also be necessary. This was doubtless because of an obsession with some few examples that backed this case up; mathematical and grammatical cliches such as 2+2=4 and bachelors are all of them unmarried.
The example, Kripke uses is Stick S, which is stipulated to be 1m long.
So, how long is S?
Well, the way we determine how long any stick is, is by holding it up agains S. We measure against S, and refer to that experience to determine the length of the new stick. That is, we use an a posteriori test.
But we can't do that in the case of S.
So our knowledge that S is one metre long is not a posteriori.
Hence, it is a priori.
And yet, S, that stick, might have been another length. It's length is contingent.
And the conclusion: that S is 1 metre long is an a priori, contingent truth.
Certainty is a type of belief, not a type of knowledge.
I didn't start rereading Naming and Necessity yet, or even read the vast majority of this thread, but that, surprisingly, is something I agree with. I was assuming I wasn't going to agree with anything Kripke said in this book. (Because for one, I think the whole idea of a "rigid designator" is just complete nonsense, at least aside from an individual simply stipulating that they're going to use a term rigidly.)
If we're just saying that in counterfactual (or "possible worlds") talk, we can refer to things so that they're "the same x" as they are in the actual world, barring counterfactual modifications we make to them, and to some extent that's necessary to make sense of counterfactual talk at all, that shouldn't take a whole book/series of lectures to note.
When we think of Nixon losing an election, we must be thinking of a Nixon who ran in the first place, as opposed to a NIxon who left the US to become a Tibetan monk when he was 17. This possible world must also be one in which the sun didn't go supernova 10,000 years ago.
The list of things that had to be just so for there to be a Nixon who ran for president of the USA would appear to be massive and extending backward to the beginning of the universe. Therefore, I agree it's a simple stipulation. I don't agree that any of the profound philosophical questions associated with the stipulation have been answered by Kripke.
Agree?
What profound philosophical questions?
We just stipulate, then work out the consequences as needed. Generally, we don't draw attention to the sun not going supernova 10,000 years ago when ordering coffee; why bother when discussing what would have been the case had Nixon become a monk?
The take home is that possible worlds are stipulated, and not found. And that does dissolve a icture of modality that was fraught with philosophical difficulties.
I'm asking a question about the process of identification or the criteria of identification according to Kripke. Here is a snippet from the text:
What I get from that with respect to your question is that the "criteria of transworld identity," which isn't something we need to figure out first (that's putting the cart before the horse as Kripke says) is gained by (a) the fact that we're going to stipulate some things as rigid designators, and (b) for some things, like Nixon, it wouldn't really make sense to entertain a counterfactual to the effect of "What if Nixon wasn't Nixon," regardless of whether we actually call him "Nixon" or not. (He's "that same guy" in counterfactuals, whatever we call him.) That tells us our criteria of transworld identity. It tails along from how we talk about counterfactuals.
Whether all of that is something that Kripke would agree with, I don't know, but that's what I get from the passage you quoted at any rate.
Well, he does mention a sort of Sorities paradox in regards to identity along with the problem of maintaining that same identity over time. Logic doesn't deal with such vageness as he mentions in a footnote to the above passages.
Heraclitus type questions like those Wallows has mentioned.
Quoting Banno
Every little thing seems to be related to every other little thing in the universe. If Nixon lost the election, how could that be the same universe as this one? How could that be the same Nixon as ours? As cool as this essay is, it does not resolve problems of that type. It does not make them go away. We don't do science by examining language use. We don't solve philosophical problems that way either. I'm sure this is obvious to you.
Quoting Banno
The take home is that we can stipulate possible worlds as things that are stipulated. If we want to think about possible worlds that are found, we are free to do that as well, unless you know of some reason we shouldn't.
Emphasis mine
Yup.
That's what I'm talking about Banno. What if they are??? Those are unaddressed issues.
In support of Kripke... his point - if I read him correctly - is that there are times(anytime???) when we do not need to talk about the fundamental elemental constituents of something in order to sensibly discuss the thing(object) we're discussing. I would agree that most often we do not.
Yeah, I think Kripke takes care of Heraclitus' 'same river' pseudo-problem. It's untenable... utterly untenable.
Nah. Possible worlds are a metacognitive endeavor. There are no possible worlds without extremely complex language.
All you'll find is language use.
Hmmm...
"So wrong"
"again"
Puzzlin' indeed.
Yes.
There are still some problems with transworld identifications, but I do not think that Kripke's language use grasps them. He has addressed some though...
For the sake of the read, and to understand his critique, those(remaining unaddressed issues) can be set aside...
I think that this bit above underwrites quite a bit of these lectures. I do not concur. However, it is important to understand what Kripke is getting at...
What do you mean?
This seems pivotal as well...
I need a quote of me from you to me.
Then, I may answer...
Yes. I agree with that. It seems that if we do not do that, then possible world semantics lose coherency...
My side issue with this concerns certain situations where the object in question is existentially dependent upon it's parts(emergent things/objects). Kripke's scheme cannot take account of those situations. Earlier, I mentioned an apple pie and apples. Kripke stated of such situations...
I would think that the value we place upon possible world semantics(imaginary counterfactuals) ought be established, in some strong sense of the word, by virtue of correctly identifying the object(by our knowledge about the object in question when it is in fact an existentially dependent composite of other parts). If there can be no A without B, then a possible world scenario positing an A without B would be saying something like that we could imagine a world in which there were apple pies without apples, and that such an endeavor would be somehow useful for attaining/acquiring knowledge and/or understanding of apple pies.
:yikes:
"Resembling"...
Why ought an apple pie resemble all of it's parts as a pre-requisite to insisting that there are no sensible possible world scenarios that imagine apple pies without apples?
Here's how I read it. Some folk say that there is a problem in identifying individuals in other possible worlds. Kripke points out that other possible worlds are specified by our musings... and hence that there is no problem with such a grand title as "transworld identification".
Quoting frankQuoting frank
I disagree. His view does exactly that. At least for the sort of questions posited so far.
Quoting frank
Go for it. A the cost, as you yourself point out, of coherence.
Yet we do it all the time. That's the problem with the argument from The Way We Speak. We have contradictory customs.
Feeding this back into what has gone before, it is possible that Nixon was called Nixoff, and was a native of Canada and became a social worker. At which point, there is only the stipulation of the possible world that makes Nixon and Nixoff 'the same person'. (Which could be made more plausible if we suppose that his parents (possibly) emigrated and changed their name.)
But such stipulations are susceptible to ridicule or earnest criticism, though they be immune from dis-proof. Just as a stipulated metre stick can be criticised as being prone to expansion when damp or hot, so Nixoff can be criticised as being uninterestingly Nixon. Or, a possible Moses who didn't part the Red Sea, as not the Moses that anyone cares about, or a possible world in which the moon landings were faked, as too fanciful.
But possible worlds have uses, (unlike the counterfactuals being considered here), like metre sticks, either as projections to the future - I might go shopping later, it might stop raining: - or as tools of discovery of the past. The detective considers possible worlds in which each of his suspects committed the murder, works out the consequences in each case, and looks for evidence that supports or contradicts each possibility. Could Armstrong have done it and faked his alibi of being on the moon? could Nixon have done it and not talked about it on his tapes? Could Moses have time travelled? Possibilities are eliminated until the only one left is that the butler did it. And time will tell whether or not it stops raining and I go shopping.
In practical modal reasoning, there is a rule against changing the known facts, that there was a murder, that it is raining, That Nixon was the president, or whatever, that does not apply when one makes a novel about if Hitler had won the war. Such a novel can be instructive as a warning but is not admissible in court.
Quoting frank
We write novels, and we try cases, and different rules apply, but as long as we keep our customs separate, and keep fiction out of the courtroom, there is no contradiction.
Right. There's a TV show called The Man in the High Castle in which an alternate reality is depicted. It shows the allies having lost WW2 and North America is divided between the Germans and the Japanese. If we stop the think about it, it's amazing how easily we navigate a story of that kind.
We see Hitler, but we know it's not our Hitler. The two Hitlers are like cousins.
But as I have never been to the US, it is possible that The Man in the High Castle is substantially true, and all this stuff about presidents is fake news. Or is it?
Not me, but suppose that I could ...
{insert un-stipulated possible world example here}
... if I stipulate that a possible world is un-stipulated, is it stipulated? Does Kripke die of shame at this point?
I can propose a couple of possible worlds: (a) a dull world where the number signs have gotten swapped, or (b) a rather confusing one where Nature abhors a foursome, such that whenever one has two pairs of shoes, another shoe comes spontaneously into existence, and whenever two couples meet for lunch a child is born.
But what I was wondering is why you were asking anyone to stipulate an un-stipulated possibility? Architects' plans stipulate possible buildings; but just because they cannot plan an unplanned building, does not prove that unplanned buildings cannot exist.
I don't see any problems, I am just interested in the 'identity criteria' to which Kripke refers to. What is it?
What do you think it is?
Does that work better?
No idea, honestly.
Perhaps we should move on. What do you suggest we focus on next since I got hung up on criteria for identity.
Heraclitus: "Can't step in the same river twice."
Frank: "Wow! It's the same river, but it changes over time."
Banno: "That's fine. It's the same river because we say it's the same river."
Heraclitus and Frank: :meh: :smirk:
Frank: "If I said penguins fly, would they? We say it's the same river because it's the same river, not the other way around."
Banno: "You're all idiots. Go back to work."
Frank and Heraclitus: :up: :up:
Could be. Sometimes the fascism leaks out around the edges. :worry:
:lol:
It shouldn't, no. But David Lewis remained puzzled, I think, to the day he died.
I'm not sure there is any point. @Frank hasn't worked out that we can't step in the same river even once, and yet it is the same river. You say you haven't understood the notion of identity criterion, on the rejection of which the remainder of the book is based, and although I found it interesting to revisit, I have several other books I ought be reading.
That's true; but, I'm willing to learn what it's all about.
Thanks.
Where did Frank go astray?
Where do you want me to look at?
SO what do you make of this:Quoting frank
Kripke has not rid us of problems associated with transworld identity, for as your quote shows there may be issues with regard to what constitutes an individual. Is Frank addressing the same thing?
I don't think so.
I don't think so also. I think frank is addressing a possible world in which Nixon could have chosen a different path than politics. What instantiates his identity is a world where his identity as a politician is found in, is our own world. I can't see above the horizons of our own world, so I'll leave it at that.
Similarly, when making counterfactual histories about the Nazis, no one supposes that Hitler was a decent chap. There are rules about these things; about how far and in what direction one can change reality and take the audience with you. Kripke is not addressing these rules, (and I think Frank would like him to), because they are too subtle, conventional, complex and vague for philosophy. For Kripke, names are entirely arbitrary, like the x's and y's of algebra - because he is a logician and therefore an idiot.
"Suppose Maverick was a conformist" holds no terror for him, any more than a mathematician balks at "Let 'i' be the square root of -1", having just declared that all squares are positive.
(a) we stay structured re everyone reading along and commenting at the same pace,
(b) everyone comments as they read, and ultimately takes their comment to just be their comment, which means, among other things, that:
(c) we're all respectful of other's comments, no matter how much of a different take they are than our own (something this board has a big problem with in general, and I get wrapped up in it, too, as a reaction to people not being respectful towards my comments), so that
(d) we don't feel a need for everyone to have the same opinion. We're okay with others continuing to disagree with us.
Some would say that Becoming is primary and the contradiction of a changing identity is a product of analysis. And this is analytical philosophy. :)
Do you agree about the a posteriori necessary statements?
Of course, as Un and Frank repeatedly point out, we can use words in ways other than the way the author does.
However if your aim is to understand the approach taken by the author, then understanding what he is doing with the words involved is the only way to achieve and understanding that is anything more than superficial.
It's a hackneyed example, but true: if your aim is to play chess, then don't continually point out that you can actually move the bishop to any square you like. All it shows is that you have misunderstood what is going on.
@unenlightened pointing out that Native Americans (is that how they choose to be referred to? As part of the fauna?) might use names in a way that is different to how Kripke uses names, while potentially very interesting, is beside the point.
@Terrapin Station asks us to respect the chess player who moves the bishop to any square they like. Sure, but let's also understand that that they are not a good chess player, and that their behaviour is not conducive to improving your game.
A capitalised "Becoming" is hardly common in Analytic philosophy, but rather the obsession of the Other Folk.
I think his point is a little more modest than you would have it. Let's stick to that modesty and we won't have any run-ins with the Other Folk.
SO you understand both my position and Kripke's? Well, set out Kripke's position for us. That's what we are here for,
Since Unenlightened brought the topic up of essences. What makes one's essence real?
And proceed by saying that these are the ones Kripke wants to talk about?
Something that ensures one's identity contrasted with others? It's what instantiates one's identity over all possible worlds to a singular predicate.
That is, a definite description that is also a rigid designator.
But that doesn't work.
So that's not what an essence is.
Then what is it? Just a wild guess on my part; but, an essence can be a definite description that is not shareable.
Then in what way would it be a description?
Perhaps there is not really such a thing as an essence. Or perhaps the notion has no use.
Nixon being president of the 37'th United States is not shareable.
Quoting Banno
Perhaps; but, I see some utility of using it contextually speaking about things like tables or chairs or the 37'th President of the United States. It does invoke some metaphysics; but, it can be remedied with treating the subject as a host of descriptions that are unique and non-transferable.
In what way? I can tell someone - a child, perhaps - and isn't that sharing? Don't we share this understanding?
I am using 'not sharable' in a different sense here. By which I mean to imply that there was no other person at the time that could have been President of the United States because Nixon was never assassinated or didn't die from typhus or cancer during his presidency or prior to becoming the 37'th President of the United States.
The table and chairs, yes - and this is what I would like to talk about (p. 47 is where it starts, but there is so much more later on). But if being the 37th president is part of the essence of Nixon, then the definition of essence as necessary properties - properties an individual must posses in order to be that very individual - fails. It gets replaced with something like "essence is the properties that belong to an individual in the actual world"...
But that would mean that every property one possesses is a part of the essence.
Those are entire footnotes dedicated to elucidating what Kripke thinks about 'essence'. I doubt I could make a better claim than he has about the issue. Sorry.
A property had by only that individual - that is, the property picked out by a definite description.
Good god - you might as well copy-and-paste the entire text of the book; it is all about essence. Put some effort in.
I'm not following you here. I meant to imply that essential properties of objects are their relations to other objects. Does Kripke ever talk about facts?
Well, yes. Now, what?
So you are saying something like, since Nixon actually was president 37, no one else could actually have been president 37.
But it remains that someone other then Nixon might have been president 37.
So you are setting up "essence" to mean the collection of definite descriptions that are true of an individual in the actual world.
This post just by way of working out what you mean.
Yes, someone else could have been president of the US; but, nobody else was. Hence, the designator for the 37'th president of the US is Nixon, and this is strongly rigid in this world.
Quoting Banno
Had Nixon lost the election, then the definite description of being the 37'th president of the United States would not have referred to him; but, it does in our world.
Hey?
Neither Nixon nor the 37th president are necessarily existent - neither must exist in every possible world.
Something is essential if it exists or is true in every possible world.
Something is possible if it exists in at least some possible world.
Something is impossible if it cannot exist in any possible world.
Any disagreement?
OK, then I seem to be lost here.
Nope, makes perfect sense.
It is good to be confused, because Kripke is pointing to a bunch of confusions around the way we talk about modality.
The remainder of the book is his (start of a) solution.
Or every possible world we're examining. Say for Wallows, a tree in his front yard wouldn't be that tree unless it was oak.
We won't look at possible worlds where it's anything but oak. Oak is essential in that sense.
Is that right
No. In every possible world.
Keep the bishop on the diagonals, Frank.
It's a fact that Nixon was the 37'th president of the US in our world. Does Kripke limit the scope of facthood to only our possible world? Isn't it a fact that water is H20 in every possible world?
But it's also a fact that he might not have been.
Quoting Wallows
No - he takes the first order logic of facts and finds a way to use it to discuss possibility and necessity.
Quoting Wallows
Let's see what he says later in the book. He hints at his answer around p. 52-53, talking about whether the parts of an individual are essential. But work needs to be done in order to see his answer. All he does at this stage is lave it as an open question:
Do we move on to that again, or is there more here that needs settling?
Kripke imagines that when we use a rigid designator X, we zero in on the possible worlds in which X exists (with some exceptions.) So if Wallows is discussing the diseases which could have afflicted that oak tree, then Kripke would have no problem accepting that oakness is essential to the object Wallow is talking about.
No; we specify them, we do not zero in.
Again, you choose to speak as if there were a kingdom of Possible Worlds, from which we might choose this one or that one. That's not how, at least for Kripke, it works. He sets out quite clearly that possible worlds come about as a result of our stipulations:
__________________________
Quoting frank
This way of speaking is not so much wrong, as twisted. So:
Hence we ought insist that it is possible that the tree before us were not an oak.
SO perhaps at some point in reaching a diagnosis one might reconsider that the tree before us is indeed an oak. Perhaps the reason it is so difficult to diagnose is because it is a Dutch Elm.
Since studying Naming and Necessity as part of an undergraduate course (so, obviously not an in-depth study) the problem I have always thought to be inherent in Kripke's notion of rigid designation is this: How do we know (apart from, and in the absence of, present ostention) who or what a name rigidly designates unless we rely on some (at least minimal) definite description to determine it?
Not if we know it's an oak tree and we're discussing what could have been in regard to "that oak tree."
I'm afraid I'm going to have to take your chess instructor's license.
So is the suggestion that, ostentation aside, some sort of definite description is needed for a name to pick out its referent?
So it would seem. If Kripke wants to say that names are not definite descriptions, well I think that much is trivially obvious; my name clearly says nothing about me at all, so it cannot by itself constitute a definite description.
But if he wants to say that names as rigid designators are somehow independent of definite descriptions, that they do not, so to speak, rely on definite descriptions in order to do their job of rigidly designating, well, that just seems, on the face of it, to be obviously false.
So in a 'possible world' scenario, how much information (definite description?) would be needed to establish that it is a counter-factually conditioned Banno that we are referring to, for example?
It seems from what we have read that you are right here.
Quoting Janus
So what are we to make of the Donnellan examples, p.25 & n.? It is apparent that a discussion about a given individual can take place, with reasonable success, in the case where the definite description used to pick out the individual has failed, as per champaign man; and even where the description would have picked out the wrong individual.
And it is simple to make these cases modal: "The man over there drinking champaign seems happy, but might possibly not be", when the man we are discussion has water in his glass, while another man over there, who we are not discussing, does indeed have Champaign.
Of course there are many ways referring can succeed, or fail. @unenlightened is useful for pointing out such cases, and how the vagaries of language lead astray those who would lay down firm rules.
Which considerations, amongst others, lead me to reject the idea that the only way to ensure that a name refers is to attach it to a definite description.
None.
Firstly, Banno is a rigid designator. I am Banno in all possible worlds in which Banno exists.
Secondly, supposing that some amount of information, beyond the rigid designator, is needed to ensure you are talking about Banno is to fail to see what possible worlds are. Again, they are stipulated, not found.
DNA
Is your point of significance? If so, set it forth.
Because your thought remains opaque.
Kripke was into scientific essentialism so I would suppose that something like your unique DNA fingerprint would be considered a candidate for a rigid designator.
Ah, but in that case we are relying on ostention, not on whether the man is drinking champagne. You thought the man is drinking champagne, but it turns out he is not. Which man? That man over there (pointing).
Quoting Banno
OK, you can stipulate that you are Banno in all possible worlds in which you exist. But how am I to know who Banno is in the first place absent some definite description unless you are already known to me face to face? You might say I know you as the Banno who posts on this forum, but that is a definite description. For all I know you might be a bot.
So, I say it is impossible even to stipulate that you are talking about some particular Banno (out of all the Bannos in the world) without some means of fixing the stipulation (which, again, would involve either ostention or specification [description]). I can't see any way around that.
How do you know that?
But there was another man over there who was drinking champaign. So no, it does not rely on the "over there".
By stipulation. Banno might have red hair. I don't, but I might have.
You see, you already know who I am, without a definite description.
A child could not give a definite description of their friend, mark; and yet can say "what if mark is at the shops?"
SO, on examination, it simply is not true that a definite description is what is needed to set the referent for a name.
I suspect that's because you are looking at it wrong.
On your definition, identical twins are the very same person.
A bit of an issue, no?
Fine just add in epigenetics and the physical properties that make them unique. This wouldn’t change it much. Also I meant rigid designator, not definite description. It makes sense. In all possible worlds, that person would be that person and no one else.
Hey solved your problems
Something to do with proper names being different.
That's easy to say...can you explain why you would think that?
Again, talk is cheap; can you explain where I am going wrong according to you?
How do we know what a name is designating absent either ostention or description?
I think it came out of my having read Witty first. Kripke's thesis follows quite nicely from that background.
The odd thing about Paul is that you have no definite description of him, nor have I pointed to him in a way that picks him in particular out for you; and yet can ask me whatever you like about him.
How can that be possible, if you cannot know what a name is designating absent either ostention or description?
I don't see any need for a causal theory of reference.
Come one; it's obvious the two "over theres" are different. 'Over there' is itself meaningless without description or ostention.
Quoting Banno
You're contradicting yourself; you've just given me a description of yourself. And even without that description (a description which is pretty much irrelevant, since you could dye your hair and remain the same person) I still don't know who you are beyond " the person who goes under the name of 'Banno' who is conversing with me on this forum"; which is itself another description.
You need to come up with something better than this if you are to convince me that I have been wrong.
Quoting Banno
Again untrue, because the child would need to have met Mark and know by means of ostention that he is referred to by that name (by at least one person even if only him or her self) in order to be talking sense.
You have given me a description; that he is your friend; you just haven't specified whether he is imaginary or not.
More descriptions!
Quoting StreetlightX
All this tells me is that you don't seem to be able to answer the question, even though you've read the work (as I have also, but many years ago, and didn't find it answered the question either). Since I didn't think Kripke answered that question when I read the paper, I'm not surprised that you apparently cannot answer it.
And yet we are talking about one individual. The name refers without your having an associated definite description.
For me, this point settled the argument. The reference "Aristotle"pick out Aristotle even if we know nothing about him.
...Kripke's most quoted.
I haven't said that any set of descriptions would or could " set out...without fail that exact person" being talked about. Descriptions give us ideas about which individuals are being referred to, and those ideas are never infallible. I see no problem with that.
Of course, in principle, one person is being talked about, and of course, in principle, names refer; but no explanation has been given how a name could rigidly (i.e. infallibly) designate, not to speak of how it could refer even fallibly without any specification (i.e. description) of, or pointing to, the individual that is being referred to.
That's what you need to give an account of; aspersions, assertions and allusions won't cut it; you need an argument!
Think on that, and we might move on to Lecture 2.
Then it's the baptism thing.
Of course it is the baptism thing, but to say that a name refers to an entity that has been baptized with that name is itself a definite description of that entity: 'the entity that has been baptized'..
The corollary is that if no such baptism occurred everyone could be mistaken in believing that the name in question rigidly refers to the entity in question. this doesn't seem to solve the question about how I know which entity is being referred to. On the other hand if I do know, on account of knowing the baptism, occurred of having witnessed it, then that would count as a knowing via ostention.
If you don't understand that "good x" is subjective and not a fact, you're in no position to be judging anyone.
Kripke on page 48 writes...
So while it is certainly possible that Nixon may not have been president, no one other than Nixon may have been Nixon. Thus, proper names are rigid designators, but are not necessarily strongly rigid. Strongly rigid designators are of necessary existents. Necessary existents exist in all possible worlds.
It seems that Kripke wants to say that being an essential property of an object does not require that that object necessarily exist(in all possible worlds). I think that this is him continuing to drive a wedge between the historical notions of a priori and necessary. Just because something is known a priori, it does not follow that what is known is necessary...
Kripke re-visits what he wrote earlier on page 49...
Because possible worlds are stipulated, and some properties are results of circumstances, and we can stipulate different sets of circumstances...
When an object's elemental constituents are necessary for the object to exist, then when and if we attempt to stipulate that that object does not include it's elemental constituents, we are stipulating a possible world without that object. Kripke acknowledges these sorts of issues, while simultaneously allowing us to continue to sensibly discuss possible worlds scenarios regarding these objects, by virtue of talking about these objects without needing to discuss their essential parts.
We can talk about a table in another possible world without needing to talk about it in terms of it's molecules. I think he goes farther by implying that if talk of it's molecules does not or cannot effectively exhaust talk of it in terms of it's being a table, then something is clearly missing from the account. Molecules alone, specific kinds of wood alone... these things may be essential 'properties' of this table, but they are most certainly not sufficient for being a table, nor are they necessary. Not all wood molecules are tables. Not all tables consist of that type of wood.
There is something inherent to the identity of that table such that part of it's being that table is the fact that we call it such...
I'm not sure he says that. Objects, as far as I understand, according to Kripke are picked out of this world - by virtue of naming them - and posited in another set of circumstances. The other circumstances are stipulated. The other circumstances are possible worlds.
Quoting Wallows
What's confusing to you?
:wink:
Maybe.
So, to stipulate something according to Kripke is to name something or give it a description?
Much more could be said of K's view on Wittgenstein, for example, but first we ought be clear about what it is he is saying about metre rules and such.
We also skipped the mention of Certainty, which is of particular interest to me.
I don't think that that's quite right. I'm thinking that his use of "stipulate" is very specific here. It's being used as a means to isolate the different content of possible worlds, with the rigid designator(the name) being one component and the alternative circumstances being the other. The former remains across all possible worlds, whereas the latter does not.
What makes a good or bad anything is subjective.
Kripke's view of possible worlds is pretty minimalist. So simple "what if..." sentences like "What if I had eggs instead of cornflakes..." are to be understood as setting out a possible world in which I had eggs instead of cornflakes.
It might sound like an attempt to do something metaphysically awesome - to bring whole worlds into existence just to talk about cornflakes and eggs. It's not. the term "possible world" is a hang over from his formal logic, and are just differing interpretations.
So we can seek out the consequences that might have ensued if I had eggs instead of cornflakes. I wouldn't have opened the milk, and the pan would need cleaning.
What we do not have to do is to work out if the person eating the eggs in that possible world is the same as the person eating cornflakes in the actual world. That they are the same is set in the specification: "What if I had eggs instead of cornflakes..."
And that's where those who think there is a problem of transworld identity (@frank ?) get it wrong, setting the cart before the horse.
Saying "rubbish" and then listing subjective criteria doesn't really work as an argument.
Yes. Banno just elaborated nicely upon my response to you...
Excuse me?
As well as being wrong.
Lol, could you be any more transparent about not being able to defend your view?
This topic is about Kripke's paper/lectures. It is not about the archaic and utterly useless notion of subjective that you've invoked here...
You're excused.
I see you don't understand how discussions work.
I think that prior to getting into the second lecture, we ought offer a summary of the first. This summary ought set out the important distinctions that he set the groundwork for. The last twenty or so pages are important to understand. I'm still working through them. They seem to be explanations of earlier distinctions, but the notion of "fixing a referent" as compared to giving a synonym ought be understood...
Well, you are using subjective in an odd way. Since the FIDE sets out clearly the requirements for a grand master, that status is not "based on feelings".
And, a grandmaster would be a far better protagonist than a neo, whether the difference is subjective or not.
The only thing more annoying than someone coming into a thread about a book and posting without having read the book would be someone coming into a thread about a book and posting a bunch of stuff that is simply not related to the book.
It's not that the difference in how they're moving the pieces is subjective. It's that one set of moves versus another counting as "good at chess" is subjective .
I'm not using "subjective" in an unusual manner. The subjective/objective distinction has nothing to do with agreement, and subjective phenomena are not limited to "feelings." Re the requirements being codified and agreed upon, that doesn't make them obtain objectively. Again, the distinction isn't about agreement, and argumentum ad populums are fallacies.
You could be more ignorantly and arrogantly patronizing than assuming I haven't read Naming and Necessity, but I'll have to get back to you re how.
Yes that's right and you only know that by ostention and/ or description which has been my point.
I think, I get it. So, stipulative terms are those which we can specify; but, don't necessarily obtain in the actual world. Is that right?
Alright. But the next two questions are still pertinent... What's your take on them?
Look again at "What if Banno had eggs instead of cornflakes this morning?"
The stipulation is "Banno had eggs"; this, not a law of nature or a puff of logic, is what sets up the possible world.
It does not "bring the possible world into existence for us to investigate" or some such metaphysical miracle. Perhaps it is best just to think of the stipulation as having set up a possible conversation.
Okay, but then without the metaphysics we're kind of left with an empty referent as to you having eggs instead of cornflakes this morning
Calling it a world seems to cause so much grief. It comes from the practice in formal logic of calling a given set of objects used in an interpretation, a world, and hence a possible world in interpreting modal statements.
Let's play with calling it a "possible discussion", which, while problematic in other ways, might help explain away the mistake of thinking of possible worlds as metaphysical entities.
So we could have a chat about the consequences that might have ensued had I cooked eggs instead of the lazy option of cornflakes; or we could have a conversation about what might have occurred had Nixon not been elected. and so on. These conversations do not bring whole worlds into existence.
Oh, a fellow wallower. Nice to meet you. :)
In what way is the proposed conversation without a sense? It is about me, my cornflakes, and the eggs I didn't eat. The meaning seems to me to be pretty clear.
Well there's nothing to attach the predicate of you eating cornflakes or eggs with bacon this morning. It has no referant that obtains in this world, or an empty referent. So, I figure we're committed to talking about a possible world where you ate eggs and bacon this morning. So, hurray metaphysics.
I find myself asking at what stage I conclude that you are being obtuse for the sake of it? Knocking stuff off the table just to watch Banno pick it up again?
But you eating eggs and bacon this morning never happened. It doesn't obtain in our world; but, in some possible one where that may have happened. The referant exists in that possible world and not this one. So, again hurray metaphysics!
As a fellow wallower, you must understand that this is simply a thing we do.
Then, is Banno a rigid designator?
Then, had you eaten cornflakes and eggs with bacon this morning because you wanted a hearty meal also refer to that rigid designator in our world? What's happening to the referential component? Where is it instantiated?
What? The sentence is about Banno and eggs and cornflakes. What referential component has a problem?
The referential, "Banno" in "Banno ate cornflakes and eggs with bacon this morning" denotes the Banno in this world or in a stipulated possible world or is that irrelevant?
If "Banno" is a rigid designator - which it is - then it refers to Banno in any possible world in which Banno exists.
So yes, it denotes Banno in the actual world and in any possible world in which I exist - including the one where I ate eggs.
But, it doesn't obtain in this world only a possible stipulated one.
I simply believe that the fact that it doesnt obtain in our world gives the possible discussion a different meaning. Be it epistemic, ontological, and even in some sense metaphysical.
They are modal.
Okay, so since I got that straightened out, what's next?
So, do modal chats differ substantially from talk about what obtains? Do some philosophers restrict talk to things that only obtain. Is modal talk metaphysics?
Nuh. Epistemology.
But arguing in this way is misguided since there is considerable (understatement) overlap.
What kind of epistemology?
Quoting Banno
Overlap with what?
Point me in the right direction, kind Sir. What pages should I cover? I'm almost close to the end of the lecture I.
You know Nixon in the actual world a posteriori. And it's true that we know him by his story. So it's troubling that we can think about a Nixon with an alternate story.
I think there are a variety of approaches to that question and Kripke was vague enough that he invites differing interpretations.
How do you assess our ability to think of a Nixon with an alternate story, when we know him by his story?
For me the question would be as to how alternative the story could be without Nixon ceasing to be Nixon.
So we would change a few things and it's still Nixon. Then we keep changing things and somewhere prior to imagining Nixon as a golf ball, we say that couldn't be Nixon?
Perhaps we don't need to go as far as the golf ball to lose Nixon. Could Nixon still be Nixon if he had had different parents and also looked completely different or was a woman, for example?
Different biological parents: Kripke would say no. A hyper-anti-essentialist might say yes.
Looked different? That just takes a wig and some make-up, so I think only the hyper-essentialist would say no.
Woman? Mr. Sperm has a Y chromosome. If he had an X, would he be the same sperm?
So how do we separate the name 'Nixon' and its referent from the associated definite descriptions of the referent; 'the man who had these biological parents', 'the entity who was a man' and so on?
Kripke doesn't suggest that we ever do that. The hyper-anti-essentialist does.
Kripke just notes that we do easily speak of alternate Nixons. The concept of the rigid designator seems to apply to a scenario where we lay possibilities out in a row on a table, so to speak.
If you speak about alternate Nixons, are you thinking of it spacially in that way? Or do you imagine this universe as a script, and think of a re-write? Or what?
It's a long while since I read (and studied) Naming and Necessity, but as far as I understand Kripke wants to separate the idea of reference from any dependence on definite description. Nothing I have read in this thread has convinced me that he succeeded, or even could succeed, in doing that. So I thought when I studied it, and still tend to think, that it is "much ado about nothing".
Quoting frank
I think we can quite coherently imagine that Nixon could have had a very different life-course. What exactly it is that is most minimally necessary and sufficient to make someone count as being Nixon is not so easy to pin down. This would seem to be related to Wittgenstein's critique of essentialism in terms of "family resemblances". It is not a precise science.
Reference? I think it's more about identity. If I write about an alternate Nixon, I shouldn't have any problem picking out which character in my story is Nixon. If you read my story and have difficulty, that means I suck at writing.
Quoting Janus
Kripke agrees. Schopenhauer strongly disagrees.
Reference and identity seem to be inseparably related, though. You can write about (in the sense of stipulate that you are writing about) an alternative Nixon, but does that character have some ineliminable relation to the actual Nixon, or is the relation merely an arbitrary stipulation; a "because I say so"?
Quoting frank
Well, "rigid designation" suggests precision whereas descriptions are always imprecise. Perhaps Kripke is ambivalent or inconsistent?
I would say yes. The actual Nixon, at a certain point, had the potential to either win or lose.
I understand what you're saying about reference. I'll have to think about it.
Indeed he does, or so it may seem...
That is the bit that I'm currently attempting to summarize. I think it amounts to the difference between the meaning of a name and a name as identity. He actually has a few examples where a description is clearly inadequate for identity. It also seems that he's using modality(possible world semantics) as a means to argue this...
But, if every name is a rigid designator, then we're left with necessary existents that instantiate necessity. How do you deal with this?
By "name as identity" do you mean "name as identifier". The problem I see is that many people can have the same name, and when we use a name to refer to someone we need supplementary descriptions (unless we are right there in which case pointing (ostention) will suffice) to enable us to identify who the name is being used to refer to.
Of course I agree that a description or any set of descriptions is "adequate for identity" but a description may be adequate for identification.
No matter how attenuated the fictional characters connection (in terms of description) to the real Nixon is? Are you thinking it is so simply on the basis that you (the author) think of your character as being somehow an alternate version of Nixon? Would it matter if others found the identity connection unconvincing?
I'm not sure that every name is a rigid designator for Kripke. Proper names are what he's dealing with... I think.
Assume he is talking about every name, for the sake of argument...
What do you mean "we're left with necessary existents that instantiate necessity"?
Yes, I'll settle with that. I might be wrong of course about every name being a rigid designator. Of course, some names can have empty referents. Like, Pegasus, or Harry Potter.
Quoting creativesoul
Well, what "structures the world" according to my reading of Kripke are necessary existents. That's all I meant by it.
No. In any possible world that includes Nixon, there are characteristics essential to him. He has to be human-shaped, for instance. He can't be a golf ball.
That would suggest that I'm straying either from facts about Nixon or logical possibility.
That was put poorly by me...
He repeatedly talks of the consequences for a theory of meaning and a theory of reference as they apply to his offering. So, it seems clear from that that Kripke is at a minimum showing the difference between them. Further seems that he's tying definite descriptions to theories of meaning and not to identity.
What I find intriguing is that he's using possible world semantics as a means for reduction...
What can we take away and retain the identity? You and frank have been discussing this and it's consequences. Kripke notes several times that there are essential parts, and that those are not the aim of his paper... So, it's scope of application is limited.
Seems that one of his main points is to displace the commonly held view that that which is necessary is also a priori. Another is to render the distinction between a priori and a posteriori flawed at a minimum, and useless at a maximum.
My own position is at odds with much of what Kripke is arguing from, and even a bit of what he is invoking on his own. However, I've decided to set difference aside here simply for the sake of understanding Kripke. Later on I think it would be beneficial for us to show the pros and cons of what Kripke is arguing for. This is a reading group, so expressing flaws or shortcomings is acceptable for me at some point after everyone who's interested in and capable of understanding what Kripke is getting at does.
Some have said that definition requires a description of the object being defined, and that identity is determined by such. Hesperus and Nixon are prima facie examples of cases where that quite simply does not hold up to scrutiny. We can easily posit possible worlds where descriptions of the object are not necessary to identify the object.
Hesperus could've gotten knocked of it's course. Some object of equivalent mass other than Hesperus could have come to rest 'at' the same spatiotemporal location. That possible world scenario does not make Hesperus something else. That possible world scenario does not make the other purely hypothetical object Hesperus. Rather, it shows that definite descriptions are not necessary for identifying Hesperus. "The evening star" is a description that is not necessary to identify Hesperus.
Had other events taken place, Nixon could have lost the election. Someone else could have won. This would not make Nixon a different object. This would not make the other person Nixon. It shows that descriptions of Nixon as president are not necessary for referring to and/or identifying Nixon. He was Nixon prior to his presidency after-all...
I'm concluding based upon the above that - according to Kripke's scheme - a necessary existent is equivalent to an essential property...
The above seems to argue in defense or support of essential and/or necessary properties. What I do not get, cannot quite square, is the above with the below, which he wrote early on in the first lecture...
Evidently there's a meaningful distinction to be drawn and maintained between particulars and objects?
Anyone here that care help me out?
I don't think so. He meant any particular thing.
Hmmm...
I'm not so sure.
If it doesn't matter to some of the points he makes, then perhaps it be best to set it aside and bring it up at a more appropriate time.
Can anyone help here?
In the second quote he's going to explain how that confusion can be resolved.
He argues in favor of the first quote. He argues in favor of the second quote. The result is obvious self-contradiction unless there is a distinction to be drawn and maintained between objects and particulars.
Particulars are stipulated?
This would mean all statements about alternate possibilities are false. Most statements of that sort aren't aiming to say something about the nature of the universe, though. Often they're just about logical possibility.
Kripke talks about rigid designators as a way to capture more clearly what we mean by such speech. It's not a philosophical device. He's only using jargon for something that didn't previously have a name.
So in your first quote, he's venturing away from total reliance on descriptions. He doesn't leave description behind entirely and doesn't leave us with a very clear idea where we should draw the line.
Unsure how this addresses my last post. Nonetheless, it makes no sense to me.
If all known properties of an object are necessary, it would mean that all statements about alternative properties are about that which is not... necessary.
I agree. What follows below is a bit off topic, my own take on a few things, and disagrees sharply with the convention grounding Kripke's thoughts in a few ways...
It is worth mention that possible world scenarios can consist of true statements. What makes these statements true matters. I'll say more about that momentarily...
In order to be logically possible, a statement must follow the rules of correct inference. Conclusions are statements that follow the rules of correct inference. Logically possible statements are conclusions that follow the rules of correct inference. Valid conclusions are logically possible.
True statements are existentially dependent upon truth. Some logically possible statements are false. Some logically possible statements are true. Therefore, logical possibility alone is insufficient for truth.
Okay.
So, Kripke is summarizing what's going on when we talk about possible worlds. He's noting(and naming) the different kinds of designators as a means for pointing out some things that had not been pointed out in past. He ventures away from total reliance upon definite descriptions. I think I agree with him on that much...
If it is the case that we cannot stipulate particulars(at least some alternative circumstances), then there can be no possible worlds talk at all, for it is the particular alternative circumstances that make them what they are. Those are stipulated.
Clearly, as skirted around above, the identity of the object in question is not always dependent upon definite descriptions. However, it seems impossible to not use the same name. So, possible world talk happens. We all make some sense of it. Clearly this is because we do no entirely depend upon definite descriptions as a means of identifying the object we're talking about. However, we always use the same name...
Is that about right, on your understanding?
So...
What is your take on what's most important for the reader to firmly grasp in lecture one? I'm almost certain that I'm missing something somewhere along the line...
Your knowledge of identity comes from your involvement with a community that calls a particular by a certain name.
Hmmm... "a particular"?
Particulars are stipulated though, right? Objects are named. Otherwise, the aforementioned self-contradiction...
I wonder, could someone still use the name "Nixon", despite not knowing anything about him?
It just seems to me that if someone overheard you using the name "Nixon", and so came to ask "WhHo is Nixon?", that their question is about Nixon.
SO let's have a look:
Suppose Nixon had had grey eyes. No problem? So the sentence "Suppose Nixon had had grey eyes" is about Nixon.
Suppose Nixon had not been elected President. Quite a few more things would have to change; someone else would have presumably been elected, and so on. But again, the sentence "Suppose Nixon had not been elected" is about Nixon.
Suppose Nixon had been a Woman. Again, quite a few other things might have to change in our freshly constructed possible world. What things? Whatever we like. After all it is our world. And again, the sentence "Suppose Nixon had been a woman" is about Nixon.
Suppose Nixon had been a golf ball. Now we are definitely pushing it. It seems difficult, impossible, even, to picture this possible world in any sort of coherent way.
But again, what is the sentence "Suppose Nixon had been a golf ball" about? It's about Nixon.
SO we might sit with the view that even were Nixon a golf ball, Nixon would be Nixon. Perhaps it's the conjuring of such an absurd possible world that is failing here, not the reference to Nixon.
Are you jumping ahead?
I said:
Quoting frank
His demonstrates the first sentence by pointing to aspects of the second.
You are a particular human. Is that a stipulation in your view?
How do they know it's a "who" and not a "what"?
Still about Nixon.
They have to have some idea who Nixon is to ask a question about him.
Perhaps; but they refer to Nixon without the benefit of a definite description, in order to ask who Nixon is.
Yes. So if they ask "What is 'Nixon'", the answer is "a word".
If they ask "What is Nixon", the answer is "A president".
Once they know he was a president, though that may be all they know, they can speculate that he might not have been a president.
Well, I disagree. And perhaps the reasons will become clearer as we proceed through the book. But for now, will you agree that one can use a name despite not having an associated definite description? Perhaps there must be something that links a name to its referent; but it need not be a definite description.
If Nixon was a golf-ball, he still wouldn't go straight.
It is the nature of counterfactuals that they posit a possible world that is not the case - a coulda woulda shoulda world that is fantasy. If wishes were horses, then beggars would ride, but they ain't and they don't. Whatever Banno had for breakfast, he had that and not something else, and it is impossible that he had something other than what he had. Such is a counterfactual world. There may or may not be a boundary of plausibility, or some limit to the amount of change you wish to countenance, but counterfactuals are all untrue.
That a man be a golf ball is not on the face of it more unreasonable than that cornflakes be eggs, or that brown eyes be blue.
But there are other sorts of possible world, such as Banno's breakfast tomorrow, that are not certainly one thing or the other; eggs or cornflakes are both real possibilities. Every time one makes a plan, one creates a possible world, and if everything goes according to plan, the possible world is realised, or if one has to adapt, another possible world is realised.
And there are epstemologically possible worlds, such that if you don't know what I had for breakfast then as far as you know, I might have had eggs or cornflakes, even though you know that whatever I had, I had that and 'could not' have had something else.
Quoting Banno
As in 'Nixon' - the man, snake, or golf ball you were just talking about.
Nice.
Yes.
It's basically just a matter of what an individual takes to be essential and accidental, or necessary and contingent properties re their concept of Nixon (or whatever we might be talking about).
In other words, you'll have personal requirements for calling some x "Nixon," and you'll only call an x "Nixon" if it meets those requirements.
If every property of something is necessary with respect to your concept of it, then you can't do counterfactual scenarios with respect to it, because it just wouldn't be that thing in your view if there were anything different about it.
But for most people, not all properties of anything are necessary with respect to their concepts of that thing. Most folks have concepts where there are some contingent properties. So most people don't think, for example, that if Nixon didn't wear a blue suit on March 3, 1969, then they're not going to call that x "Nixon" any longer.
And, here is where we get into metaphysics. How does the counterfactual obtain (or is instantiated) when saying Banno had eggs with bacon and cornflakes this morning because he was especially hungry?
Not "Banno had bacon"
But "Banno might have had bacon".
The "had bacon" bit is within the scope of the "might have" bit.
SO it's like "Wallows believes that Banno had bacon"; it might be true even if I had only cornflakes and milk.
Somewhat circular; by, stipulating them. Metaphysics implies that there might be a possible world where they actually obtain. Hence, I think we should stick with possible world semantics instead of "possible discussions".
All these examples only work if you posit some essence or soul- Nixon- such that it could have been incarnated as a woman or even a golf ball. But then the only way to identify who or what is being referred to as 'Nixon' is the entity that is a woman, or a golf ball, that is the incarnation of the essence that is called (has been baptized, if you like) 'Nixon'.
But these are all definite descriptions and without them I could have no idea who or what you are referring to when you say "Nixon" (unless, as I have already said, I was right there with you and you were pointing at the entity in question).
Even to say that someone or some thing was "baptized" and given some name is itself a definite description. That's why I thought, and still think (in the absence of any cogent argument from anyone to convince me otherwise) Kripke's supposed distinction is "much ado about nothing", or if you prefer " A tale told by an idiot, full of sound and fury, signifying nothing". But it's no surprise it has been taken so seriously; America is, after all, the land of hype.
Well, I don't agree. Take a look at 's post.
While there are those who say that existence in possible worlds must be treated in the same way as existence in the actual world, I am not one, nor, to my reading, is Kripke.
Why?
What else could mean that a woman or a golf ball in some alternate reality is the same entity as President Nixon in this one?
And yet the folk in my question example, who do not have access to a suitable definite description, ask about Nixon.
Seems to me a falsification of the theory of definite descriptions. And as you probably know, and as we will find as we move forward, this is not the only type of counterexample.
Then what are counterfactuals if not definite descriptions for events that could have happened otherwise?
The clue is here:
Quoting Banno
You seem to be acknowledging that they must have some idea who Nixon is to ask a question about him, and yet you claim they refer to him without the benefit of a definite description. Now I have acknowledged that is possible if they have seen Nixon (that is know who he is by ostention) but absent that, what other way would they have of knowing who Nixon is than a definite description? You are yet to answer that one.
"could".
Yes, and what more can you say? I'm lost again...
To be clear,
They are suppositions, not alternate realities.
I agree. I think that it doesn't not only not need any such explanation, but that any such explanation is impossible.
Quoting Banno
I undertsnd that a descrition that was not definite enough to enable us to pick out an indivdiual would be useless; it woukd not enable us to know who we are referring to.
Quoting Banno
Yes, but you haven't explained how they knew they we referring to Nixon. It is possible to be misteken about who we think we are referring to, isn't it?
Quoting Banno
Yes, as stipulation which must amount to a definite description...or?
Quoting Banno
I'm not off-topic because all I am asking is how it is established within Kripke's paradigm that we are referring to some entity and no other.
You agree with me that "referring needs no grand philosophical explanation", going further in saying such is impossible.
Yet you insist "...you haven't explained how they knew they we referring to Nixon."
How is this consistent?
Well, perhaps it is that you wish to discuss the end of the book without working through the detail.
IS there any reason we should not move on?
The bullet points, one by one:
1. To every name or designating expression 'X', there
corresponds a cluster of properties, namely the family
of those properties q such that A believes 'qX'.
Roughly, for everything we can name there is a bunch of properties we believe belong to that thing.
Cool?
Very. :)
So, again essentialism rears its head.
by A to pick out some individual uniquely.
A definite description.
one unique object y, then y is the referent of 'x'.
And if not, it ain't?
the "weighted" but is to keep the sort of argument offered by Searle in the scope of this exercise.
And if not, it ain't.
is known a priori by the speaker.
Hm. Is it?
q' s' expresses a necessary truth
so - in every possible world... There's the rub.
Coming from one who prides himself on brevity...
Thanks!
:smile:
I think I'm beginning to understand Kripke's take here... and his aim... but I'm still left feeling like there are some other well-known philosophical issues being addressed by him, and they are still, as of yet, unbeknownst to me. I'm certain of it, as a matter of fact.
I see! Thanks.
Alright, so some are thinking/believing that Kripke is offering an unconvincing 'argument'. I suspect that that belief is ill-founded. While I cannot deny that Kripke's paper is unconvincing for many an issue, I suspect that those are not the aim to begin with.
For example, I see no reason whatsoever to think/believe that Kripke wants to completely separate definite descriptions from identity. He's not divorcing the two on all counts. He's just not. That much is clear because he repeatedly grants essential parts.
Rather, he is divorcing essential parts from possible world semantics.
circular. The properties which are used in the vote
must not themselves involve the notion of reference
in such a way that it is ultimately impossible to
eliminate.
No vicious circularity. No "Socrates is called 'Socrates'".
Here he is targeting both Searle and Lewis.
The supposition that Aristotle might have become a merchant and never contributed to Philosophy, is a supposition about Aristotle...
The supposition that Hitler might have died in the trenches of the first war is a supposition about Hitler.
And so on; the properties that we might include in our description of any individual are none of them necessary, and so cannot function to fix the referent across such suppositions. But that's not a problem because the proper name itself does the job for us.
Hence, thesis six is false.
Counterfactuals are more like proposals that something could have been other than it was. We create them via imagining differences from facts, where that's constrained by some combination of what we believe about possibilities and what makes sense to us.
Our conceptual criteria for particular concepts are important, too, which is what "rigid designation" is about, in that certain counterfactual proposals will result in us not considering some F an F any longer, because it would result in differences contra to what we require to call some x an F.
What it conventionally is for a counterfactual to be true or false is for our proposal to actually be possible or not. That's different than whether we believe it would be possible.
So "Roses could have been 24 inches in diameter" may be true.
"There could have been a real person just like Superman in 1940" may be false.
It just depends on what is actually possible.
If only what exists is possible--that is, if everything is actually metaphysically necessary (and that would follow if determinism is true, for example--well, and it would require something like metaphyiscal rigidity for constants, too), then every counterfactual is false.
When there has never been definitive descriptions as a means for reference, there can never be talk of leaving them aside.
Possible world semantics are existentially dependent upon definitive descriptions. When we're amidst language acquisition, we will further describe - in great detail - some thing to another person. We begin by using the name of that thing. Or at other times, we're describing - in great detail - the thing itself and we're looking to learn the name of it. The elucidation, either way, is meant to help us understand what it is that we're talking about. All of that happens before any discussion such as this one.
I don't think that Kripke would deny any of this.
There is no such thing as identity without definitive description until long after we've already known how to describe things as a means for identity.
I'm going to retire from this one. I've struggled as much as I can take to set aside the fact that I reject possible world talk(the notions of contingency and necessity to be exact) for completely different reasons than Kripke is offering.
The rest of you enjoi and thanks!
:wink:
Sorry to hear. Hope you might change your mind. The book is definitely enlightening.
Kripke uses possible world semantics without ever considering what they are existentially dependent upon... there's nothing enlightening about using rubbish as a means for alternative rubbish production.
They exist in a Meinongian jungle! :grin:
That is the problem... always was... Kripke is of no help.
Sure we can talk about electrons... talk about electrons is not talk about this table. We can talk about this table without talking about electrons.
We cannot posit this table in a possible world scenario where there are no electrons.
Just...no.
Good argument.
Architects design possible buildings. And some of them get built. If they are good architects, their possible buildings conform to the laws of structural mechanics. These are the possible buildings that if they are built, don't fall down. Similarly, if you are planning a possible car journey, it is probably a good plan to cross the river where there is a road-bridge. Generally, the more realistic the possible world, the more likely it is to be useful.
But meanwhile, Kripke is saying that possible worlds exist only as 'notions' and notions can be realistic or fanciful, but depend existentially only on someone's willingness to entertain them. If the building doesn't get built, or the journey is not made, these possibilities are unrealised, and remain mere notions.
There are numerous counterexamples for
(2), "One of the properties, or some conjointly, are believed by A to pick out some individual uniquely," (3), "If most, or a weighted most, of the q> 's are satisfied by one unique object y, then y is the referent of 'x'", and
(4), "If the vote yields no unique object, 'x' does not refer";
that's because the situations they describe are not true a priori, but only after investigation. It's not the descriptions that determine the reference.
Kripke notes the rare case of initial baptism, which example seems to have captured the mind of many philosophers - including hereabouts - such that they have failed to look more broadly for examples, and so been misled in their theorising.
See especially p.79-80.
A first counterargument:
The learned fellow defines Cicero as "the man who denounced Catiline". The plain fellow does not; and yet talks about Cicero.
This is much the argument I used before in asking who Nixon was.
And I think it stands.
So you would replace
(2)"One of the properties, or some conjointly, are believed by A to pick out some individual uniquely,"
with something like (2') "One of the properties, or some conjointly, are believed by someone in the language community to pick out some individual uniquely,"
That looks fraught.
Or do you suggest that somehow the community as a whole has beliefs?
No. I'm saying that Nixon is human-shaped in every possible world that contains Nixon.
Quoting Banno
Knowledge shouldn't be thought of as residing between the ears of individuals. The community is like a knowledge bank. Or a skills bank.
I'm not sure why he even bothered to point this out
Of course, this is not sufficient to pick Nixon out form any other human-shaped individual. It is not a definite description and does not serve to pick out Nixon in the requisite way.
So in so far as Kripke's target here is the reference theory of definite descriptions, the relevance of your point is obscure.
Quoting Banno
The discussion on P.83 goes towards explaining this, perhaps.
It seems that we can know who Einstein is, and also that he created the theory of relativity. The Descriptivist theory of reference seems to result in some sort of vicious circularity here, and yet this is the sort of thing we do every day. One could talk about Einstein without being able to present a belief that picks him out uniquely.
But it doesn't. See p.84 for the 'Godel' example. "The creator of the incompleteness theorem" does not serve to pick out, uniquely, Godel, but instead, Schmidt.
Yet when we are talking about Godel, we are not talking about Schmidt.
And to show that this is not as rare an occurrence as might be thought to dissipate the point, Kripke suggests it might actually be the case, for Peano and Deadakind.
Next an example that might reflect on what @frank is thinking. Suppose that most people - or even everyone - thought that Einstein had invented the Atomic Bomb. Would that make Einstein the inventor of the Atomic Bomb? Of course not. Nor does "Columbus" refer to a Greek mathematician or Norse explorer.
This was the argument that cinched the whole book for me.
:rofl:
I read without much interest.
I suspect that there may be some lack of finesse in the use of description as against definite description in
I think we should adopt the term here from henceforth to dispell he metaphysically of what @creativesoul has been wallowing about/'Over.
So, to talk about counterfactuals, we have definite descriptions that we can stipulate about over and over, Nixon is Nixon and Banno had cornflakes this morning. What else can we say here?
So, "What if Nixon had blue eyes?" stipulates a counterfactual without using a definite description.
I see. Now, I am enlightened.
You came up with the Consensus Theory of Truth. Very American of you.
Look back at all the examples given either by Kripke or yourself that show that a definite description can't be exactly the same thing as a rigid designator. Which example is like this:
The name Prothobis is used by community X. By way of your amazing detective skills, you discover that all definite descriptions used by this community in regard to Prothobis are wrong. Nobody in this community knows anything true about Prothobis and they never have. They don't even know that it's actually a piece of software. They think it's a guy who frequents a coffee shop.
So help me out: how were you able to determine the true identity of Prothobis? Why isn't Prothobis the guy who frequents the coffee shop?
I think obscure questions help flesh out what's at stake. If you don't, just ignore my posts.
Thanks!
Prothobis
I'm actually pointing out what Kripke's lectures do not cover. Nothing I've said here contradicts anything Kripke says about proper names as they apply to possible world scenarios and/or our ability to use proper names across them as an exclusive means of identity.
I agree with Kripke regarding all of his points - as they apply to what's going on in possible world talk(semantics). I simply disagree that that warrants concluding that proper names are both necessary and sufficient for identity in all circumstances. Possible worlds talk? Seems so.
Are there specific circumstances that are essential to making Nixon who he is? What's left of Nixon when we posit a possible world where everything that makes Nixon Nixon is changed(when we stipulate alternative circumstances that quite simple cannot produce Nixon)? Is there a point in continuing to call this hypothetical person by the same name?
How would it not be a case of mistaken identity? Are there such cases in possible world semantics?
There most certainly are specific circumstances which influence who people are, what people are, and how people are. We know that circumstances influence one's thought/belief system(worldview). We know that one is born without a worldview. We know that one's worldview influences one's decision making and behaviour.
Nixon ordered illegal behaviour. We know that presenting himself in the best possible way to the American public was very important to Nixon. We know that Nixon did not want to be thought of as a crook. These are all things that made Nixon Nixon.
Can we imagine a possible world where Nixon had no political aspirations? Can we imagine a possible world in which Nixon did not care if people thought he was a crook? Can we imagine a possible world in which Nixon did not look like, nor act anything like Nixon - and yet still somehow maintain that we're talking about the same person?
At what point are we stipulating circumstances which contradict the essential circumstances that are a part of what made Nixon who he was/is?
Yes. This is a case of mistaken identity. That is, everyone who uses "Prothobis" think that it identifies a guy who frequents a coffee shop; this guy.
All possible world scenarios regarding the above are cases of mistaken identity, unless they include circumstances where Prothobis is not a guy at all, but rather is a piece of software.
Nixon is a golf ball.
Why the "uniquely"?
If Kripke is simply granting another's notion to show it's flaws, then that's fine. However, if that is the case, then there are other issues with that.
Some 'properties'(scare-quotes intentional) make people who they are, but do not pick them out uniquely, for many folk share such 'properties'. It doesn't follow from the fact that some property is not necessarily unique to an individual that that property is not an essential part of who that person is... of that person's identity.
How? Not because proper names are both necessary and sufficient for identity. Rather, because we already know who Nixon is by virtue of knowing the circumstances that he was involved in.
That is what makes possible world talk possible.
I do not think that Kripke's examples have what it takes to dismiss essential parts/properties wholesale. He uses another's false belief about both Einstein and Godel to show that the description is false. It does not show that the description does not identify Einstein and Godel to the believer.
The believer does not know that the description is false.
It does not follow from the fact that one holds false belief about Einstein that that false belief does not identify Einstein. Descriptions are sometimes about an individual, and as a result they can and do pick out a unique individual regardless of whether or not they are true.
Kripke wants to say that we can talk about Neil Armstrong in a possible world scenario without losing his identity even when we stipulate that he did not walk on the moon.
So...
He's ok with falsehood being used as a means to deny that true descriptions are necessary and sufficient for identity.
He's not ok with using falsehood as a means for identity.
:worry:
t least we have some similar sentiment about each other.
This shows that a description need not be true in order to successfully pick out(identify) an individual.
But...
On the other hand, he uses true descriptions in order to support the idea that false descriptions do not identify an individual uniquely. He uses true descriptions to identify someone uniquely other than Einstein and Godel.
Seems fishy...
Re the post you're referencing there, it just depends on how you think about the name. If you take "Nixon" to refer to "Whatever was born on January 9, 1913 in Yorba Linda, California, to Hannah (Milhous) Nixon and Francis A. Nixon . . . and became the 37th president of the United States," then a golf ball could be Nixon (if Hannah had given birth to the golf ball, etc.) while "that guy" (previously picked out by "Nixon") would no longer be Nixon.
You're missing the point because I have yet to have made it clear.
This I don't get. We have just worked our way through ninety-odd pages of close argument. Instead of addressing any of that text, you posit exactly the fraught position the argument set out to refute.
I do find that somewhat frustrating.
So, if Kripke was arguing contra what I just said, then Kripke is wrong.
Because I'm right.
This strikes me as a deep insight. Would you be able to expand on it?
It quite simply does not follow from anything Kripke says that definitive description is unnecessary for identity in all other circumstances aside from possible world semantics and/or what's going on when we talk about circumstances alternative to what we believe.
The only reason that we can talk about setting definitive descriptions aside is because they have already helped us in establishing which individual we're talking about when we use proper names. We pick out this Nixon, not that one... even when Nixon is not here to point at. There are more than one person named Nixon. There is one Nixon who won the American presidential election. Names are clearly inadequate for identifying this Nixon, in this world. Not all use of "Nixon" picks out this Nixon in this world.
If 'Nixon' was both necessary and sufficient for identifying this person, there could be no other people with the name.
To be perfectly clear...
If it were not for both names and definitive descriptions there could be no such thing as identity across possible world scenarios. Neither is sufficient. Both are necessary for the very ability to use a name to posit someone unique into circumstances other than what made them so.
Deep? I don't know about all that. Simple? Surely.
If everyone believes that Neil Armstrong was the first man to walk on the moon, but he - in fact - was not, then any possible world scenario which stipulated that he was not would not be counter to fact.
Can you list any?
He just explained one above.
It seems to me that where you are confused is in thinking that either names are definite descriptions or that they are completely independent of them.
Of course "What if Nixon had blue eyes" does not "use" a definite description, but it implies one, namely "Nixon does not have blue eyes".
It shows that you don't have to have a particular definite description in mind when you use proper names.
Quoting creativesoul
That's true in the case of counterfactuals. Can't really have a counterfactual with zero knowledge of the facts.
Quoting creativesoul
I agree. But we both see that a definite description is not the same thing as a rigid designator, so I think we're on track.
:up:
You can't talk about semantics--meaning, reference, etc.--without talking about how individuals think about language. Whenever you try to say that reference or meaning works in some universal, mind-independent way, you're going to f-- up and say things that are wrong, things that can be very simply falsified merely by noting an individual who thinks about it otherwise.
That's true in all cases of talking about setting definitive descriptions aside and positing alternatives. It does not matter whether or not the alternatives are counterfactual. All it takes to be counterfactual is to be false. That which is true cannot be counterfactual. Some possible world scenarios are true. Some possible world scenarios are not counterfactual.
All possible world scenarios are existentially dependent upon definitive descriptions to help fix the referent of the name being used in the scenario.
"Nixon" refers to more than one person. More than one person are named "Nixon". Only one Nixon was president. Therefore, the name alone is insufficient for identifying this Nixon. Once we've already identified this 'Nixon', then and only then can we entertain circumstances that are alternative to the ones which are unique to this man, by virtue of using the name 'Nixon' as a means for retaining the identity.
Quoting frank
How many different people do you think were the first man to walk on the moon?
We could say that someone other than Neil Armstrong did. Would we be talking about the first man to walk on the moon?
Which is just what I have been saying all along, but which you, somewhat puzzlingly, seemed to be disagreeing with me about earlier
Quoting creativesoul
Wasn't disagreeing with you in the second quote. Was attempting to summarize Kripke.
I still stand by both quotes.
But "Nixon does not have blue eyes" is not a definite description.
Quoting creativesoul
To my eye these two statements are contradictory.
Quoting Banno
Why would it not qualify as a definite description? I think it is a definite description, just as all descriptions are else they would not be descriptions; they are definite insofar as they define the object being described. Of course I also acknowledge that there are degrees of definiteness; just as there is no description that is not definite, there is no absolutely definite description. If I say "Nixon has blue eyes" for example that does not tell me what shade of blue his eyes are (or how large his irises are, what shape his eyes are and so on and on).
Quoting creativesoul
This seems silly to me; of course the definitions are used in this world to identify the entities in other world scenarios. Everything is done in this world, so what else could we be talking about?
Quoting creativesoul
Because it does not pick out a single individual to the exclusion of all others.
But so what? That doesn't mean that the rigid designator is independent of definite descriptions.
But no single description picks out (in the sense of by itself informs someone previously ignorant of the identity of) a single individual to the exclusion of all others; you need a set of descriptions for that; and each description is definite not in the sense that it definitely applies to only one person, (although some of them indeed may) but in the sense that it is part of the definition of what it is to be that unique person.
Consider this statement:
Armstrong was the first man on the moon.
It's not necessarily true because it could have been Aldrin.
Compare this statement:
The actual first man to walk on the moon was Armstrong.
It's necessarily true.
See the difference?
What do you mean? It's from me of course; where else?
In what way is it at odds?
Against
"a noun phrase introduced by the definite article or its equivalent and denoting a particular entity or phenomenon."
A bunch of predicates that fit exactly one individual. That's what a Definite description is.
OK, but is it necessary that each and every individual predicate in the bunch that fits exactly one individual itself fits exactly one individual?
SO in every possible world, Armstrong was first on the moon in the actual world.
Perhaps I have been using the term 'definite description' in an eccentric way, but even if my definition of the term has been incorrect, it doesn't affect my argument because it doesn't follow that rigid designation is therefore independent of definite description on the 'orthodox' definition of the term.
Consider the idea of rigid designation itself: it means, for example, that Richard Nixon is the man who was named 'Richard Nixon' on such and such a date at such and such a place by such and such group of people (parents, officials or what have you), but all of that is, by your own definition, a definite description. So rigid designation cannot be independent of definite description; however tightly or loosely you want to define the latter.
Facts don't have to obtain in another possible world to be real. They just are.
If we feel inclined to say ontologically where one word has its designated meaning, then we can always refer to definite descriptions to elucidate the matter.
Not entirely. The two just aren't identical. We know this because an individual speaker has flexibility in the use of rigid designator.
The knowledge of a definite description has to be somewhere among the members of the language community (if only historically).
Removing this sort of thing is the point of (C), p.71
But you haven't been able to explain how "such a thing" could be "removed" while still knowing who is being rigidly designated. Why not give it a go...in your own words?
Shall we continue to read his book? This thread is about his book. Perhaps he will enlighten us.
Fair enough, but if you think that he does adequately deal with this issue, why not enlighten us now, either by quoting the relevant section, or in your own words? Are you worried about inflicting a 'spoiler'?
I mean it's not as if there has been much, or perhaps even any, shared systematic reading of and commentary on the book carried out in this thread so far.
I agree. :up:
Good dear, the Donnellan criticism in the footnotes on page 85 through 86 would be a topic worthy of its own.
One wants to say: tell me more about this person you can't tell me anything about.
Plato's beard?
It is when positing possible worlds. The identity is without issue even when we stipulate different descriptions... which is part of what Kripke is pointing out.
Yes, but the identity is only established by definite descriptions which are in accordance with the actualities of this world; so there is really no Independence of identity from definite description.
Sure you can say 'imagine Nixon was a golf ball in an alternate reality', but you still need the definite descriptions that establish who Nixon is in this world in order to know who is the golf ball, so the fact you can say that Nixon could be any entity in some imagined possible world with whatever alternative definite descriptions you want to stipulate is really a trivial one without significance.
You can say whatever ridiculous arbitrary thing you like about Nixon, (who can stop you!) in other words, and people will understand who you are talking about and what you are saying; but that fact doesn't mean much.
It's externalism.
The thesis I wrote more than thirty years ago argued in defence of Searle, somewhat along line adopted here by Janus. SO I have some sympathy, and an understanding of what it is like to be held in thrall by a philosophical picture. It took a while for it to sink in that what I was doing was an ad hoc defence of a defunct theory.
I thought I would have to leave behind much of the analytic style of Austin and Searle that I had adopted. Certainly I had no truck with Kripke's causal theory - "it's causal" is what philosophers say when they don't know. I thought for a bit that Davidson's program was the answer. It probably wasn't until I had a chance to come to terms with Wittgentein's views on rules that I understood that any theory of meaning was going to be fraught.
Unless you really want to?
Such a vote may not pick out a unique object; nor might it pick out any object at all.ANd yet the name still refer.
Of interest here are the extension of the Godel example to cases in which no one found the incompleteness theorem, or in which the theorem itself is wrong, and mathematics is complete.
It's not far ahead in my reading. Where are you up to?
The first reply is to apply the same sort of arguments seen before; the second is a bit different, and subtle. But I will have a go...
The assertion is "Godel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic". Now for this will be true only if by "Godel", we are referring to Godel.
But how does the idea that "Godel" refers to the person most people think proved the incompleteness of arithmetic get started, come to be what most people think, unless there is some other basis, distinct from "Godel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic", to pick him out and associate him with "the chap who proved the incompleteness of arithmetic";
Do we wish to conclude that Godel was not Godel before he discovered incompleteness? And yet if incompleteness is what picks him out, we are left with a vicious circularity.
P.90 argues that he same sort of thing will occur should we replace "most people" with an individual, or select group, or what have you.
And here he introduces the idea of a chain of reference, although for reasons of this circularity rejecting it as a way for the definite description theory of reference to escape. For in general we do not know this chain sufficiently well to be sure it contains no circularity.
I'll be interested to see if you can come up with the goods to back up your somewhat patronizing claim that I and/or others are "held in thrall by a philosophical picture". Of course in the broadest sense it's also seems true that any philosopher who holds to the opinion that their philosophical views are not a case of thralldom in one way or another is probably deluding themselves.
I recall thinking "that won't do" when I first read it; but now I am struck by how weakly it is presented.
Given recent discussions of looking at language rather than just theorising, I'm also struck by the similarity to the way Wittgenstein describes his various language games at the start of PI.
Indeed, I am moved to suggest that this is not Kripke presenting a theory, so much as his describing how things are.
Did you post that problem in this thread? If so, could you please link to it? I've only dipped in and out of this thread, so I didn't see it and, now that it's 17 pages, I have no hope of finding it.
I'm interested to see how much similarity there is to the problems I think I see in Kripke's analysis.
I would like to address the issue of a cluster of descriptions if you don't mind.
In an nutshell, my criticism of Kripke's exposition is that if he is saying that names are not definite descriptions that is trivially true, and if he is saying that names are independent of definite descriptions that is patently false. I wonder if there is a third option, and on the assumption that there might be, I am still waiting for it to be presented and explained.
I'm happy to answer any questions and elaborate further, and am also interested to hear your critique of Kripke's analysis.
That's an unexpected take; I'd be interested to hear your reasons for saying that.
[i]"Someone, let's say, a baby,is born; his parents call him by a certain name. They talk about
him to their friends. Other people meet him. Through various sorts of talk the name is spread from link to link as if by a chain."[/i]
So, it would seem that it is on the basis of the accuracy of such a definite description, the most defining definite description of identity, as it were, that we may be thought to be referring or not referring to whomever we think we are referring. When it comes to historical figures we can never be absolutely certain that such a person existed and that we are referring to whomever we think we are.
For example, imagine it is the case that no one called 'Aristotle' authored the philosophical works that are universally attributed to a man named 'Aristotle'; to whom then do we refer when we speak of Aristotle?
As I have said earlier as a work taken to present a positive theory of reference I think it is "much ado about nothing". Taken as a merely critical work, however, I think it does raise some interesting questions.
That's a professional assessment. :razz:
That the individual can speak of X without a specific definite description in mind suggests that "meaning ain't in the head."
You are referring to Putnam. Do you take this to be Putnam's argument?
This seems to speak more to reference than meaning. So, reference is not in the head? Maybe off-topic?
Since he says explicitly that this is not his aim, that's perhaps not surprising.
LOL, did I say that? It's true though I do think they are all related, although being distinguishable from one another.
To return to the thread topic, though: I can refer to all the people I have actually met and whose names I have been told and have remembered without relying on definite descriptions. I can also refer to people whom I know only from seeing them on TV and having been informed of their names without relying on definite descriptions.
But can I refer to an historical figure whom i know only from descriptions of his or her life and actions without relying on definite descriptions? Also, does one have to have a definite description explicitly in mind when referring to someone in order to be said to be relying on definite description?
OK, I don't remember where he says that, but if it so then my criticisms have been misplaced.
Counterfactuals and cases of error or ignorance seem to suggest that you don't have to have a definite description in mind.
Quoting Janus
I think just access to some portion of a description.
Hmmm... I don't see anyone taking that stance. It's not about what one can imagine about someone picked out of this world. For me, at least, it's much more about what sorts of imaginings render the object picked out of this world to be basically non-existent. Imagining a world with water but no hydrogen comes to mind as an easy enough example to understand.
As it(possible world semantics) applies to picking out people, I'm not too sure that Kripke is that far off base, if at all. Certainly, there are some situations that are pivotal to making one who one is. Seems that those situations - if removed - would also remove an important part of the person, but I'm not at all certain that I would take a strong stance against anything Kripke has written thus far(regarding where I am).
Certain things other than people, I would... but, Kripke isn't dealing with those... yet(?).
I don't think that Kripke is divorcing identity from description. I think he's using the fact that possible world semantics allow us to stipulate different circumstances without losing identity to show some other things(stuff about a priori/a posteriori, a priori and necessity, perhaps even difference between theories of identity, meaning, and definition). I'm not sure exactly what he's doing, but thus far nothing he has said seems outright wrong...
I'm not too sure that I'll be convinced of much at all simply because we can lose description in positing possible world scenarios, but we'll see.
I personally have a strong aversion to modality(possible world semantics), so... this is tough reading for me anyway. It's like eating a food that is very hard to get down as a result of how badly it smells... you know? Something that the smell alone could make you vomit. I have to accept possible world semantics to understand what Kripke is getting at.
So, this is work for me!
:wink:
Yes. I recall at least a couple of times that he explicitly denied that he was offering a theory.
(1) To every name or designating expression 'X', there corresponds a cluster of properties, namely the family of those properties q> such that A believes 'q>X'.
(2) One of the properties, or some conjointly, are believed by A to pick out some individual uniquely.
(3) If most, or a weighted most, of the q> 's are satisfied by one unique object y, then y is the referent of 'x'.
(4) If the vote yields no unique object, 'x' does not refer.
(5) The statement, 'If X exists, then X has most of the q>' s' is known a priori by the speaker.
(6) The statement, 'If X exists, then X has most of the q>' s' expresses a necessary truth (in the idiolect of the speaker).
(Condition for satisfying the above) For any successful theory, the account must not be circular. The properties which are used in the vote must not themselves involve the notion of reference in such a way that it is ultimately impossible to eliminate.
Ok. I take it that the six listed statements above are Kripke's aim. He's using proper nouns in possible world scenarios to place them under suspicion for various reasons.
Please elaborate?
Uh... no. That's clear enough.
So, what is your take on taking an existential quantification property of a counterfactual?
What?
:meh:
Facts are; events, states of affairs, the way things were/are, reality. Facts consist of what has happened. Counterfactuals are - quite simply - an account of what has not happened. That's what the prefix "counter" must mean, lest the distinction between factual/counterfactual is lost and both terms are rendered utterly meaningless. Continued use of of either term after throwing that distinction out the window amounts to uttering gibberish at worst, and unnecessarily confusing speech at best.
Counterfactuals - by any coherent definition - are counter to fact. Possible world scenarios can be true. That which is counter to fact cannot. Counterfactual scenarios are not equivalent to possible world scenarios.
All counterfactuals and possible world scenarios consist entirely of statements of thought/belief about what has not happened. Counterfactuals must be false. Possible world scenarios can be true.
Counterfactuals are false statements about some thing in this world. The counterfactual statement performs the task of picking out this object from this world and subsequently stipulating a set of imagined circumstances that are counter to this world's circumstances with regard to that thing. They must be false.
The possible world statement performs the task of picking out this object from this world and subsequently stipulating a set of imagined circumstances that are counter to what's believed about this world's circumstances with regard to that thing. They can be true.
You meant target?
So, I don't have to have anything specifically in mind when I refer to, say, Aristotle? What about having something in the back of my mind? Surely I have some idea who Aristotle is, otherwise how would referring to Aristotle be anything different than merely saying the name 'Aristotle'?
And that I must have some such idea seems to be what you are alluding to with this:
Quoting frank
Is it the case that there are necessary and sufficient conditions that determine, for every given proper name, if the name has successfully referred to a discreet individual?
that is, must there be universal rules for the use of proper names?
Is that a statement or a question?
Would there not need to be some rule or at least adequate conditions in order to make any distinction between successful and unsuccessful referring coherent?
When did I learn the rule about using proper names?
What does "discreet individual" mean?
So, how does existential qualification/quantification work for counterfactuals?
Then what would Kripke say?
But could we back up and ask if there are rules about what kind of speaker can use words to refer? Can a parrot do it?
I think internalists are satisfied with the information being in the back of your mind.
You can talk about Aristotle without having correct information about him.
Are you saying there are no rules about that?
I also find the invocation of possible worlds semantics an unnecessarily complex solution to what I consider to be a simple question. It is also metaphysically troublesome and hugely confusing, as is evinced by the amount of debate as to what it means.
FWIW I agree with the dilemma you set up, and I too wonder whether there is a third option, and if so what it is.
But these are just my opinions and, since some philosophers get a great deal of pleasure from reading and discussing Kripke's lectures, I don't want to spoil that for them.
But if everything about a man who is reputed to have once existed and to be named 'Aristotle' that you think you know, including even the fact of his existence, is wrong, then on what basis could you be said to be talking about anyone other than an fictional character. Would you not then be using the name to refer to a character that exists only in your imagination, or at best the collective imagination?
Learning to drive does not consist solely in learning any set of rules. Much of the learning is simply know-how we learn by doing, just as it is with using proper names. We may learn explicit rules regarding correct use of proper names, or we may after the fact analyze what we are doing in an attempt to establish rules. There is no guarantee that we can establish a rule for everything we can do.
And, you haven't answered my question Banno! Here it is again:
Quoting Janus
That is, how do we know our use of proper names succeeds or fails to refer (if it indeed does succeed or fail) in the different situations in which we use them?
I'm referring to Aristotle by proxy. Somebody else has to know or have known.
If I'm in error, it's with regard to the way the community uses "Aristotle."
Right?
I'm probably not as familiar with the 'definite description' tradition as you are; not enough to have an opinion about the charitably of Kripke's reading of it.
Quoting andrewk
I do agree with this!Quoting andrewk
Yes, rectitude is not always essential for pleasure is it?
Well, it seems that those statement amount to somewhat of an argument in favor of some form of essentialism. In addition, they also argue in favor of the idea that what is known apriori is a necessary truth.
What I'm saying is that a rough summary of what I've read thus far amounts to Kripke using proper nouns in possible world scenarios to target those arguments/notions. His examples seem to falsify a few of those statements.
Yes, I agree. So once you go beyond those who knew the man who is called Aristotle personally, descriptions are relied upon for us to have any idea who we are referring to. This was my point earlier: ostention or description.
So when we talk about Aristotle we may or may not be talking about someone who actually existed, who did what he is reputed to have done and so on. If all we know about Aristotle are the details about his life and works that are reputed to be accurate, and those details are actually not accurate at all, other than that there was a man called Aristotle (among probably many other men called Aristotle) who lived around that time and to whom by some quirks of fate the life details and works of the 'historical' Aristotle were wrongly attributed, then I suppose we would be referring to that man.
We have no way of knowing, then, who exactly we are referring to. But I guess you could say that we are correctly referring to that man Aristotle to whom the details of the life and work of the historical Aristotle were falsely attributed.
Or would you rather say that we would be referring to another man who might have existed, a man never named Aristotle, whose life and work details are those of the historical Aristotle?
In either case it would be a definite description that establishes which man we are referring to it seems.
Yup. I mean those are what he's arguing against. He is doing so by using proper nouns in possible world scenarios and pointing out what's going on when we do such a thing.
I think it is very important to keep that in mind.
Yes. It's just that an individual speaker can use the name without knowing. That's only possible because there are or have been others who knew. The notion that a proper name can pick out a particular without anyone ever having known any kind of definite description associated with it is absurd.
Quoting Janus
If we found out his name was actually George, then we'd probably still call him Aristotle and sometimes point out that his real name was George. :grin:
Quoting Janus
Yes. Except for the people who have those blue lasers coming out of their heads that shine directly on whoever they're talking about (even if the person's been dead for 2400 years.) Time travelling laser.
Yes there are, but that criterion is not Kripke's target. As it pertains to the lectures, I too have issue with the definition and theses that Kripke is arguing against. During this thread I have put forth my own views from time to time when it seemed relevant to the reading, and thus appropriate. I suspect that there will come a time when those will be revisited.
I do want to understand Kripke's position though. It seems to me to be more like a discussion of what he sees as flaws in some historical 'schools of thought'. I'm good with that, even if he and I approach those schools of thought(and their purported problems) from different 'angles'...
His approach is explaining what's going on when we use proper nouns in possible world scenarios, and using what we learn about that as grounds for arguing against historical popular notions of essentialism(I think). In addition he targets the use of a priori and necessary as synonyms. He also argues against the distinction between a priori and a posteriori.
When you drew the correlation between the name and the thing being named that the community of speakers had already drawn.
Those six statements may do that. But I don't think those statements fairly represent a mature descriptivist position. For example statement 5 is something that is at most believed, not known, by the speaker. Further, I don't think descriptivism requires putting it in that If...Then... form. I think a fairer rendering is that 'The speaker believes there exists an individual with name X that has most of the properties'. I don't think there's any need for the 'a priori' bit either.
It seems to me that the essentialism is an artefact of Kripke's interpretation of descriptivism, rather than a feature of descriptivism itself. So far as I know, Russell was not an essentialist.
BTW those six statements are listed on this wiki page on Naming and Necessity, which will perhaps be a more accessible reference as the above post listing them recedes further into the past of this long, long thread.
Parrots do not draw the correlation between the name and what's being named. The speech act theorists called that something or other, didn't they? The rhetic? No... Phatic? Cannot remember. Something like that. They pointed out that making the sound does not equal a meaningful utterance.
Well, they certainly do not accurately represent my own position, which could be viewed as a form of essentialism, although I wouldn't think that it is close enough to historical ones to view it as one. Someone else certainly may. I do strongly believe that there are some things which are an emergent product of simpler things in combination. In those cases, talking about the essential parts does not equal talking about the product of their combination. Water comes to mind as before. Easy to understand. Talking about hydrogen is not talking about water.
Yeah, Kripke seems to have an axe to grind with regard to several historical positions. I personally have no interest in his targeting the a prior/a posteriori or showing that just because something is known a priori does not make it necessary, in the sense that it must be the case in all possible worlds.
I do find the definition awkard enough to be interesting. That is statement (1).
What has to happen for a reference to be successful? When has one used a proper name properly?
Forty or fifty years ago, that historical school of thought was The One.
But not any more.
And that's because, in a large part, of N&N.
So, yes.
And it's not that one cannot, in the privacy of one's lounge, assign a name to such-and-such. This does happen; but it is the exception. In the vast majority of instances, this is not so.
And in all instances the community is involved.
The word "history" here took root, so that some talked of Kripke having an historical theory of reference. I think that overplayed, but we may see.
Just the sort of thing I like.
Welcome to the forums.
I occasionally mention on these boards, a person I call "Mrs un". If you want a definite description, "Mrs un is the woman I live with." Or an alternative, and equally definite description, "Mrs un is the mother of my daughter".
So if I am to be believed, then you know that I live with a woman and we have a daughter. It is a non-counterfactual possibility that Mrs un and I split up, and then she would no longer be the woman I live with, but the woman I used to live with. But there is no non-counterfactual possibility that would make her no longer the mother of my daughter. Yet it is counterfactually possible, that we might have had a son, or two daughters, or none. And all of this is perfectly comprehensible.
Yet though Mrs un is a real person, "Mrs un" is not her real name. You, most of you, do not know her real name, or anything about her that would allow you to pick her out in a line-up of women, even if you could question them - many women have daughters and live with philosophers. You know exactly who I'm talking about, yet you have no idea who I'm talking about.
The answer to the first question is that the audience has to understand what you're saying. The answer to the second? I think that's a matter of rule following.
But that picture of naming was held by most analytic philosophers for at least a century.
N&N killed it.
You and I seem to agree that descriptions, definite or not, are not compulsory for names to do their thing.
An apple sits alone in my fruit bowl. Through its process of ageing, its skin turns from green to red in patches, maturing into a uniform red , eventually it begins decaying; the red turns to brown, mould starts to appear and it loses its shape, becoming more black mulch than apple. Its smell changes from barely detectable from range apple scent to the sweetness of rot and alcohol. The process of decay causes it to collapse in on itself. Now it's a pile of smelly mouldy black crap the flies are feasting on.
Throughout that description, the apple loses the colour of its skin; the definite description 'the green apple in my fruit bowl' stops picking out the entity I'm referring to - the same for all the properties it has which change over the course of decay. Regardless of the point in the description however, the 'it' refers to the apple. IE, regardless of the changes in the apple's properties, it is still that which is being referred to, and 'it' still picks out the unique entity in the description.
Imagine instead that referring really only works in the presence of a definite description, the 'it' at the beginning is 'the lone apple in my fruit bowl', at some point that 'it' must stop referring to the apple iff a unique reference must be accompanied by a definite description. This, however, is not what we observe when reading the paragraph; it tracks a process of change of a unique entity; facilitated by the rigidness of 'it' there;, rather than a series of transformations between distinct ones; the distinctions each furnished with their necessary definite description which at some point fails to obtain.
You need to embrace spontaneous composting.
The definite description of the particular apple you are referring is the one you have given of the whole process of the change from apply freshness to mouldy noxiousness that occurred to a particular apple. Of course, the process might not actually have occurred in your kitchen and you could be referring to a hypothetical apple. You might not even have a kitchen for all I know; in which case you won't have to worry about cleaning it.
And, if that is indeed so, you think it has been a good thing?
Quoting unenlightened
I'll stick with 'I have no idea who you're talking about'. at least beyond the descriptions (definite or otherwise) you have offered, and whatever can be inferred from those.
[quote=me]An apple sits alone in my fruit bowl. Through its process of ageing, its skin turns from green to red in patches, maturing into a uniform red , eventually it begins decaying; the red turns to brown, mould starts to appear and it loses its shape, becoming more black mulch than apple. Its smell changes from barely detectable from range apple scent to the sweetness of rot and alcohol. The process of decay causes it to collapse in on itself. Now it's a pile of smelly mouldy black crap the flies are feasting on.[/quote] (this will hence be called the paragraph)
I'm unconvinced. The paragraph regarding the apple contains various phrases that reference the apple, whose ability to refer doesn't depend on the entire paragraph being a definite description. For example, the 'its' in the first line refers to an apple which is not showing signs of decay, whereas 'eventually it' refers to an apple which is showing signs of decay. In order for the first 'it's reference to require the construction of the entire paragraph it seems to me that if the words after an it were removed, all previous its would stop referring as there would no longer be the same definite description underlying them all. IE:
Quoting fdrake (this will hence be called part 1)
apparently requires:
(this will hence be called the part 2)
for the various 'its' and 'it's used in the passage to refer to the apple in the bowl in the first place.
Moreover, if what you say is true truncating the paragraph at some point must also produce definite descriptions of the same entity. I believe it should be the case that if two definite descriptions apply to something those definite descriptions should not be contrary; eg, 'My father' should not share a referent with 'my mother'. This is problematic, as truncating the paragraph at:
Quoting fdrake
gives a definite description which requires the apple to have turned from green to red; any other changes are counterfactual suppositions. Then when we include the next part of the paragraph:
The apple is now required to be brown, mouldy, and descending into mulch. The two definite descriptions are contrary, thus they must refer to distinct entities. However, there is a single entity whose properties and transformations the descriptions track.
Furthermore, even if we grant that the entity associated with the description in part 1 and the entity associated with the description in part 2 are the same, this makes the additional information in part 2 entirely superfluous for the purposes of securing reference to the entity. IE, the entity in part 1's reference is not sensitive to counterfactual supposition or change; as part 2 destroys those properties of the apple which facilitate its definite description in part 1.
I don't have time for detailed response just now, so I'll keep it short.
The "it" referring to the fresh apple and the "it" referring to the mouldy apple both refer to the same apple, it seems. The descriptions "fresh' and "mouldy" are not mutually exclusive but part of a greater description that helps to defines that particular apple (time, dates and location are also required). Its whole history is its completed identity. Of course logically. it's history could have been different; in which case its identity would have both been different, and yet the same. It seems there are different senses of 'identity'. The old 'Star Trek transporter accident scenario' where there ends up being two versions of you illustrates this paradox. Which one is you?
It seems to me that the issue concerning the reidentification of a material particular (or substance) as being numerically the same at two moments in time, in spite of qualitative change, is orthogonal to the issue of the rigidity (or lack thereof) of the referring expressions that are being used to denote it in particular instances. In @fdrake's example, the first part stipulates the existence of an individual (i.e. the apple) and assigns some properties to it. Thereafter, it seems to be assumed that this individual has conditions of persistence and individuation such that it can survive some qualitative changes while remaining numerically the same individual. The several occurrences of "it" all pick up the same individual just in virtue of them being used to refer anaphorically to whatever the first singular expression (i.e. the anaphoric antecedent "an apple...") was referring to. That would be true, it seems to me, regardless of the individuation conditions for apples, and regardless of the rigidity of the anaphoric antecedent.
The issue wouldn't arise if time was instantiated linguistically into the sentence. Would it?
What issue? You may be thinking that definite descriptions of particular material substances at least implicitly assign times (or time periods) to the properties that are being ascribed to them within the description. I would agree. Within a Fregean logical framework, predicating a property of an individual without assigning a time constitutes an unsaturated thought (and an incomplete predication). A time must also be supplied in order that the 'thought' (Fregean proposition) be complete and truth evaluable. And likewise, in the case of definite description, a time must be supplied (either implicitly or explicitly) in order that the definite description could saturate the sentence it is a part of.
Yeah, you pretty much nailed it (figuratively and literally). Every document has a timestamp on it, thus why not assume the same when you invoke "duration" or "period" into a sentence?
"Sameness" might be the issue here.
In Frege's philosophy of language, predicates are unsaturated expressions since they have empty slots that require filling with singular terms in order to constitute propositions and express thoughts.
Hence, for instance, "... is red" is a predicate and an unsaturated expression.
"The apple is red" is saturated. But it is saturated in part because it is tensed. It expresses that the apple is red currently. On the other hand, the non-tensed expression "The apple being red" is unsaturated, because it fails to specify at what time the apple is claimed to be red.
That's just not the case.
Those descriptions apply to more than just that apple. However, the name alone cannot do the job all by itself either. It is also not necessary and sufficient. The name "apple" applies to more than just that one in particular.
Identity requires both, a name and a set of definite descriptions. Neither is sufficient all by itself. Both are necessary. Successfully identifying a particular object in this world requires both. Before we can talk about this apple in another world, we must identify it in this one. That requires distinguishing it from all the other apples. That distinction requires descriptions of particular circumstances regarding this particular apple and not that one.
After the object is identified with both name and descriptions, and only after that has happened, can we talk about and successfully disregard the descriptions and retain identity.
If we believe that person A did such and such, but that belief is false, then when we talk about who did such and such, we're talking about what we believe to be the case. We're talking about person A. If we learn that person B did such and such, we learn that it was not person A. At that time, and never before, we would be referring to person B when we talked about the person who did such and such.
Let "such and such" equal invent/discover Peano's axioms. Let person A equal Peano. Let person B equal Dedekind.
Kripke's argument here presupposes that false statements about someone in particular cannot refer to that someone in particular.
That's absurd.
Surely I've misunderstood Kripke? And there's this bit below...
No?????
Arrrgggh! For fuck's sake...
If we sincerely say "Godel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic" then that is a statement of belief. We believe that that statement is true. When one speaks sincerely, s/he believes what they say.
When we deliberately say something that we do not believe to be true, we are speaking insincerely.
Statements of belief are ones that the speaker believes. When a speaker is making statements that they do not believe, they are making statements that misrepresent their own thought/belief. One cannot do this accidentally. As soon as one says something, they know - beyond all doubt - whether or not they believe the words that came out of their own mouth. A sincere speaker automatically corrects the slip up.
One cannot sincerely state 'X' if one does not believe 'X'.
Sincere speech acts consist of statements that represent the speaker's belief. Insincere speech acts consist of statements that misrepresent the speaker's belief. Saying 'X' and not believing that 'X' is true is not sincerely stating 'X'.
Yeah, no shit Sherlock! Doesn't matter if you're speaking sincerely or not. Why swap back and forth between examples here? They are not equivalent.
When we say "Godel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic" we are referring to this particular man named Godel. Schmidt is not this man named Godel. That holds good regardless of whether or not we believe that Godel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic.
When we say "Peano invented Peano's axioms" we are not referring to Dedekind even if we know that Peano did not invent Peano's axioms.
If we believe that Peano invented/discovered Peano's axioms, then when we use the descriptor "the man who invented Peano's axioms" we're referring to this man named Peano. If we believe that Dedekind invented/discovered Peano's axioms, then when we use the descriptor "the man who invented/discovered Peano's axioms", we're referring to Dedekind.
If we believe that Dedekind invented Peano's axioms, we cannot sincerely state "Peano invented/discovered Peano's axioms". If we believe that Schmidt proved the incompleteness of arithmetic, we cannot sincerely state "Godel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic". We are nonetheless referring to Godel.
If our belief about it concerns the existential dependency of it(what is necessary in order for it to even exist in this world), and our belief about that is true, and it is existentially dependent upon other things(elemental constituents) some of which exist in their entirety prior to becoming a part of it and some of which do not, then what we posit in a possible world scenario will always be false if that scenario posits it without all of it's elemental constituents.
Of course. And Kripke isn't denying that. What Kripke is discussing here is what it is that one professes to be believing when one sincerely utters the sentence: "Gödel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic". This would not be the expression of a belief about Gödel (as opposed to its being a belief about Schmidt, say) if the person uttering the sentence wasn't referring to Gödel. And she would indeed not necessarily be referring to Gödel if "Gödel" was used by her (unlike most of us) as shorthand for a definite description to refer to whoever proved the incompleteness of arithmetic.
Ah bullshit... He said we need not believe what we say in order to be sincerely say it. Read it again!
If we sincerely say 'X', it most certainly follows from that that we attribute proving the incompleteness of arithmetic to Godel. He points out that we have to be referring to Godel. No shit Sherlock! If we're not referring to Godel when we say "Godel did such and such" then we have no idea what the fuck we're saying to begin with.
Of course, because otherwise (that is, if one isn't referring to Gödel with "Gödel"), saying that Gödel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic isn't the same thing as saying "Gödel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic". It is Kripke's whole point that in the case where "Gödel" would be used by someone as a definite description, and hence not as a rigid designator, then, unbeknownst to this person, her uttering the sentence "Gödel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic" might not express a belief about Gödel at all.
Quoting Pierre-Normand
Kripke's whole point is based upon bullshit. Anyone who utters the sentence "Godel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic" is making a statement about Godel. If they believe that the statement is true, then it expresses a belief about Godel. If they do not believe that the statement is true, it's still about Godel. It is impossible to sincerely state something about Godel and not be expressing one's own belief about Godel. One's own belief is a belief. It is impossible to sincerely say something about Godel and not be expressing a belief about Godel.
Well, I tend to agree with that. And Kripke would agree too, assuming only that we are correct that proper names function as rigid designators. But in the quoted passage, Kripke is examining what would be the case if, contrary to ordinary usage, and in accordance with some dubious semantic theories, a proper name such as "Gödel" would be used by someone with a meaning (or expressing a Fregean sense) that could be cashed out by means of a definite description. In that case, someone could use the sentence "Gödel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic" to express a belief about someone who isn't Gödel. If that is indeed a BS claim (according to you), then it seems to be precisely the sort of semantic BS that Kripke is arguing against rather than something he is propounding. According to Kripke, proper names function as rigid designators, and so long as they are so used, then the sentence "Gödel proved the incompleteness of arithmetic" is bound to express a belief about Gödel.
Good to know. With my limited knowledge of philosophical history, it's difficult for me to ascertain which parts of Kripke's lectures are granting historical notions and which ones represent his own belief.
I suppose I ought ask prior to reacting as if Kripke is arguing in favor of something or other...
Open mouth... insert foot. Ah, you'll have that sometimes.
Thanks for the clarification. I'm going to go back and re-read those bits again, paying particularly close attention to any references and/or footnotes.
I'm not certain that I follow. It seems to me that if I began the paragraph by naming the apple 'Bob' and substituting all instances of 'it' with Bob and 'its' with 'Bob's', that would remove the anaphoric reference. If this seems illegitimate, a similar story could be written about a person's corpse, named with 'Bob's corpse' since it was Bob's. Or indeed Bob himself changing over time.
Do you see this as undermining your objection? I believe it's likely that I've just failed to understand something crucial.
In that case, for the sake of clarity, you might need to specify whether you intend "Bob" as shorthand for a definite description or rather as a genuine proper name: that is, as a rigid designator that picks up the unique individual that contingently happened to fit the initial description (at that time). In any case, the issue of the numerical identity of the apple with itself (that is, the issue of its persistence) as picked up at different times, and while its properties evolve, seems to me to be somewhat independent of semantic theories about singular referring expressions and rather a matter of the metaphysics of substances. But I must nevertheless concede that there are some interactions between the semantic theories and the metaphysics of substances; and those interactions are especially important when the semantic theories are externalistic -- as Kripke's and Putnam's indeed are -- since the referential practices of language users rely on some of the natural propensities (and their modes of persistence) of the substances (and 'natural kinds') whom they are referring to.
Well, let's actually have a description of Bob ageing, more importantly changing properties over time.
Bob was an especially large baby, weighing 9 pounds the day he came out of his mother. He had a distinctive hook shaped birth mark on his left cheek. Bob didn't stay unusually large forever, however, as he peaked at 5 ft 10 inches at 18 and never grew an inch more, despite increasing in weight to 60kg. The birthmark he had on his left cheek continued to fade until he was 25, the once pronounced reddish hook shape faded into regular skin.
It seems to me regardless of what metaphysics holds of Bob's numerical identity of himself to himself with respect to time, 'Bob' will still pick out Bob. The first sentence describes Bob as a baby, the last when he was fully grown. For the sake of clarity of presentation, a birthmark was present on Bob as a baby and is no longer present in his adulthood. Regardless, 'Bob' still picks out Bob.
The problem that I see this poses for definite descriptions being exhaustive and required of all reference isn't that Bob's properties change over time, it's that we can refer to Bob with 'Bob' regardless of any transformation ageing induces to him. I'm trying to give an example of the point that if we perturb a definite description slightly, changing any property within it to something else, it no longer contains the desired object in its extension, it is no longer definite. So, we either require that the definite descriptions which ground reference respond nascently to changes in their object and our interaction with the object demarcates when the space of appropriate definite descriptions updates (appropriate being contains the target object and only the target object in its extension), or that reference to an object was not founded in definite descriptions in the first place.
Given the difficulty we have coming up with definite descriptions of objects with radical property transformations, it seems unlikely to me that the task of coming up with them formulaically and automatically is as easy as required to make them nascent.
So, it seems that Kripke's suggestion that the notion that a name is cashed out by a definite description ends in a reductio is not true unless we also say that false belief does not refer to a specific individual.
This just points out that once identity is established(by virtue of using definite descriptions) the name alone can sometimes suffice to retain the identity.
If it were not for those descriptions, there would be no way to distinguish between which Bob we're talking about to begin with. Once that is established, the descriptions can - and do - change over time(well... some true ones will).
The criterion for what it takes to first identify something is not the same as what it takes to retain that identity.
It seems to me like you are attempting to raise for descriptivist theories of proper names (or of their Fregean senses) an objection that isn't traditionally raised for them and that they can easily accommodate (unlike Kripke's own main objection). I alluded to this in an earlier post. Definite descriptions meant to pick up an individual for purpose of reference usually are tensed. They don't merely consist in predication of properties but rather in predication of properties at a time. Hence, "Bob", construed a shorthand of a definite description picking up a unique apple would specify just a couple properties Bob had, at a time, such as its general location and color, merely sufficient to distinguish it from other apples in the vicinity. It's then irrelevant to the reference of "Bob" that Bob moves and ripens (up to a point). That's because, "Bob" picks up whatever apple was green and on your kitchen counter on December 13, 2018, say.
I do agree that this might undermine my response to Janus, though. In that post I did use that the definite description at the start and the definite description at the end (part 1 and part 2) can't refer to the same entity since they use properties which fail to obtain at some point.
I suppose what I'm trying to highlight is that designating an object doesn't seem to care about transformations in the designated object. And that the space of appropriate/possible definite descriptions changing with time is definitely a sensitivity to change rather than an insensitivity to it.
Agreed about your first sentence. Regarding the second sentence: I don't think is makes sense to say that a definite description changes with time. Substances have (temporally) evolving states. But when a substance falls under a definite description at a time, then it falls under it at all times (including the times when it doesn't exist yet or anymore!) That's what makes it a definite description, rather than a general description. Hence the requirement that predication of states (such as being red) also be tensed in the case where there are two of more substances that would otherwise be in those states at different times.
Can you offer a definite description of Bob from that paragraph I wrote about him?
I have to say though, it is surprising to me that one would be required seeing as it's extremely easy to recognise that all the sentences are about Bob, despite that such a description isn't being used to vouchsafe that reference. As a condition for the possibility of reference, maybe, partake in the act of designation? Doubt it.
"Falls under it"...
Does that mean that the description always applies to it, even when it is no longer true of the object? Time stamps take care of that.
Definite descriptions would have to be true of the object during it's entire existence(at all times)?
Time stamps cannot take care of that.
In that paragraph, you offered a general description of Bob. To turn in into a definite description, you would have to rephrase it as: "The especially large baby, weighing 9 pounds the day he came out of his mother, etc. etc." This definite description then would successfully function as a singular referring expression just in case there would be one and only one individual who falls under it. (See Russell's analysis of "the ...")
Yes, I think it's common ground (between you, Kripke and I, at least) that neither explicit nor implicit definite descriptions are required to secure singular reference. The challenge is to provide an alternative theory of singular Fregean senses of proper names. Kripke was claiming not to be offering a theory, himself. But he did gesture towards an account with his so-called "causal theory of reference" (thus named by others, I think).
Yes, it is true at all times that Gödel was born on April 28, 1906, for instance. Of course, the sentence now being used to express this truth uses the past tense whereas a sentence used to express it prior to April 28, 1906 would use the future tense. But both sentences express the very same truth and there is no time when what it is that they express isn't true. (Put more simply: it doesn't make sense to ponder over when it will be that it might cease to be true that Gödel was born on April 28, 1906.)
This still seems quite strange to me. Whether the description is definite or not isn't vouchsafed solely by my use of words, it's a feature of whether there's only one thing which satisfies my description or not. No matter the number of things which satisfy my description, it will still be about Bob and not about some Bob-prime. So, would just based on the information I have provided and only upon it, which candidate for the referent of 'Bob' is the subject of the sentence can't be decided... Despite that I'm referring to a specific Bob from the beginning. It's already decided which Bob I mean.
So whether my description is definite or not looks entirely incidental to how I used the words. Why would something incidental to my use of 'Bob' be required to provide a semantics of how I used 'Bob'?
Singular reference is a function of the conjunction of both, actually. In order to secure reference, generally, you must think of the object properly (and/or with the use of a proper form of words) and you also may need the world to do you a favor.
So, granted, if I ask you to give me back the apple that I gave you, then I have failed to refer to a singular apple in the case where I would have given you more than one (and forgotten that). But also, if I ask you to give me an apple, and you have many, then I didn't thereby refer to the apple that you will choose to give me even though it will thereby fall under the indefinite description: "an apple". What is more, I will not have referred to it specifically even in the case where you only had one.
Possibly. But, in case where there are more than one individual satisfying the general description, what is it, in your view, that determines which one of them it is that you are referring to? Are you making use of the fact that this individual is is the only one among them who is named "Bob"? In that case, the description seems idle except as a way to help me anchor the reference of "Bob" for purpose of future use of this name by me.
Refer back to my comment above regarding an apple (versus the apple), which I gave you.
Perhaps this is unsatisfying, but it looks to me that the necessary and sufficient condition for my use of Bob to refer successfully is that 'Bob' is used to refer to the entity. The sense of use I have in mind for 'use' in the previous sentence is that reference to that entity by 'Bob' is ensured by the use of the reference in an appropriate linguistic community. If my description failed to be definite and all the entities which satisfy the description happened to be called Bob, that would be quite unfortunate for telling which is which based on my description alone, but the person the sentences in my description refer to is the unique one I was referring to rather than all the ones which also satisfy the description.
We could distinguish one Bob from others by applying properties to filter the description, but the application of these to better target the required entity is done with the express purpose of disambiguating the Bob I was referring to from the others, rather than providing an interpretation for 'Bob'. In order to find these properties to filter with we'd be required to examine what obtains of Bob; though I don't think the use of these properties to disambiguate the expression thereby provide the sense of the word 'Bob'. Which I imagine is quite similar to finding a definite description.
It might be the case then that 'the Bob with the blue eyes' and 'the Bob with the blonde hair' both serve to distinguish the Bob the sentences in my description were about, but only one such property is required - thus any property which has a singular extension in the implicit domain of discourse would be used to form a definite description, and the choice of property used for the expression is therefore incidental, it would just be required that one such property exists in order to disambiguate my reference.
It looks to me like definite descriptions require a search of the properties of an object in order to give a singular extension, but such a search has a target. If we can target the search to the entity in order to find a definite description for it, we must not require a definite description beforehand to do the search.
Yes, I agree with your general account. It's the main aim of Kripke's "causal theory of reference" to explain how language users institute and hook up to linguistic practices -- naming practices, specifically -- without any need, generally, for descriptions of any kind. Gareth Evans also offers an account, more fleshed out than Kripke's simple causal/baptism theory, but broadly consistent with it, in chapter 11 of The Varieties of Reference.
Yes, indeed, and hence modes of reference other than definite descriptions (such as naming practices and demonstrative reference) ought to be more fundamental.
I still haven't read more than the introduction of that book. I'll take this as a gentle reminder to read more of it.
You might also want to check sections 10.5 (The Causal Theory of Reference) and 10.6 (The Social Character of Sense) in Luntley's Comtemporary Philosophy of Thought (which you had already begun).
Kripke or Evans?
Evans. I read Naming and Necessity in undergrad and haven't touched it since.
It sounds like they borrowed the term from chemistry then.
Well, I differ here wrt predictions being true at the time of utterance. Bt my lights, they are not able to be.
"Godel was born on April 28, 1906" is not a definite description though, is it? "Born on April 28, 1906..." is, right? If so, then this doesn't clear up what was in question to begin with.
Every true description of an entity at any time in the form at 'At that time the entity was X' is true at all times.
But we always already have webs of description about any entity we refer to (unless the entity is present and we point to it), it is never simply 'the entity'. 'Which entity do you refer to?' 'The one that....' How can we search for a definite description of an entity unless we know which entity we are searching for a definite description of? How can we know which entity if the entity is not right there in front of us?
I haven't seen a single argument in this thread (or anywhere else) that demonstrates that we can refer to anything without relying on definite descriptions (or ostention). The fact that we might not have descriptions specifically in mind when we refer is not a cogent counter-argument against their indispensability, in my view.
Yes, that's basically what I am saying.
"Born on April 28, 1906..." is a predicate. According to descriptivism, proper names have the same sense (meaning) as definite descriptions written as "The ...". Russell proposed to analyse them as incomplete symbols that introduce quantificational structure into sentences in which they occur (as Wikipedia puts it). For instance, the sentence "The King of France is bald" can be analysed as the conjunction of three quantified statements that assert (1) the existence of an x who is a King of France, that (2) any y who is a King of France is x, and that (3) x is bald.
Alright. It's becoming more and more obvious to me that we're working from entirely different conceptual schemes(linguistic frameworks). Most everyone involved here seems to have an academic background. I have no formal philosophical background. As a result, I will not be able to recount many historical debates, let alone be able to recount them in great detail by virtue of offering an adequate account of the belief system/conceptual scheme/worldview at work on either 'side' of many well-known academic level debates.
All debates have something at issue and folk expressing differing thought/belief about that issue.
What does successful reference require? What does our knowledge of all successful reference require? There is no single criterion for both. The latter will include some things that the former cannot include. The latter will include everything in the former. Our knowledge of successful reference requires successful reference.
All successful reference is something done using language. All language use requires shared meaning. All successful reference requires shared meaning. Whatever shared meaning requires, so too does language. Whatever language requires, so too does successful reference. Whatever shared meaning requires so too does successful reference.
Successful reference has a criterion. In the preceding paragraph is the beginnings of a rough outline. I am not claiming that it is - as it stands now - adequate. However, I think that it is universally applicable - as it stands now. I think that it is universally extant - as it stands now. We can flesh out more detail later.
Successful reference is itself a complex thing. I do not think that we can offer an exhaustive account that includes every thing that successful reference is existentially dependent upon. I do think that we can safely posit a number of them. I do think that such knowledge serves as more than adequate ground to warrant it's use as a standard of measure.
Shared meaning requires some things that exist in their entirety prior to becoming a part of shared meaning. Since all successful reference requires these things, any conception or theory of reference that that contradicts this knowledge of shared meaning, and thus this knowledge of all successful reference is just plain wrong.
We can acquire knowledge of complex things. Our knowledge of such things requires targeting the thing. We must pick it out and carefully consider it. This must be the case, otherwise we could never acquire knowledge about elemental parts. We could never know or say stuff in particular about some thing if we do not first isolate that thing. In doing so it becomes the focus of our attention. Names are very popular tools for doing so. They are not the only means for successful reference. We can point without naming. We can name without pointing. We cannot describe the thing in detail without doing one or the other. We cannot do any of this without shared meaning.
So, all accounts of elemental constituents requires first pointing or naming; picking out the individual thing. Our accounts of elemental constituents requires language. The existence of some elemental constituents does not require our knowledge of them. Both, the existence of elemental constituents, and our knowledge thereof requires shared meaning.
If some thing consists of other things and some of those things exist in their entirety prior to becoming a part of that some thing then that some thing requires all of the things that it consists in/of.
All successful reference includes and requires shared meaning. All successful reference is existentially dependent upon shared meaning in addition to all that shared meaning is existentially dependent upon.
Shared meaning requires some thing to be symbol/sign, some thing to become symbolized/significant, and a plurality of creatures capable of drawing mental correlations between these things. Correlation presupposes the existence of it's own content. <---------That is the presupposition of correspondence to fact/reality that is inherent to all thought/belief formation, including but not limited to statements thereof.
All successful reference presupposes correspondence to fact/reality. If it is the case - in this world - that all X's consist of known elemental constituents, and a possible scenario stipulates otherwise, it is false. Such possible world scenarios are to easy enough to imagine. All that that takes is making up a coherent story that talks about reference without description.
We can know some things about this world. We can imagine what it would take in order for those things to be different. If we know that something is a composite then we may also know what it is composed of. If we know what it is composed of, we could easily talk about that thing as if it is not composed of what we know it is.
Does our doing so successfully refer to to the thing? Surely. Can any of it be true? Surely not. Is that mode of reference somehow not existentially dependent upon any description whatsoever? As if we could do any of that without already having picked that thing out of this world by virtue of both description(s) and names?
I think not.
There is much for me to agree with in your long post, and a few issues that I could quibble with, but I am unsure how it connects with the previous line of inquiry. The issue of time came about when @fdrake suggested that a definite description could apply to an individual at a time and cease to apply to it later on. And therefore, as he had seemed to imply, for a definite description to single out a persisting individual it would need to apply to an unchanging individual. I pointed out that definite descriptions typically single out an individual through ascribing some property (or set of properties) that uniquely apply to it at a specified time. When the time is thus specified (either explicitly or implicitly) in the definite description, then, it becomes irrelevant that the item doesn't have the property ascribed to it at other times.
If my definite description of an apple is something like "The green apple that sits on my kitchen counter on December 14, 2018..." then, this description still will pick up the same apple in the future when it has turned red. Hence, if the sentence "The green apple that sits on my kitchen counter on December 14, 2018 has a stem on December 14, 2018" is true on December 14, 2018, it will remain true, about the very same apple, after the apple has turned red, has had its stem removed, or even has ceased to exist.
After thinking it through a bit, while it's true that if a definite description applies to something at one point it will apply forever, this does nothing to vouchsafe whether the definite description can actually be used to disambiguate a reference when required. If we have a 20 Bobs, and I choose to disambiguate the Bob by providing a a predicate which makes the appropriate Bob the member of a singular extension; say, 'the Bob that was born in 1972', this does not imply that a competent user of English can use the predicate 'was born in 1972' to pick out the right Bob. Being able to use the predicate which induces the singular extension is an epistemic state, requiring that a someone not just know the meaning of the disambiguating predicate, but must also have access to information which facilitates checking whether this predicate obtains in each case.
When I refer using a proper name out in the wild, it is incredibly easy to provide a disambiguating expression in most circumstances. But there is no guarantee that the disambiguating expression will actually disambiguate, or perhaps even could in principle, even if that disambiguating expression has a singular extension. So, having the logical structure of a definite description is not sufficient to actually narrow down the options through its use.
Perhaps a clearer example is that we're in a hospital and there are two Bobs which are extremely difficult to tell apart, if someone were to ask us 'Which Bob is this?', we could respond with 'The Bob that was born on...' if they had a different time of birth, but this will not allow a recipient to know which Bob is which without access to appropriate information; in this case a birth certificate or other medical note.
I suppose what this highlights is that despite the logical structure of a definite description ensuring that it focusses on a single entity, that logical structure only works to disambiguate if the predicate in the definite description is chosen appropriately by the speakers. We have the same kind of behaviour with the word 'The', whereby applying Russel's substitution procedure does not have to produce something which actually allows us to disambiguate. With the Bob example, responding to which Bob is which, nothing changes in terms of the epistemic states or filtering whether we say 'Oh, a Bob which was born on ...' or 'Oh, the Bob which was born on...'.
There's a really big difference between the logical structure of definite reference and the pragmatics of disambiguation.
Edit: the same goes if proper names are rigid designators, that rigidity doesn't facilitate the formation of disambiguating expressions in any way.
Yes, this really was my only point.
I agree with this, and with the rest of your post. Of course, one of Kripke's main objections to descriptivism is that it fails account for our evaluation of counterfactual conditional statements where the individual talked about fails to fall (or non uniquely falls) under its description in the counterfactual antecedent. And that's because, unlike proper names, definite descriptions aren't rigid designators. (They still can be used for purpose of initial "reference fixing", as Kripke would say, but then the issue of what it is that contextually, or informationally, is being relied on for purpose of disambiguation only is partially addressed by Kripke's "causal theory of reference").
Examples:
1. Aristotle tutored Alexander the Great.
The DD implied by the Proper Name Aristotle must relate to properties that held around the time of Alexander the Great, whenever that was.
2. Hugh Grant is married to Liz Hurley.
Since this sentence uses the present tense, the definite descriptions it uses need to be true at the time of utterance. It doesn't matter if they were previously untrue or subsequently become untrue.
3. General Gaius Julius crossed the Rubicon with his army to challenge the leaders of the Roman republic.
This sentence is tied by historical reference to the epoch when a Roman general crossed the river Rubicon with his army to challenge the Roman government. Since there was only one such event in Earth history, that ties the time to somewhere near 50 BCE. So that's the time at which the DD used to crystallise the Proper Name Julius Caesar must be true.
4. The area of a circle is Pi times the square of the radius.
I want to say that this is time independent and that Pi is a Proper Name and a DD for it is something like 'the number that is the ratio of a circle's circumference to its radius'. But I wonder what others think about whether Pi is a Proper Name and/or whether that is its definite description.
Are you purporting to defend a form of descriptivism, then? What if the individual who we name "Aristotle" had not become a philosopher, and had become a carpenter instead (and he hadn't been Alexander's teacher, etc.) Are we talking about someone who isn't Aristotle, in that counterfactual scenario? And if we're still talking about Aristotle having had a different career, how it is that "Aristotle" picks up its referent in the couterfactual scenario?
Then it would only follow that the retention of that particular property is not necessary for us to pick it out at other times. Those particular properties are not elemental constituents.
If we offer a true report of elemental constituents, there is no need for time stamp. Time stamps are irrelevant in these cases, for when X is existentially dependent upon Y it is always so. When X is a composite of other things which exist in their entirety prior to becoming a part of X, then it is the case that X is existentially dependent upon all of those things.
That never changes regardless of what we say.
Are what you call "elemental constituents" something akin to essential properties? In that case, the item being descriptively referred to could not persist through the loss of those properties, but they may still not guarantee that the item is uniquely being described by them since other items of the same essential kind also would have those properties. The purpose of a definite description is to uniquely pick up an individual, not just to pick it up under a description that it will never (and could never) cease to satisfy.
One has to be careful how one sets up counterfactuals, because they usually end up being nonsense, no matter what metaphysics or language philosophy one favours.
One way of describing a counterfactual about Aristotle would be as follows:
Imagine a world that was identical to ours in every salient respect up to five years after the birth of the person that in this world we call Aristotle. Since everything matches up to that point, we can pick out a person in the imaginary world that corresponds to our Aristotle by virtue of having exactly the same history up to age five, and we will call that person Aristotle-2 (although people in that imaginary world would call him Aristotle, as events at his naming were identical to those in the naming of our Aristotle). Now let us imagine that in that world Aristotle-2 became a carpenter and worked happily at that all his life until he died at the ripe old age of 83.
The picking out is done by matching the first five years of the lives of Aristotle and Aristotle-2, including the parents and other environmental features.
That works for me. It avoids using ill-specified notions like 'referent' or asking (IMHO) meaningless questions such as 'was Aristotle-2 Aristotle?'
But I didn't ask any meaningless question, neither did I postulate any imaginary worlds. Counterfactual conditionals are judgement forms that we routinely make use of when we reason practically. If I let the cat outdoors and it gets run over by a car, then it isn't nonsensical to judge that it (the very same cat) would not have been run over if (counterfactually) I hadn't let it out. And this is the sort of counterfactual consideration that we rely on when planning future actions or when we are gathering evidence for the existence of causal relations.
Kripke is very insistent in Naming and Necessity, while arguing against the 'telescope conception' of possible world identifications of particulars (ascribed to Lewis), that he isn't talking about counterpart 'worlds' populated with doppelgangers who only share our past histories (or our histories prior to a specified moment in time). When he's talking about 'possible worlds', he's only talking about the our world (i.e. the real world) as it could possibly have been if something or other had been different; just like I was talking about the cat (likely) not having died if, counterfactually, it had not been let outdoors.
Back to Aristotle, the question simply is: what is it that would entitles you to speculate about what would follow from Aristotle counterfactually having had a different career (while referring to him by his name) if his having had his actual carrer (i.e. a philosopher) makes up part of the definite description by means of which the name "Aristotle" refers to him? Surely, you're not saying that it is impossible or nonsensical to suppose that he might have had a different career. But if "Aristotle", by definition, refers to someone who has been a philosopher, then, by definition, Aristotle (where I am using this name descriptively) couldn't possibly not have been a philosopher. This seems not to match how we use proper names in the context of making ordinary and meaningful counterfactual conditional statements.
I suggest that if we were to interview a non-philosopher that has just used a counterfactual, exploring with them the question of what they were trying to convey, we would arrive at that sort of interpretation. I think that phrases like 'the very same cat' are unhelpful and confusing in that context. They hinder rather than help understanding, as the tendency to use italics when referring to them, as if that somehow makes the meaning clear, indicates. If it really were clear, surely we could provide a better explanation than just italicising the reference.
I'm interested in what you said in the first para that 'this is the sort of counterfactual consideration that we rely on when planning future actions or when we are gathering evidence for the existence of causal relations'. I would exclude considering future actions from that because that is usually a case not of imagining the past being different, but rather imagining more than one different possible future, neither of which contradicts current knowledge. Those are not counterfactuals but rather considerations of future possibilities - I call them 'Hypotheticals'. By 'gathering evidence of causal relations' I assume you are referring to the attempt to develop scientific theories. I agree that counterfactuals can play a key role in that but it seems to me that they work perfectly well with my interpretation of counterfactual, and don't require a Kripkean interpretation.
My view on these issues is set out in somewhat more detail in an essay I wrote a couple of years ago: Hypotheticals, Counterfactuals and Probability. Those are still my views.
BTW you asked above if I was seeking to defend descriptivism. I think I probably am, but that doesn't mean I think it's the best theory. I see Wittgenstein's language game approach as the best explanation of language, including proper names. But despite its faults (which I think are different from those that Kripke claims) I think there's a lot of valuable insight in Russell's theory of descriptions, and I am unable to find any such value in Kripke's theory.
Then definite descriptions do not always take account of elemental constituents.
This misses the point. Indeed, all of those particular items cannot exist without their elemental constituents.
We can state otherwise.
This is really not a good sign. Counterfactuals are ordinary tools of reasoning, and in many cases their meanings, and even truth conditions, aren't difficult to figure out. I am suspicious of error-theoretic or revisionary accounts of them, as I think Kripke is right to be in exploiting modal intuitions.
The idea that when we suppose something were some other way, we are not really doing that but positing some 'counterpart' to it, is otiose and makes understanding the semantics of referential expressions difficult for no payoff.
Could you elaborate on this point?
Anyone?
Yes.
When we "re-identify a material particular as being numerically the same at two moments in time" are we not counting its various (changing) temporal manifestations as all being related by identity precisely insofar as they are all manifestations of the one differentiable ( both within itself and from all other processes) process?
Some features of the decaying apple will probably be identifiable across successive stages, but the comparison of the beginning stage with the end stage may yield no identifiable features in common other than a more or less similarity of size of shape, say.
We have the same name 'that apple' for the entity as it is at any particular time and also for the total transformation which is the life history of the entity. The entity at it most complete, and thus its completed identity, would seem to consist in its entire history. If we say that the exhaustive history of an entity is a set of descriptions each more or less definite (or all equally because completely definite if precise specifications of size, shape time and location are included) then any 'remainder', what we might tend to think of as the entity itself apart from all of its descriptions (relations) and transformations, would seem to be purely formal, really just an artifact of language.
Yes.
'counterpart'
Quote signs play the same role as italics in word games like this. People reach for them when they are unable to express what they mean but want to believe and imply that the meaning is clear and obvious.
You appear to be trying to say that my interpretation of how people use counterfactuals is artificial and unnatural. Naturally I disagree. I have the same negative feelings about Kripke's interpretation as you have about mine. I feel that my approach is the most natural in the world. Although nobody can put themselves in another's head, my confident guess is that that's what counterfactual-using non-philosophers would say if they could be persuaded to spend half an hour discussing it.
If we can't get beyond italics and quotes to agree on some concrete definitions, this discussion will remain one about what 'feels natural' to different individuals. In my opinion, there's nothing wrong with that. It only becomes silly if people start to insist 'No, my way of looking at it is right and yours is wrong!'
Of course, it's always good to question things; but it doesn't necessarily follow that what has been thrown into question thereby becomes redundant. If the questioning leads to folk simplistically thinking that what has been questioned has become redundant, then I can't see how that could be a good thing. So, to return to the case under consideration, if people oversimplify the issues and come to think that Kripke has shown that descriptions have no part to play in establishing reference, then that would not seem to be a good thing.
Or less. Obviously the Nixon who lost isn't our Nixon. That's the whole point of supposing.
1. language is not about reference and meaning but about what the speaker is trying to achieve with her speech act
2. many (possibly most) speech acts must be considered as a whole in order to discover their intention. Dividing them up into tiny bits and asking questions about reference and meaning of little components is often a hindrance to understanding.
That is correct. And yet he might have been born on April 27.
Also, I'm unsettled when folk treat time as a special case. It's also true that he was born in Brno, and yet he might have been born down the road in Vienna.
This is not to object to what you have said, but to widen its breadth.
Yes. That was a follow up on a tangential line of inquiry that had been initiated by @fdrake. Of course, I agree that what is actually true at all times of Gödel (and hence might figure in a definite description of him) isn't necessarily true of him.
If asked to tell somebody what the book is about I think I would say 'It imagines a world in which the Axis powers won WW2'. Based on recent posts above, it appears that Kripke might say 'It supposes that the Axis powers rather than the Allies won WW2'.
I can't identify a tangible difference between the two. To me they just look like different strings of words that gesture towards the same concept - a vague concept but one that has enough solidity in it for us to enjoy the novel (admiring Dick's imagination and doing our best to overlook his execrable dialogue).
One does not need definite descriptions in order to refer.
One can use them, but they are not the essential, and not the explanation of reference.
I still disagree with this, because I remain unconvinced that anyone can refer to anything without (implicitly, at least) relying on the knowledge of the world that comes either from direct observation or description. It is arguable that even referring to what is directly observed would be impossible without descriptions (conceptions) that have already become internalized through enculturation.
When you refer to Aristotle, to return to the example, how did you acquire your idea of just who it is you are referring to?
I wonder would it be better to create a new thread that discusses the book, and refers to the reading group thread, and leave the reading group thread itself for those that are currently working through the book. We used to have that approach with debates, where there was a formal debate thread for the two participants (in this case it would be the official participants in the reading group) and a discussion thread where anybody could discuss the debate and issues arising in it.
I think it would be way too difficult, given the length of the thread, to dissect the existing thread into reading group and debate. But we could decide that future debate between Kripke sceptics and Kripke enthusiasts (as opposed to debate between Kripke enthusiasts) should go in the other thread.
It's just a suggestion, and I'm sure that those of us that are Kripke sceptics would be happy to stay out of this one if that's what is preferred (although I'd still read it because I find it very engaging).
If one imagines a possible world at which the Axis powers won WW2, then one can imagine it such that Hitler lived to be 72. But when one evaluates the counterfactual conditional statement "If the Axis powers had won WW2, then, Hitler would have lived to be 72", the truth value of this counterfactual conditional proposition doesn't appear to be tied to what it is that we can imagine. It rather depends on what we are entitled to believe would necessarily have happened if the counterfactual antecedent had been true. There are difficult issues regarding what it is, besides what is stated in the conditional antecedent, that is taken to remain the same, or vary, with respect to the actual course of history, while evaluating the necessity of the consequent. (Can we allow for backtracking?) In my view, those issues are settled by pragmatic considerations. In any case, the truth conditions of a counterfactual conditional proposition aren't dependent on what one might imagine, but rather on what one is entitled to expect would necessarily have occurred or would necessarily have been the case if the antecedent had been true.
The disjunction is your Get Out Of Gaol Free card.
Multiple arguments against the second disjunct were produced over the last twenty-odd pages. I'm not going to go over them again.
And Kripke pretty much agrees with the first disjunct, although he would phrase it in terms of cause rather than observation.
(Actually, I take that back; how could observation alone be adequate for individuation to occur? It strikes me now that individuation only occurs as part of a language game.)
I am usure what it is that you mean with the phrase "elemental constituent". Also, could you explain in which way knowledge of the elemental constituents of an individual can be made use of in order to refer uniquely to this individual?
I'm banking on your or another's willingness to take up that challenge. I have seen valuable insights over the last three or four pages as to the issue of identity and time tracking contra essentialism.
It's true that in the course of practical reasoning one usually restricts the consideration of options to those that one has the power and opportunity to realize. However, the subjunctive conditional "If I will do X then Y will occur" could be true even if, unbeknownst to me, I lack the power or opportunity to do X. In that case, the antecedent is necessarily false conditionally on the actual present state of the world being what it is. But so long as we don't equate the actual with the necessary, the subjunctive conditional proposition might be still be true.
Kripke's conception of counterfactual conditionals and of possible worlds is very deflationary, in Naming and Necessity. If I remember, he proposes to construe phrases such as "there is a possible world at which P" to be meaning no more and no less than we would ordinarily mean when we say "It is possible that P might have happened".
Thanks, I'll put this as high up in my reading list as feasible.
LOL. I brought up the same work earlier in this thread to make the same point. I think error and ignorance are the better arguments. You don't have to know any definite description of Hitler to refer to him, as when you ask who he is. Or you could refer to him, but be wrong in thinking he was an artist.
Myself, I think Russell's theory of definite descriptions is basically right. But the correctness of this analysis doesn't entail descriptivism, unless one also holds that proper names can be analysed as definite descriptions. That's not something Russell himself believed, regarding "logical proper manes", which he took to only refer to direct object of acquaintance such as sense data and the referent of "I". Gareth Evans developed an account of proper names that is quite indebted to Kripke, to Wittgenstein, to Putnam, and to Russell, although he ditched Russell's antiquated Cartesian epistemological restrictions on direct objects of acquaintance. But he maintained a relaxed version of what he called Russell's Principle: that a person cannot be thinking about an object unless he knows, in some non-trivial way, which object he is thinking about.
Isn't that the principle or knowledge by/of acquaintance stated another way?
So Newton is described as "the man who first thought that there is a force pulling things towards the Earth". Despite being wrong, that sentence is about Newton. Further, it is about Newton, even if there is no other description available that can serve to single Newton out.
Quite right. As I said, Russell thought we could only be acquainted with sense data and with our own thinking 'selves'. Everything else, including the referents of most ordinary language proper names (of cities, human beings, etc.) only are knows by description. Evans agrees with Russell that descriptive content isn't a form of singular reference (but rather must be analysed into existentially quantified statements), but he argued that proper names and demonstratives can refer to much more than just sense data.
Reference takes place within a definite description, even if that description fails.
The deeper point is that even in order to set up a definite description, one must already be able to refer to the individual. Hence reference cannot presuppose descriptions.
Italics - this is important.
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/237129
Quoting frank
Frank's example may serve as a useful illustration. If someone asks about Hitler, and they do not know who he is (i.e. do not know any definite description of him) then they will probably be asking because the name has come up in some context, wherein others do know who Hitler is. How will people inform the asker as to who Hitler is, if not by description(s)?
So, of course the asker, although they do not know who Hitler is, can refer to Hitler (simply by saying the name in the question "Who is Hitler'?, but that reference is reliant on the other's knowledge about Hitler. Say no one knew who Hitler is, then who would the asker be referring to? You could say that they are all referring to some hypothetical character called 'Hitler', but without any descriptions at all of Hitler the whole thing would be utterly empty. What could they possibly say about this character Hitler that did not consist in a description however minimal? 'He was just a man' and that's it? A man, then as opposed to a woman, or a donkey?
But, if you stretch the concept to the extreme, then what about possible worlds where accessibility relations fail? And, more to the point about counterfactuals, then it would be tautologous to say that they some are necessary or possible.
When is a theory undone.
At what point is it unreasonable to keep believing in a theory.
It's commonly understood that any theory can be kept from rejection by the addition of suitable hypotheses, ad hoc. And that at some point one ought just drop this process and say "yeah, that theory is buggered".
The theory at hand is that for any given proper name there is always some definite description that picks out one individual, that individual being the referent of the proper name.
Look at the question "Who is Hitler?". Ask yourself "who is this question about?" Isn't there something quite infelicitous about claiming it is about anything other than Hitler?
Now if you don't see that, so be it. You can add whatever auxiliary hypotheses you wish in order to save your theory. Go ahead and make the question reliant on the other's knowledge of Hitler, but all you are saying is that language occurs in a community.
I wonder if one is referring to anything at all when one asks who somebody is. Such a question typically comes up when one has overheard a conversation that sounds like it is about someone. The temptation is to say that the eavesdropper is asking 'About whom are you talking?' (because while ignorant of history and current events, the eavesdropper is quite particular, in an old-fashioned way, about grammar).
I'm inclined to say 'not so fast'. I think what the eavesdropper really wants is to have the story explained to them in a way they can understand.
Consider the timeless mondegreen: The minstrel is overheard telling his fans about how when Robin Hood died, they took him to the forest and they laid him on the green.
The eavesdropper hears:
'They took him to the forest and the Lady Mondegreen'
and asks 'who is the Lady Mondegreen?'.
To whom is the eavesdropper referring? Are they referring to the non-existent Lady Mondegreen?
I say that question is the wrong question, and writing dissertations about it misses the point. The right question is 'what does the eavesdropper want?' The answer is that she wants to understand the story that was being told.
That may be the case, but then the eavesdropper could understand the story (well enough) without knowing who the person talked about is. So, the fact that supplying her with a definite description of the peson holding the name is sufficient for that purpose (i.e. understanding the story well enough) isn't sufficient for showing that the description determines the meaning of the proper name.
Furthermore, Kripke would readily grant that providing a definite description often is sufficient for fixing the reference of the name (as used thereafter by the eavesdropper), even though the description doesn't determine this reference all by itself (and hence isn't semantically equivalent to it). That's possible because of the social character of meaning. Supplying a definite description can be a means of co-opting a new user into an already existing name-using practice. This new user, when she has had the meaning of the proper name conveyed to her by means of a definite description, is thereafter enabled to think (and talk) about this named individual thanks to there already being other participants in this practice who are directly acquainted (or 'causally linked', Kripke would say) with the named individual.
That's not really relevant. There's a body of data w.r.t. how counterfactuals behave, and a theory to capture them. What you feel about the naturalness of anything doesn't matter.
Russell's theory is probably not right. It makes a number of wrong predictions as to the behavior of definite descriptions in embedded environments.
https://www.readcube.com/articles/10.1007%2Fs10988-010-9072-3?author_access_token=SVx2QIwFk3kTTo8IyEVDRve4RwlQNchNByi7wbcMAY7iNlNgpGRzM_WD4_srx4OSluaaYmnLCu53v9bvVDa92yUqe-uN_ec2lwOPjxmkaterOX7qM5JgxBKBMjrqfPx6CudiP6v1X4Hp3jXoWtKFow==
I think reading NN without knowing about modal logic is pointless, as evidenced by this thread.
I have not heard of such a body of data. Where is it?
No satisfactory definite description can be devised because there is no Lady Mondegreen. The mistaken belief that there is such a name and a person bearing that name stems from the eavesdropper misunderstanding what she has heard.
OK, I see. Thanks for the reference. It looks very interesting.
Sorry, I hadn't read your post carefully enough. I agree. I am unsure how this case bears on the issue of descriptivism about proper names that refer to real individuals.
In particular, it claims that descriptivism would interpret the sentence:
"Hans wants the ghost in his attic to be quiet tonight."
as a sentence like:
"Hans wants there to be exactly one ghost in his attic and for it to be quiet tonight."
A correct descriptivist interpretation would instead interpret the sentence as:
"There is a single ghost in Hans' attic and Hans hopes that that ghost will be quiet tonight."
Those that, like me, believe there are no ghosts, would say that the sentence is false in exactly the same way that 'The present king of France is bald' is false, because the statement that there is a ghost in the attic is false.
That's why, when talking about the false beliefs of others, we prefix them with words like 'Hans believes that....', unless we are being facetious or sarcastic. If a child psychiatrist said a sentence like the above to a patient's parent the parent would have strong grounds for complaint to a medical tribunal that the psych was mocking their child.
A psychiatrist that was not recklessly unprofessional would say:
"Hans hears, or imagines he hears, sounds in the attic, which he believes to be caused by a ghost, and he hopes that he will not experience such sounds tonight".
The only DD in the sentence is 'the attic', and its interpretation is entirely unproblematic.
Where is this amazing data?
The arguments in N&N stand by themselves. I studied it, then went to modal logic. The formal arguments by themselves don't lend much to philosophy; the stuff in N&N is what counts. While it is somewhat frustrating not to have gotten to the good stuff after 24 pages, we are nearly there.
The translation you provide of the sentence isn't one available to the Russellian, though, so your defense here won't work. I can explain why if you want, but I just wanted to flag that this is a separate issue that NN doesn't deal with.
You are right, except for the "needs", which should be a "can".
An informal comparison of Kripke and Lewis should also show the inelegance of counterpart theory - if done well.
I have also seen people try to work through NN over and over, and the same mistakes tend to be made, and explanation of them doesn't seem to help dispel them.
The errors shown in this thread strike me as a result of too casual a reading of N&N rather than there being something in the content that is too inscrutable to be put into English.
Now it becomes interesting.
So this is where we are heading.
Not that I remember or am invoking.
It may be just that I have been exposed to NN too much (people return to it often, because analytic philosophy is light on 'classics').
May I call you Tully?
If being necessarily true requires being true in all imaginable possible world scenarios, and being actually true requires being true in this world(regardless of what's imaginable), and what is actually true is not necessarily true, then what is true in this world is not part of the criterion for what's true in all possible world scenarios.
That's a big problem.
When we say "what is actually true at all times of Godel" we are talking about true statements about Godel. When we say these statements aren't necessarily true of Godel, it is as a result of the fact that we can and do stipulate alternative circumstances while using the name "Godel" without sacrificing successful identity/reference of the name "Godel".
We can say anything we want about Godel and still be talking about Godel. There is no need for what we say to be actually true. So, we can imagine circumstances that aren't actually true. Our ability to do so, while retaining identity/reference, somehow purportedly warrants our saying that the imagining of false circumstances is adequate ground for saying that what is actually true is not necessarily true.
Such are the pitfalls of what counts as being necessarily true(the historical possible world notions of necessity/contingency).
It seems that we cannot stipulate any specific circumstance(s) that must always be stipulated in order to retain identity and/or successful reference. We can always stipulate alternative ones and still know who/what it is that we're talking about. It only follows that identity and/or successful reference in possible world scenarios is not dependent upon specific circumstances.
How does this hold up to scrutiny regarding composites?
If all A's consist in/of B, C, and D in this world, and there are no examples of B, C, and D - in combination in this world - that do not constitute being an A, and the removal of B, C, and/or D results in insufficiency for being an A, then it is the case that B, C, and D are elemental constituents of all A's. It is also the case that all A's are existentially dependent upon B, C, and D both individually and in combination. When and where there are no B's, C's, and/or D's, there can be no A's. When there are no B's, C's, or D's in combination, there can be no A's.
Let A equal water. Let B equal hydrogen. Let C equal oxygen. We'll lose D here.
We can posit a hypothetical/counterfactual/possible world scenario "what if water doesn't require oxygen"? We could go on and continue to stipulate all sorts of other circumstances which lend logical support to that. We do this sort of thing all the time with "what if's". We think in terms of what else it would it take for a "what if" to be true.
So, we can imagine that water is not existentially dependent upon and/or does not consist - in part - of oxygen.
Are we still talking about water in such cases?
Quoting creativesoul
Why would we need to be able to pick out an individual water molecule in order for a definite description to pick up all water molecules, and nothing else?
Liebniz monadology or logical atomism?
They are equivalent in my view.
Are those the only two choices?
What else do you propose when talking about simples (atomic facts, logical simples, monads?)?
Think about this for a moment or three...
So, counterfactuals have existential dependency?
How so?
No.
I disagree. It is not only available, but the precise one that the Russellian approach leads us to.
They are existentially dependent on our own world, I think. They have accessibility relation to our world. Yes?
I'm pointing out that it is the case that some things are composites. That is, they consist of other things. We can state otherwise. According to possible world semantics, it would follow that none of the elemental constituents are necessary for the existence of the composite, simply because we can state otherwise.
I'm also pointing out that there is an issue with the notion of "particular" being used within the notion of definitive descriptions. A definitive description can pick out a particular group and nothing else. It does not follow from the fact that that definitive description cannot single out an individual within that group that it does not successfully refer to and identify a particular kind of thing(all things in that group and nothing else).
Water.
But what your saying is tantamount to asserting the existential onus on a form of Platonic essentialism or "forms"? Yes?
Then we can only "measure" counterfactuals by an accessibility relation to own own world. Therefore how can we assert something as necessarily true in all possible world's? @andrewk, @Banno?
Any notion of definite description which requires that it pick out a unique particular individual thing(a single entity) and nothing else is inherently incapable of taking proper account of composites.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-modal/#QuaModLog
Quoting SEP
To parrot your style although I think there's much more that can be said here than what I am able to, stipulation.
Thoughts?
Quoting Wallows
I suspect that something misleading has happened in Creative's writing.
If you are going to include accessibility in your thinking, then you really must distinguish between what is necessary in all possible worlds and what is necessary in only those worlds that are accessible because of our stipulations.
But, you can't stipulate (quantify) without referring back to our own world (instantiation, I think). Can you satisfy accessibility without adherence to our own world?
So, if you want to go off on a tangent and learn modal logic, this is not the place. It's a formal discipline; you will need a good text and pencil and paper, and preferably access to an adequate tutor to help you out when you make mistakes. It's like learning to integrate in calculus - you have to do the work.
Now I do not think that you need to do that to get a grasp on N&N. @Snakes Alive says otherwise.
I think Snakes and I would agree that the worst approach wold be to proceed down both the formal and the informal paths at the same time - that's a recipe for misunderstanding.
Why the interest in accessibility, anyway?
It does because quantification of modality is a thorny issue in logic. Don't you think? The SEP entry on it would illustrate that.
I've already tried to separate this discussion in other threads but curiosity gets the better of me.
Quoting Banno
It just stood out as something pertinent. I am also interested in satisfying accessibility for modal operators, in other words or worlds(?), to be able to determine what is possible from necessary.
It does not make sense. Stipulation and quantification are not the same thing. Instantiation is not just referring to things in the actual world. These are formally defined terms, and if you want to understand them, do a modal logic course or read a good text.
But if you must ask, think of it as working out what the possibilities might be, as viewed from some given possible world. So in the world mentioned earlier in which the Germans invade the United States, one might suppose that Truman could not have been President in 1945. I haven't read the book, so i might have that wrong, depending how the counterfactual is set up. OR a simpler case, in a possible world in which Wallows never joined PF, this thread could not have been addressed to you. Accessibility is about which possible worlds can be stipulated, given other possible world stipulations.
For our purposes here, accessibility is not relevant. I don't intend to comment further on them.
You're being obstinate for no good reason. Accessibility is what enables one to stipulate. Yes, they aren't the same, I agree.
There are these two threads where this can be explored further:
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/4712/existential-quantification-and-counterfactuals
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/4718/accessibility-relations-across-possible-worlds
So...
What happens when we put this knowledge to good use?
We know that A consists of B and C. We know that no other thing consists of B and C. We know that without either B and/or C, there can be no A. We know that without definitive description we could not know any of this. When we use this knowledge in reference to A, we are talking about the composite of B and C. The combination of B and C always results, and only results, in A's.
Given that we know all that...
What do we make of the fact that we've used "A" while denying B and C? It shows that we can refer to something by virtue of using a name and false description. It shows that knowledge of elemental parts is not necessary for naming a composite. Descriptions need not be true in order to successfully refer to some thing. They most certainly need to be true in order to successfully describe that thing.
There's a difference between successful reference and successful description. The former picks out the thing, and the latter describes the thing picked out. Saying something false about a thing does not describe the thing even if it successfully picks out the thing. Successfully description requires correspondence to this world(the actual world).
There are no false definitive descriptions. If description is both necessary and sufficient for identification, then we could successfully pick out an individual by virtue of description alone, and nothing other than that individual would be picked out by the description. Knowledge regarding the actual composition of water would be acquired via definitive description. That description is both necessary and sufficient for picking out a particular group of things that we call "water" from the other things we call "water".
It(successful description) would do this(pick out this particular group of elemental constituents) even if we had called the composite thing and/or it's elemental constituents by other names.
This brings up something pivotal...
Some things exist in their entirety prior to our account of them. Some things that exist in their entirety prior to our account of them consist of elemental constituents. None of these things nor their elemental constituents are existentially dependent upon our names. All of these things are existentially dependent upon their elemental constituents.
So, it's logical atomism again.
No. It's putting knowledge of elemental constituents to good use. It's about existential dependency.
What are elemental constituents?
Quoting creativesoul
Yes, via accessibility.
Ah now...
Do me a favor, and begin with the last post of mine prior to this one of yours...
Start at the top and explain to me where it goes wrong. What is claimed that is false?
Parts that a thing is made of, all of which are necessary for that thing to exist, and none of which are existentially dependent upon being a part of that thing.
Hydrogen and oxygen are elemental constituents of water.
I see. So, the simplest atomic constituent is self-evident? Isn't this logical atomism or Leibnizian monadology rehashed?
How is the fact that an erroneous description is about the thing described determined? Can you explain that?
Quoting Banno
Firstly, I am not proposing any theory, but aiming to describe what we do when we talk about things, and to determine what is necessary in order that we may know what we are talking about. I asked you earlier to answer a question, and you avoided answering it. I was asking you how you know when you speak about Aristotle, that you are referring to the historical figure Aristotle, as opposed to any other Aristotle.You will probably say that you just stipulate " I am referring to the historical figure Aristotle". What you are missing is that "The historical figure Aristotle" is already a definite description.
So, trying to paint me as someone who is clinging to a theory and coming up with "ad hoc hypotheses" to support that clinging is a strawman and an ad hominem strategy you seem to be trying to use to evade answering the hard questions.
Also, I am not proposing that there is a definite description "that picks out one individual", but a web of descriptions that enable us to have an idea of who it is that is being referred to, and that this is not infallible, mistakes may certainly be made.
Hopefully you'll be able to understand what I am saying and be able to respond to that, rather than responding to a convenient (for your assertions) caricature of what I am saying; a strategy of misreading which can only lead this discussion nowhere.
Here's a great example of the latter:
I haven't been "making the question reliant on the other's knowledge of Hitler", unless you mean the general "other" which is the culture itself. If I hear people talking about someone named Hitler. how do I know they are referring to the Adolph Hitler, the one and only Führer, if I have never heard of him before and know nothing about the events in Europe during the period of his rise to power, reign and demise? They might be referring to Rudi Hitler,the garbageman who died when the draughthorse who pulled his garbage cart collapsed in 1903 in the Friedrichstrasse in Berlin and fell on top of him.
If I ask and they explain it to me how will that be achieved? By descriptions of the time, the figures and the events, how else? If I do know who they are referring to how do I know that? On account of descriptions I have heard or read before of the time, the figures and the events, how else?
All this is not theory but phenomenological description of how we know, and come to know things about people and events; if you can't provide any alternative account, why should I take you seriously?
I do not call them "atomic constituents", and no, they are not self-evident. If they were, there would be no need for first focusing upon the composite in order to acquire knowledge that they are - in fact - a composite.
You may not call them that; but, that is what they are called in analytic philosophy to the best of my knowledge.
Quoting creativesoul
I don't understand this, please expand.
Kripke does provide an alternative account of the referential function of proper names. Their being rigid designators isn't a theory but rather a feature (a phenomenological datum, if you will) of the way we ordinarily use them. Kripke's "causal theory of reference", together with his remarks about the famous people convention, and the social character of meaning, accounts (purportedly, at least) for the way in which we can use the proper name "Hitler" to refer to Hitler in a information insensitive way (and thus without relying on a definite descriptions to fix the reference of the name), and therefore accounts for the empirical fact of "Hitler" and other proper names being rigid designators.
What if I can't. Does that make the question "Who is Hitler?" not about Hitler? I say no.
And of course you are presenting a theory.
Kripke shows that the theory is wrong. It does no good to reply "well, show me a theory that is right"; the absence of an alternative does not show that your theory must be correct.
If you were reading the book with care, you would have seen how Kripke argued against your suggestion of a web of descriptions. In the end, your proposal becomes much the same as Kripke's causal chain.
Prior to acquiring knowledge that water consists of hydrogen and oxygen, we first focus upon the thing we're calling water.
I don't understand. What's the point being made about this? It is a fact that H2O is water and that it is composed of hydrogen and oxygen. Yes?
When we refer to historical figures we don't do so in a vacuum do we? Sure we can just talk about the person 'What if Joan (of Arc) had not been burned alive'? How do know i am referring to Joan of Arc, if I don't say the 'of Arc'? The 'of Arc' is a definite description. You might guess without the 'of Arc', because of the question about not being burned alive; but the implication is that she was burend alive. Now this may not be a strictly definite description (other Joans may have been burned alive) but it is certainly a definite description if you add the date 14th May 1431 (since that is the 'official' date even if that date is not correct).
I'm just trying to answer your questions, which seem irrelevant by my lights. I'm trying anyway...
Prior to these questions...
The point is that a definite description does not necessarily pick out a unique individual. It can pick out a unique group of individuals, all of which are picked out by the description when nothing else is. The group can share the same name as other things that are not described by the particular description.
Well, of course it is about some Hitler, but so what? That is not the point in question.
Quoting Banno
I believe I am presenting an account of what happens when we tell stories to each other about famous figures and events, and, on a smaller scale, about locally known figures and events. these stories are webs of description. It is on account of these socially entrenched webs of description that we know who we are talking about. I ask again, how else?
Quoting Banno
I haven't seen any argument from you or (by proxy) from Kripke that shows that my account is incorrect. If Kripke argues against "my web of descriptions" and it is much the same as his "causal chain" (which I take it that he promotes) then how has he argued against my account, much less "proved it wrong". You keep making assertions but you are not backing them up with any account.
.
My question was in regards to counterfactuals and their existential dependency, as you call it. Is it not important that the world we can stipulate is existentially dependent on the one from where the stipulation originates from? Therefore, I am confused about how can anything be called necessary in another possible world if they are unequivocally contingent on our own. A sine qua non if you will.
I think I can't express this any more clearly than the above.
:roll:
A description is determined to be about the thing because it is something said about the thing. An erroneous description does not successfully describe the thing, but it does successfully refer to it.
Indeed. Kripke would agree since it's a core feature of his externalist account of proper names that many (and oftentimes most) individuals who participate in a specific naming practice only are able to do so because the social practice is already up and running thanks to some of the earlier participants being acquainted with the named individual.
Kripke doesn't discount the function of definite descriptions for fixing the reference of a proper name, either initially while instituting the naming practice, or subsequently for the purpose of initiating new member into the already instituted naming practice. He insists on distinguishing reference fixing from reference determination. The latter is that in virtue of which the proper name has (or comes to acquire) its actual referent, while the former only is a means by which participants are enabled to hook up into the practice.
Yeah, sterling response Banno! Is that all yer got? :yawn:
Actually I would kind of agree with this. Say there have been causal chains of events that have determined reference in relation to historical figures; the question then would seem to be as to what those causal chains of events have consisted in. I would say they would have consisted, mostly, in people telling stories to others about those historical figures (oral and written histories). But what are stories if they are not descriptions, both definite and otherwise?
So, determination and fixing would seem to amount to the same thing in the final analysis, except for the exceptions to the "mostly" which would have been actual, local events involving direct obersvation of the historical figures in question. I have been saying from the start that reference is fixed either by description or observation. Is there really a cogent difference between fixing reference and detemining reference?
And around page 102 he starts to talk about Hesperus and Phosphorus. These are apparently Greek names for the evening and morning stars. That is, for Venus.
Now it is undeniable that the discovery that Hesperus is the very same thing as Phosphorus was made by looking, by plotting the position of the two bodies, and reaching the conclusion "hey, they are the same thing!"
(My having said that it is undeniable, someone here will doubtless take it upon themselves to deny it. Such is life.)
Kripke wants us to understand that nevertheless, it is a necessary fact that Hesperus is Phosphorus.
Now at the time of publication this was thought rather odd.
SO how does his argument go?
Great! But you haven't answered the question. Take another look.
Yes, they are. But even in the case where an individual who gets initiated into the practice of naming a historical figure NN only is being told false stories about NN, she can still successfully refer to NN and have entirely false beliefs about NN when she thinks about her as NN.
Well, I've no use for classic notions of necessity/contingency. Understanding my position will not help you to make sense of their use.
All possible world semantics are existentially dependent upon the actual world.
Yes, I would agree that that is certainly possible, and again, in this discussion I have allowed that definite descriptions may not be accurate. I have only been arguing that it is on account of them that we have any idea about who we are referring to (unless we have met the person, of course).
Quoting creativesoul
Quoting Janus
Facts aren't determined on my view. That makes no sense to me. Facts are events; states of affairs; what has happened. So, I took the question to be about how we determine that a description is about something in particular. Cause we say so... how else?
How?
Because description does not equal reference.
My two cents' worth:
It depends on how we constrain the set of possible worlds. If the constraints include that that they must obey our laws of logic, say First Order Predicate Logic, then any tautology, such as "If Ben is a boy then Ben is a boy" is necessarily true in all possible worlds. I don't think anything other than tautologies would be necessarily true.
If logical consistency is not a constraint then I can't think of anything that would be necessarily true. Say the constraint is instead the limits of our imagination. I am not sure whether it is possible to imagine an illogical world, but if it is possible then tautology will not guarantee necessity. Perhaps what is necessarily true is that which is unimaginable. If something is unimaginable then it cannot happen in any of our possible worlds, as they are imagined, so it is necessarily not the case. But I then wonder whether in order for something to be unimaginable it must also be unexpressable, and if so we cannot formulate the existential proposition whose negation we say would be necessarily true.
Facts are nothing if no one knows them, and in order to know them they must be determined.
Quoting creativesoul
What I was asking for is an explanation of how we are able to (without being nonsensically arbitrary) "say so". I say it is on account of our socially shared and more or less entrenched stories (histories) which consist in descriptions.
Yeah, you and I largely agree on that much. It seems that it is only as a result of that that we can later talk about setting descriptions aside. We've already identified the particular by virtue of using descriptions.
Kripke purports to distinguish his account from descriptivist theories of proper names and also from Frege's account of the sense ('Sinn') of a proper name. He therefore sets up the contrast between his account and the accounts that he criticizes in terms of a distinction between causal and informational links. The trouble with this is that he is running onto the problem of deviant causal chains. His account of the complementary functions of (informational and normative) reference fixing and (causal and non-normative) reference determination seeks to deal with the problem of deviant causal chains.
Kripke fails to see that Frege's account, although informational and normative, isn't descriptive. It doesn't run into the problem of deviant causal chains, neither does it constitute a decriptivist theory of proper names. It doesn't, therefore, is a target for Kripke's arguments against descriptivism. I think Frege's account is the account Kripke would have needed to develop. Gareth Evans and Hillary Putnam have developed such a pragmatized neo-Fregean account, taking Kripke's main insights about externalism, rigidity, and the social character of meaning, into account.
Thanks. I'm just confused because what is necessarily true in one world may not be accountable in another possible world. One world constrains the other or at least what can be said about the other legitimately.
So, just to provide an example. Let's say I played the lotto in this world; but, didn't win. In some possible world I actually won the lotto; but, this can only be fathomed by the actions undertaken in this world.
Yes, but there must be some true things said about it if we are to successfully refer to it; otherwise reference itself would become meaningless. Also we must believe that some things that have been said about it are true in order to believe that we are referring to it.
That sounds interesting! Unfortunately i know little about Frege, so I am not clear as to how he might have thought that information (in the human social and semantic context) could differ from story telling or description.
Hmmmm...
I do not think so. We could have nothing but false belief about 'X'. We would still be referring to 'X'.
Absurd! How could you refer to "X" if you knew absolutely nothing at all about it?
Perhaps you could give us an example: refer to something you know absolutely nothing about.
All you need to know is that that is called 'X'.
So says the would-be Guru as he "pours from the Empty into the Void"!
So you know that it is called "X"? You know that what is called "X"? Is it called 'X' only by you, or by others as well?
But Hesperus is Phosphorus.
Hence, "Hesperus" refers to Phosphorus in all possible worlds.
Puzzling.
No, my horse might be called 'Hesperus'. :joke:
The Fregean account is externalist rather than internalist. Oftentimes, when the cases of Hesperus and Phosphorus are being discussed, the (quasi-)descriptive phrases 'the Evening Star' and 'the Morning Star' are being used to express the senses of the proper names 'Hesperus' and 'Phosphorus'. This is misleading. The case of Afla and Ateb is more revealing of Frege's 'pragmatic-informational externalism' (as I might call it to distinguish it from Kripke's 'causal-chain externalism'). What distinguishes the users of both names isn't how they might describe the mountain that it refers to but how they practically are able to handle the referent -- how they are able to get to the mountain. But those abilities are enabled by the mountain actually existing, and the information required to get there is embodied in the naming-practice as a form of 'knowledge-how' (or acquaintance with the referent) rather than a descriptive 'knowledge-that'.
I know that that is called 'X'.
Does it matter if it is just I or others?
I think not. The first time a name is coined it is by one person. It refers to a thing nonetheless.
All my other belief about 'X' may be false. That holds good even if my belief is commensurate with common understanding about 'X'.
Of course, it is possible that something might be given a different name. in some other possible world we might have used the name "Phosphorus" for Sirius. And of course, that does not mean that Phosphorus might have been Sirius.
In some other possible world, we see a star and call it "Hesperus". At some other time, we see a different star, and we call it "Phosphorus". How could this be, if the names designate rigidly?
SO what may have happened? Well, there may have been another object, not Venus, exactly where Venus was when it was baptised "Phosphorus". In this case, what has happened is that something other than Phosphorus has been given the name "Phosphorus". But even in that world, Phosphorus is still Phosphorus (provided, of course, that there is a Phosphorus in that world).
So you know what it is that you are calling 'X'?
I know that that is what I'm calling 'X'. There's no need for anything else I believe about that to be true.
I do not see how this disagrees with what you've been saying.
Seems as though "that' must be nothing, in which case you are referring to nothing, which amounts ot not referring at all, as far as I can tell. Or, if "that" is not nothing, and yet not anything either imagined or sensed, then what is it?
That would be the thing I'm pointing at in your presence while naming it.
But I've been saying all along that description is only required in order to know what we refer to, in those cases where the object referred to is not present. If the object is present and you are pointing at it then you must know something about it, in any case.
I think the reason why this might appear puzzling is because when we are thinking about what might possibly, for all we know, be the case, we are thinking about epistemic possibility and we may fail to properly distinguish this from metaphysical possibility. So, before we knew that Hesperus is Phosphorus (i.e. that they are one and the same planet) it was epistemically possible (consistently with all we knew) that they might not have been the same planet (or that they might not have been planets at all, or might not have existed). However, given the fact that they actually exist and are numerically identical, then, it's not metaphysically possible that they might not have been numerically identical.
Ok.
Quoting Janus
I don't see why. Toddlers point to things all the time as a means to ask "What's that?"... Sometimes they do so(point and ask) simultaneously. Do you hold that they already know something about the object they are pointing at?
strikes me as strictly incorrect, because Hesperus is Phosphorus in all possible words.
Instead, what might have happened is that we named Hesperus and Phosphorus "Hesperus", while naming something else "Phosphorus".
Of course they do! They have picked out whatever they point at from the rest of the environment; they know it as distinct.
In any case when toddlers point to objects, how do you know they want to ask "What's that?". The further point is that they are not really referring to the object at all; that is a verbal function; they are simply pointing at something that has caught their attention, perhaps they just want you to look at it, too.
Yes, there is no metaphysically possible world in which Hesperus isn't Phosphorus, provided only that they are numerically identical in the actual world. But there are epistemically possible worlds in which what we believe to be the referents of 'Hesperus' and 'Phosphorus' aren't the same object (provided only we don't already know them to be identical). This merely amounts to saying that such a proposition isn't logically inconsistent with what we already know.
Well, again, that's epistemically possible, and still not metaphysically possible. That's the relevant distinction, it seems to me.
Sorry, I take that back. What you said in your last paragraph was correct even as a statement of metaphysical possibility.
I think we agree; I just would not use the distinction between metaphysical possibility and epistemological possibility. It seems to me to conceal more than it reveals. It's like de re and de dicto.
Better to say that Hesperus is Phosphorus, but "Hesperus" might not have referred to Hesperus and Phosphorus.
Well, I would be more than willing to admit that spatiotemporal distinction is required for pointing at something, naming something, and referring to something. It is required for all attribution of meaning too. I would not not go so far as to say that all use of spatiotemporal distinction is equivalent to knowing something as distinct.
So, I stand by the claim that one need not know anything true about some thing(aside from knowing it's name) in order to successfully refer to that thing.
Because they do.
Use of (spatiotemporal) distinction is not seeing something as distinct? To see something is to know it as you see it, isn't it? ( I am not saying this would be a reflective 'knowing that' [ for which langauge would be required]) but a knowing in the sense of familiarity or recognition. "Do you know Serena?" "Yes, I've met her". that kind of thing.
No. Motion detectors do not see something as distinct but they make use of spatiotemporal distinction nonetheless.
That doesn't answer the question. "Because they tell me" or something like that would be an acceptable answer. But the toddler you have in mind can't speak yet; so I could be forgiven for thinking you are indulging in projection.
No they don't they simply detect movement.You're projecting again!
It amounts to differences in our frameworks.
It's really a side issue only because you brought in motion detectors when we were discussing human beings, their practices and what those practices consist in and rely upon..
But if you're done, that's fine with me.
Ok, I looked up "Afla and Ateb" and I see what you are saying. But again, absent description, or a map (which amounts to a visual description) the two people who are familiar with one or the other side of the mountain are so based on direct experience (observation). They may have found their way up the mountain by trial and error, without relying on any description. But once they know how to get up the mountain they would then (provided they are competent language users) be able to offer someone else a description of the mountain they call either Afla or Ateb.
And it seems to be on the basis of such a description that someone who was following their directions would be able to recognize whether or not they were on the right mountain; the one called Afla or Aleb (as the case may be). I don't want it to seem like I am being provocatively deflationary, but all this seems very commonplace, quite easy to understand for pretty much anyone and lacking in any real paradox or mystery to me.
If Hesperus=Phosphorus is necessary a posteriori, then these two proper names can't be de jure rigid designators, which one can grasp without any descriptive content.
If they are such rigid designators, then the identity statement can't be necessarily true.
This is because in order to be both (rigid designators and a posteriori necessary) the names have to be substitutable in epistemic contexts, and they weren't prior to the discovery that they're co-referential.
This is false, because the rigid designator is the same across all possible worlds where Hesperus and Phosphorus denote the same entity. If what you mean to imply that the post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy is being committed then, I agree to some extent.
There's a whole story about a French guy who is kidnapped and held in London. It makes it a little easier to see the problem. I dont have time to explore it at the moment.
Yeah, they just are. Hence, I don't see your argument as legitimate, unless treating their descriptive content as necessary a posteriori to establishing their necessity, which isn't true, I think. Perhaps some disambiguation is required here.
http://www.uvm.edu/~lderosse/courses/lang/Kripke(1979).pdf
Maybe after the last lecture?
For Wittgenstein, language starts with use, and so a metre is defined by its use in the game of comparing stuff to the standard metre.
For Kripke, the Metre is a rigid designator for a certain length, and hence the same in all possible worlds.
Prima facie, these might be compatible views.
Prima facie, this looks to be plain false, given that 'we' (scare quotes because I was not consulted) have changed the designation. Presumably, the new designation is more rigid than the rigidity of the lump of stuff that was previously designated. We can now measure what was immeasurable.
We now use "One Metre" to refer, in every possible world, to a different length determined by vibrations and stuff.
Two different uses of "One Metre", talking about different lengths. But one Metre is the same in all possible worlds. You might sometimes have to specify which one you are using.
It's a worthwhile account; I commend it to you.
It logically follows from them being rigid designators that the identity statement is necessary. Per definition, a statement is necessary if and only if it's true in all possible worlds. But if the statement is true in the actual world, and a proper name refer to the same object in all possible worlds, then, since both names refer to the same object in the actual world, they also refer to the same object in all possible worlds.
[/quote]This is because in order to be both (rigid designators and a posteriori necessary) the names have to be substitutable in epistemic contexts, and they weren't prior to the discovery that they're co-referential.[/quote]
If they were substituable in epistemic contexts, then, the identity statements would be known a priori, and not a posteriori. If I don't already know that Hesperus is Phosphorus, then, one can't substitute salva veritate Hesperus for Phosphorus in the epistemic context: "I believe that (Phosphorus) is yellow".
Just to supplement what @Banno already said, remember that the claim that a name is a rigid designator doesn't mean that there are no possible worlds at which the name has a different use, neither does it mean that the use of the name can't evolve in the actual world (or vary across different linguistic communities). It rather means that this name, as used by us, today, in the actual world, refers to the same object in (our talk of) all possible worlds.
Hopefully I will not have been run over by a bus or hit by lightning.
You're right. I had forgotten about this scary possible world.
Yes, I understand. But it is still a strain to say that 'all possible worlds' of yesterday excludes the actual world of today.
You may. I'm here, but right now am generally limiting myself to posts that involve parts of history or the law I'm interested in, so not to be tempted to use the H word disrespectfully.
I don't know what you mean by that. Who is saying or implying that? Can you make the thesis that you believe to be strained a little more explicit?
Yes. I could definitely agree with the idea that there are often times that we point to and/or otherwise fix a reference with ostension, initial baptism(first naming), and/or learning the name of what we talking about prior to being able to talk about it. Here, it is certainly clear that fixing the reference is prior to talking about the referent. So, I would readily agree that fixing the reference by ostension and/or naming must be done prior to being able to say anything more about the thing. But ought we limit this to the timeframe when one is first learning how to use language to talk about some thing? I think that with regard to language acquisition, fixing the reference must be prior to further describing the referent.
However...
There may be a bit of nuance here. More specifically, the means he's using to make his point do not warrant concluding that it is always the case that fixing a reference is done exclusively with proper names. I think that there are times between language acquisition and the ability to posit hypotheticals that we can and do fix the reference by virtue of description alone.
I see no reason to deny that we also can describe something that we do not know the name of. I would think that doing that is both - iafter learning how to fix a referent(by pointing, learning the name, and/or naming), and prior to being able to posit hypothetical scenarios.
Strictly speaking - on my own view - that would certainly amount to all description(even with regard to this in-between cases) being existentially dependent upon naming. However, I clearly work from a different framework than Kripke, so that much is irrelevant to the lectures.
So, the question then becomes is that description both necessary and sufficient for picking out the individual thing and only the individual thing. I do not think that this serves as ground to for wholesale denial of N&N. So, my intent here is not to discredit Kripke. Rather, I'm having trouble seeing any flaw in his work, aside from the fact that he's retaining the notions of necessity/contingency from possible world semantics(to put modal logic to good/better use I'm guessing?). Thus, he's also working from a notion of truth that I abhor. To his credit, he must grant these notions in order to most effectively discredit the versions of possible world semantics and/or theories of reference he's targeting.
However, unless a proponent of descriptivism holds that descriptions must be true, I think that some of his remarks about that are off target. On second thought, I suppose that one would have to hold that descriptions be true... wouldn't they? If they were not, they most certainly could not pick out the individual unless they were accompanied by a name.
However, unless a proponent of descriptivism holds that descriptions must be true, I think that some of his remarks about that are off target. On second thought, I suppose that one would have to hold that descriptions be true... wouldn't they? If they were not, they most certainly could not pick out the individual unless they were accompanied by a name. [/quote]
I think all that is required is that the speaker believes the DD to be true. The speaker uses a proper name P that she associates with an object that she believes to be part of the world and to satisfy the description D and to be the only object in the world that satisfies that description. If that is the case then the speaker has 'successfully referred to' the object. That is so even if P=Godel and D includes that Godel developed the Incompleteness Theorems and in fact those theorems were developed by Schmidt and only copied by Godel.
The listener will hear the name P and may or may not have heard it before and associated a DD with it. We may then wish to develop counterpart ideas about 'successfully interpreting a reference'. Only that gets more complicated because of possibilities such as mishearing.
I can't make sense of this. You are saying that in order that a speaker be able to refer to an individual when she uses this individual's proper name, she must believe this individual to satisfy some definite description regardless of this description being true or false. Why is there any need for the definite description, then? How does believing falsely that Gödel proved some theorem (supposing that this belief is in fact false) helps a speaker refer to Gödel when she uses the proper name "Gödel"? If the truth of the description is irrelevant, why it is needed at all?
Notice that Kripke does allow that the definite description can play a role in reference fixing for the benefit of new initiates in the (already up and running) name using practice. But this works because some participants in the practice are acquainted with the named individual (and thus don't need to know about the definite description) and the definite description only serves to to hook up the new participants to the naming practice associated with the right individual when belief in the truth of the definite description is widespread in the community. The definite description thereby allows for disambiguation when other people have the same name (and/or the famous people convention isn't in play).
It gets murkier when the DD is "the person you appear to be talking about, who is called 'Nixon' and who I've never heard of before this conversation". We could even discuss whether that is a DD, but I am inclined to say it is. The person that has never heard of Nixon before could still refer to him by asking
"This Nixon of whom you've been speaking sounds dishonest. I suppose we're lucky he was caught and had to resign his job."
It would be trickier still if the listener had been unable to make out any details of the conversation other than the occasional use of the word 'Nixon', which seemed to be being used as a name. eg if the speakers were teenagers talking very fast, idiomatic French, I would not be able to follow but I know that Nixon is not a French word and so could safely assume it is a proper name.
I could then ask "Pardonnez moi, s'il vous plaît, Qui est-ce, cette Nixon de qui vous parlez?"
I have no opinion about whether I have 'successfully' referred to Nixon or not in that sentence. But I do know that I have asked a clear question, which is all that matters.
Aren't all the earlier examples that you gave examples where the speaker not only believes the definite description that she is making use of but the definite description also happens to be true of the individual that she is thinking about? In the post I had responded to, you had said, puzzlingly, that the speaker only needs to believe in the truth of the DD in order to refer.
In the last (quoted) example, you have indeed asked a clear question. You are requesting some help because talk of "Nixon" doesn't enable you to know who is being talked about until you will have been initiated into the relevant "Nixon"-naming practice (that refers to the former U.S. President, say). A definite description might fulfill that job, provided it is either true or expresses a widespread belief about Nixon.
On the contrary, I was puzzled by your suggestion that the DD associated with a proper name does not need to be true, so long as the speaker believes it to be true. So, I'm asking, if it's false, how do you account for the speaker being able to pick up the correct referent when she uses the name? If the definite description does not describe the named-individual, what good is it for? It would seem like the proper name makes all the necessary job of picking up its reference irrespective of the content of the associated definite description.
We were talking about a definite description associated with a proper name. If the proper name is "Gödel", and the associated description is "the author of the incompleteness theorems", and this description is false of Gödel because it's in fact some guy named Schmidt who authored the two theorems, Kripke has a good account for the fact that one can believe falsely that Gödel is the author of the incompleteness theorems and express this false belief about Gödel (as opposed to a true belief about Schmidt) when she says: "Gödel is the author of the incompleteness theorems". And that's because the use of the proper name "Gödel" to refer to Gödel, unlike the use of a definite description to refer to him, is information insensitive.
Yes, where I differ from Kripke is that I require identification of the individual that does the associating. For a DD to be associated with a proper name, somebody has to associate it. In my view, the associater is the one speaking. When they use the proper name, they are referring to the object that is picked out for them, in their system of beliefs and experience, by the DD they associate with that proper name.
In a sense the belief that Gödel developed the incompleteness theorems is 'true for the speaker' if that's what they believe. In that sense, yes, the DD has to be true. But it may subsequently become untrue for the speaker if she later learns about the plagiarism of Schmidt's work. After that discovery, she would associate a different DD with the name Gödel, and would take care as to whether they used Gödel or Schmidt, according to whether she wanted to refer to Frau and Herr Gödel's son, or to the inventor of the Incompleteness Theorems.
Many people don't like the phrase 'true for person Y' but I find it very useful and almost impossible to do helpful philosophy without it.
I don't see what progress Kripke's account of the sentence "Gödel is the author of the incompleteness theorems" achieves. It concludes the sentence is false, but it was already false under a descriptivist account, when measured by the truth standards of somebody that knows about the plagiarism. It's not false according to the speaker, but that's to be expected, as she wouldn't say it if she knew it to be false.
As far as I can see, the sentence is true when analysed by the speaker and false when analysed by someone who knows of Schmidt, regardless of whether one takes a Kripkean or descriptivist approach.
Quoting Pierre-Normand
Yes, I'll try and nail it down, and hopefully that will kill it.
Quoting Banno
I remember when the UK changed to decimal currency. The pound (£) didn't change, but the number of pennies in a pound changed from 240 old pence (d) to 100 new pence (p) and the poor old shilling and half-crown ceased to exist. So for a time there were old pence and new pence in common parlance. I still have a set of grocer's scales for weighing produce that has prices in old money - quite useless now.
But the change from old metres to new metres has not been so radical, and I can still use the old measuring tape for all purposes except the most esoteric physics experiments, so as far as I am concerned, a metre is still a metre. It is the fact that the old metre is to nearly all intents and purposes the same as the new metre, which deceives me into thinking they are the same thing.
So in all possible worlds, there are 240 old pennies in a pound, and the old metre standard is an old metre long, though it was always possible that we used an entirely different standard. The standard applies to all possible worlds to which the standard applies, and even to those it doesn't apply in, because when I talk about a penny these days, I don't mean the penny I used to talk about. There are still 240 of the pennies I used to talk about and keep in my pocket to a pound.
Is that about right?
For example, we measure a piano to see if it will fit through a door. As long as we use the same measure on the piano and the door, it doesn't matter what units it uses.
Similarly when we are building something from wood and cutting the pieces to size ourself. If we use the same measure for everything, the pieces will all fit.
Ditto hanging a picture.
When I think about it, there have been very few tasks where the relation of the measure I was using to the 'official metre', whatever that was at the time, mattered.
In DIY as with language, context is (usually) everything.
It matters when you go shopping.
False description unaccompanied by proper name will not pick out the individual, will it - regardless of the speaker's belief?
That's the point at issue. Kripke says there is.
(ignore this... I misread the post.)
Beth works in an office and occasionally sees a person that works on a different floor of the same company, That person has a disability that causes him to slur his words and need a walking stick to get about. Beth doesn't know about the speech disability and thinks the person is always drunk.
One day she sees him trip over in the lobby and goes to help him up. Later, talking to a workmate she says "You know that guy that walks with a stick and is always drunk? He fell over in the lobby today".
She has picked him out, despite the belief about him being drunk being false.
In practice, we have false items in our DDs of just about everybody. Usually they don't matter, because the item is redundant.
Yet, metaphysically you could do so.
Why the discrepancy?
Me too.
My error; I misunderstood your post. Not enough sleep.
As far as if some characteristic is necessary or contingent of Nixon, Kripke is asking us if we can rationally and coherently speak or conceive of Nixon as having a certain characteristic in all possible worlds. I think that his having the two biological parents he did is a necessary truth. That he was president at all is a contingent truth.
This doesn't seem to help. What's at issue is whether or not false description(false belief statements) are capable of successful reference all by themselves. Seems to me that they are not. The example you've provided above is not a case of false description(false belief) being able to successfully refer. The guy does walk with a stick. That description/belief statement is true.
The only case I can think of where false description can successfully refer are cases where everyone involved in the discussion shares those false beliefs. Although, even then they have to be beliefs/descriptions of something. Fixing the reference is required for those cases as well then. Description alone cannot fix the reference, can it?.
If you think that that suggested comparison is helpful to the question I'm raising about whether or not false description alone is capable of successfully referring to an individual, then I'm game for reading how.
Care to elaborate?
What do you mean by 'successfully refer'? It's not a term used by Kripke in N&N, as I recall.
Yet it seems to have been used a lot in this thread, as if there were general agreement on what it means, yet I haven't seen anybody explain what it means in the bits I've read.
The natural interpretation might be that it means the listener knows who the speaker is talking about. But such an interpretation is hopelessly problematic, as people often don't know who others are talking about, even when they are both familiar with the referent.
If it has no practical, sensible interpretation, why should we care about it?
We're talking about historical and current convention with regard to theories of reference.
Given this...
Are you asking me why should we care whether or not we know what counts as successfully referring?
Are you claiming that you do not understand what "successful reference" means?
Are you claiming that there is no sensible interpretation? Are you claiming that even if there is, there is no way to use knowledge of what it takes to successfully refer to something?
I'm puzzled...
Are you claiming that a listener's knowing who the speaker is talking about is somehow inadequate for being a prima facie example of successfully referring?
I'm claiming that whatever criterion we decide, it cannot be a criterion that is existentially dependent upon thinking about thought and belief. However, it must include language use.
We successfully refer solely by virtue of language use. We do so long before being able to talk about our own thought and belief. We successfully refer long before we take our doing so into account with language use. Any position and/or notion of reference which cannot take that into proper account is unacceptable.
Then the referent is not equivalent to the person being spoken of.
That doesn't sound right to me...
Quoting creativesoul
Yes! Of course I can guess at meanings, but there are more than one possible meaning, and I want to know which one you mean.
What do you mean by 'successfully refer'?
Sure, but what relevance does this have to what's at issue? What's at issue is whether or not false descriptions are capable - all by themselves - of successfully referring to some specific individual but nothing else.
In cases where one mishears the name, there's a name being used. What's at issue is whether or not false descriptions - all by themselves - are capable od successfully referring to some specific individual but nothing else. Thus, it's not a valid counterexample. In cases where one correctly hears a name but mistakenly believes that the speaker is talking about someone when s/he is not, there's a name being used. Again, what's at issue is whether or not false descriptions - all by themselves - are capable of successfully referring to some specific individual but nothing else. That's also not a valid counterexample.
Cases of basic misunderstanding(failing to catch the gist) are too numerous to account for here. The discussion is about reference, and what that requires in order to happen.
Quoting andrewk
I've been setting it out. I'll try to offer the simplest adequate criterion here.
All referring is done with language. It is to direct and/or otherwise guide an other's attention to some thing or other. There is more than one way to do this. One can show an other some thing. One can point to some thing. One can talk about some thing by description, by name, or by both.
Referring to some thing or other can be successful in two ways. The first is when the person referring to some thing or other and the person whose attention is being guided towards some thing or other both pick out the same thing. This is required for all successful reference to initially take place.
Once that initial reference is successful, subsequent successful reference no longer depends upon the listener picking out the same thing. Rather, at that time, one successfully refers by virtue of appropriate name usage and/or adequate description. The listener need not understand...
Seems to me that Kripke has an entire thought process that directly involves offering examples that satisfy/meet some criterion or other for successful reference, and yet clearly do not pick out a specific individual but nothing else. That seems to be the gist of the lectures themselves. or at least the method.
Initial successful reference(as reported above) instantiates shared meaning. All meaning requires something to become sign/symbol, something to become significant/symbolized, and a creature capable of drawing correlations between the aforementioned different things. All shared meaning requires a plurality of capable creatures making these same connections. All language requires shared meaning. Not all shared meaning requires language. Not all shared meaning requires successful reference. At times it is the birthplace thereof.
Successfully referring to some thing or other is something that we all do prior to our ability to take account of what we'd long since already been doing. Successfully referring to some thing or other does not require our ability to think about the fact that we're doing it. All notions of reference involve complex written language directly involving thinking about thought and belief. Not all successful reference does. Thus, any acceptable criterion for what counts as successfully referring(all notions of reference) must be able to take that into proper account.
They(false descriptions alone) cannot guide another's attention to the same thing without being accompanied by proper name unless all people involved share the false belief that the description reports and the description picks out a unique individual and nothing more.
It seems that way to me anyhow.
If I'm understanding you correctly, you are saying that the first reference by A in a conversation between A and B is successful if B interprets it as referring to the same individual that A intended to refer to. There are a number of interesting 'what ifs' that arise here but let's ignore them for now in order to concentrate on the biggest question I see coming out of this, which is: "what difference is made to this meaning by whether one follows a descriptivist or Kripkean analysis?" It seems to me that for both, unsuccessful references, in the sense you have described, can be accommodated within the theory. Would you not agree?
No. I would not agree that the criterion for successful reference that I've just put before you can be accommodated within either, let alone by both...
To be clear here... I mean neither - individually - can take proper account of what I've put forth. I've not only talked about unsuccessfully referring, but also successfully referring...
What you appear to be saying in what was above what I quoted is that, when a speaker makes a reference using a description that consists only of false statements about the intended referent, the listener will not pick up the correct referent unless they share most of the same false beliefs about the referent as the speaker.
If that's all you are saying then I think I agree. Indeed the claim seems quite uncontroversial. But I don't really see how it bears on a discussion of naming and necessity, or of descriptivism.
The false description alone is never capable of successful reference.
I think Kripke's lectures(N&N) are in agreement with this, and argue in favor of it.
This is interesting. What do you think about it @Banno.
Sounds something like the Gettier problem. Theories of ambiguity also arise from the above.
So descriptions and proper names each lead to misunderstandings sometimes, yet both are necessary to practical speech, and both Russell and Kripke would agree with all of that. So how does it tell us anything about whether to favour a descriptivist or a causal theory of reference? So far as I can see, it doesn't distinguish between the two at all.
So lesson learned: don't write until after the second coffee.
But there remains this issue.
Quoting Noah Te Stroete
I don't agree.
As I understand him, Kripke is saying that "One Metre" is a rigid designator that refers to a certain length in ever possible world.
Now that length was the same as a certain stick in Paris. That fact is contingent.
But by definition a metre consists of 100cm. That fact is necessary.
Nothing of great metaphysical import is being posited here; nothing that will shake the philosophical world. And this is the great merit of Kripke's view.
Can we posit a possible world in which a metre had 110 centimetres? Of course. But what is being posited here is no more or less than a possible world in which the word "centimetres" has a different meaning. A possible world in which the word "centimetre" referred to a length of 0.909090... centimetres...
Can we posit a world in which the stick in Paris had been a different length? Again yes - that would be a world in which the stick was not one metre long - the stick changes, but not the length, because that length is the same in all possible worlds.
Well, now one metre is the length of the path travelled by light in a vacuum in 1/299 792 458 of a second. And what happened there is that the way we use the word "metre" was changed.
If by "this" you're referring to the bits I've been raising about false belief...
Well, in short, Kripke's doctrine doesn't seem capable of properly accounting for false belief. In fact, some cases of false belief are quite problematic for it.
Nevertheless???
:gasp:
Jane believes Joe killed Bob. She refers to Joe by stating, "You know - the guy who kiled Bob...". She is saying stuff about Joe. She is picking Joe out. The referent of the description is the specific individual that is being picked out of this world by Jane. That is clearly Joe.
Following Kripke's framework demands concluding otherwise when Jane's belief is false.
Let me repeat...
Kripke's framework would be forced to report Jane's belief in a remarkably different way if it were false.
In such a case, according to Kripke's notion of 'referent of the description', the referent of Jane's description could not be Joe. Rather, the referent of Jane's description would have to be someone that she may not even know exists. She believes Joe killed Bob. Allen did. Jane doesn't know of Allen. Yet, according to Kripke's notion of the 'referent of the description', the referent of Jane's description is Allen.
This framework leads one to say that Jane is referring to someone she does not even know about, and that the person she is saying stuff about is not the referent of her description. Are we to conclude that it makes any sense at all to say that Jane can describe and talk about Joe while the referent of Jane's description about Joe is not Joe, but rather it is Allen.
That looks like a fundamental error in taxonomy. If you get thought and belief wrong, you'll have something or other wrong about everything ever thought, believed, stated, written, and/or otherwise uttered.
Kripke's notion of "proper referent" cannot properly account for Jane's referring to Joe by virtue of saying stuff about him that's false. Ask Jane who she is referring to. Tell her that Joe is innocent. Prove it to her.
Ask here again who she was referring to... She will say "Joe". Put Joe in a lineup. She will pick out Joe.
Kripke's got a bit of bullshit mixed in there.
Kripke would tell Jane that the referent of her descriptions about Joe was Allen. Jane would tell Saul that she knows who she was talking about even if she said some stuff about him that was wrong, mistaken, false, and/or otherwise not true. I would agree with Jane.
Ya'll have fun...
Or maybe, just maybe...
you misunderstood?
Kripke does a brief summation again, claiming to have made two hits on the descriptivist account. I had thought here were more - I should go back and have another look. But I like these two accounts because they make clear the shift from an armchair theory of how reference ought to work, to taking a good look at how we use them.
There's the point that a reference can be successful despite the absence of a uniquely identifying description.
And there's the point that someone can successfully refer to an individual despite having only false beliefs about that individual.
I read both of these as bringing out the fact that reference is a part of the games we play with language, and hence is inherently social.
There's a bit of a puzzle here for me, looking back. Why would anyone have thought that it was easier to use properties to set up names, rather than names to set up properties? As if it was easier to deal with "orange", "skin", and "narcissist" rather than "Trump".
This is distinct from setting the description up as a synonym for the name. There's a line, found hereabouts, that Kripke is mistaken because we set up proper names in the actual world, using definite descriptions, for use in our modal considerations; but rather than being mistaken in this regard, Kripke actually makes this very point.
But he rejects the notion that every proper name is set up in this way.
Maybe I've misunderstood? Sure, I mean that can happen. I see no reason to believe that that is the case here. Rather, it seems clear to me that Kripke is just following a mistaken path for definite description. He's conflating the truth conditions of a definite description with the referent thereof.
Sure. No problem. I'm painfully aware of my tendency to go off on a tangent without leaving enough breadcrumbs, so to speak, for a reader to follow. Earlier in this thread I objected to some stuff being said regarding false belief. I was told then that I misunderstood. I stood down then, but I do not think I misunderstood then, and do not think that I've misunderstood now...
If we accept Kripke's notion of 'the referent of the description', we are forced to say that the referent of some definite description is not the individual to whom the speaker is referring, but rather it is the individual uniquely satisfying the conditions in the definite description.
Jane is talking about Joe, not Allen. Allen is the individual satisfying the conditions in the definite description. According to Kripke, the referent of Jane's definite description is Allen... not Joe.
That's unacceptable, to say the least...
Let's say that Jane does not know Joe's name, but rather can recognize him as the person she believes killed Bob. Her definite description, "the guy who killed Bob" refers to Joe, even when Jane does not know Joe's name. According to Kripke, the referent of Jane's definite description is Allen. Yet if we place Allen and Joe in a line up and ask Jane to whom she was referring, she would pick out Joe.
Kripke's account is contrary to everyday fact(that which actually happens on a daily basis).
Throughout this, the existence of individuals is pretty well assumed. But of course this needs some thought, too.
That is, Kripke is rejecting the idea that to be is to be the subject of a predicate. But this is something I've occasionally argued in favour of. The idea is that here are no individuals as the referent of proper names, and that all there is, is sets of properties instantiated together. An individual is no more than a bunch of properties.
Well, perhaps. I don't see how such a view could provide an account of modality any where near as effective as Possible World Semantics - which is reliant on individuals being able to exist in multiple possible worlds; and hence on there being individuals.
If all she is saying about Joe is that he killed Bob, then she is saying something false about Joe. But this reference depends on her knowing who Joe is independently of her false belief about him. She must know something true about him in order to be able to refer to him at all, even if only that he is called 'Joe' by at least one other person, or most minimally what he looks like. If she had merely seen him from a distance and didn't know his name, she could refer to him as 'Joe' (you know, that Joe [in the generic sense of the term similar to 'John Doe']) and then she would be correctly referring to the person she chooses to call 'Joe'.
It can be the case that his critique of certain positions holds good, and that both he and the proponents of those other positions are both wrong about what it takes to successfully refer. As time passes here, I'm leaning more and more to that conclusion.
I'm pointing out that Kripke's framework is inherently inadequate for taking proper account of what Jane does. I'm not passing judgment upon whether or not he points out valid issues with some descriptivist positions by virtue of using the historical conventional notions of necessity and contingency.
I'm looking at what Kripke is claiming...
There it is.
Accompanied by the text of both pg. 25 and 26...
There it is again...
I've shown the consequences. What's not to understand?
No. It doesn't. Jane need not know anything at all about Joe. She need only to recognize Joe as the person she believes killed Bob.
She must at least know what he looks like as I said. In order to identify a particular person you must know something about them.
He looks like the man who she believes killed Bob. She knows that. Doesn't hardly pass the muster of knowing something about Joe independently of her false belief though... does it?
This contradicts everyday events like Jane's. Clearly her reference does not depend upon her knowing who Joe is independently of her false belief about him. Jane's case is one in which the only thing she knows about him is that he looks like the guy she believes killed Bob. That's more than adequate for her successfully referring to him.
Right, so she knows what he looks like, and she refers to him as Joe. So she can successfully refer to that particular man, because she know what he looks like and she knows his name is Joe (even if it is only she who calls him that). The further question is what is required so that anyone else could know just who she is referring to. It seems that, if Joe is not present, then a photograph or a description will be required. Whether or not she holds some false beliefs about the man seems irrelevant.
Read and quote my example...
Then address it's flaws if you see any.
How could she know that he "looks like the person she believes killed Bob" if she didn't know what he looks like? To know what he looks like just is to know "who Joe is independently of her false belief about him".
It shows that Jane cannot refer to Joe on the basis of a false description alone; she needs to know something true about him; at the very least what he looks like, for example.
The corollary of this is that someone else cannot know who is being referred to by Jane without Jane pointing them out, or showing a photograph of them, or giving at least one true description.
Where?
To her there is no difference. That is precisely the point.
Jane shows otherwise.
There and elsewhere...
And there...
So, now you claim that Jane doesn't know what he looks like after all?
The point is that Jane doesn't "successfully refer to Joe by virtue of false description" she does so by virtue of knowing something true about him, even if that is merely having seen him.
You have already admitted as much:
Quoting creativesoul
Did I? Where?
IF what you say is true, then Jane could not successfully pick Joe out by virtue of false description alone.
BUT SHE DOES...
It's up to you what to do with this...
You're contradicting yourself: if she knows what Joe looks like then she would not be "picking out Joe by virtue of a false description alone", but by virtue of knowing what he looks like.
I don't think it makes much of a difference to the validity of Kripke's argument against descriptivism about de re senses (by means of either proper names or demonstratives) whether a putative reference determining description is allegedly constituted by explicit beliefs or by a mere practical ability to recognize the referent. If all Jane believes about Joe is that he's the man she saw yesterday and who seemed to her to be tall and white, but she actually misperceived a man who is short and black, and forgot that she actually saw him two days ago rather than yesterday, she still is thinking about that man (i.e. Joe, who is actually short and black) under all of those false descriptions. Likewise, in the case where she would not have retained any explicit beliefs about the man, but only think of him as someone she once saw and could recognize on sight, but she can't really do that because she developed a propensity to misidentify a short black man as the tall white man who she actually saw, intuitively, it's still the man who she saw that she's thinking of, just like Kripke's "causal theory of reference" predicts.
To say that she is referring to a man she saw yesterday, even allowing that she totally mis-remembers his appearance (which is itself highly implausible I would say) is to say that she has seen the man, and that she refers to him by virtue of having seen him. Usually one would take having seen someone as entailing knowing what they look like, or at least being able to recognize them if one sees them again. So, I can't see how this challenges what I have been saying.
Quoting Janus
The issue isn't whether or not it's frequent or plausible that one might encounter something and totally mis-remember its appearance. That's not a philosophical question; that's an empirical question. Both can intelligibly occur, with whatever frequencies. The issue rather is whether or not it's in virtue of the predicative content of such an ability to recognize an individual's appearance, as a result of an initial perceptual encounter with it, than one is thereafter able to refer to this individual by means of a memory-invoking demonstrative. When you are saying that she is referring to the man by virtue of having seen him, what do you mean exactly? Can you specify some more what this "... by virtue of ..." relation consists in? If it's merely an ability to recognize the man she once saw, who (i.e. under what mode of presentation) does she recognize him to be? Recognitional abilities are abilities to re-cognize; that is: to think of an individual under two distinct modes of presentation and to judge the two references to be numerically identical. I would argue that, in the case under discussion, both of those modes are de re senses: one of them is a memory-invoking demonstrative and the second one is a (present) perceptual demonstrative.
I would say she must at least remember having seen him, even if not what he looks like, in order to refer to him. This memory must be under some form of description, or at least be capable of being rendered as such. For example, if I say to you: "Remember that woman we saw yesterday who was nearly hit by a car" neither of us may remember what she looks like, we might not even be able to pick her out in a line-up, so we can only refer to her by virtue of that true description: that we saw her being almost run over.
We touched earlier on a distinction between fixing and determining reference. You acknowledged that fixing reference relies on description, but you did not acknowledge this for determining reference. I imagined that you were alluding to Kripke's "causal chain" of rigid designation. As I understand it this chain involves an initial event (or events in the case of multiple names designating the same person or entity) of baptism, followed by the historical series of instances of use of the name to refer to the individual; the designating references that cement the rigid designation.
So, those who are present at the baptismal event(s) know who the baptizing name refers to by virtue of having been there and seeing the baptized person with their own eyes. how does anyone who was not present, who has never seen the person or any representation (painting, photograph or whatever) of the person come to know who is being referred to at subsequent times? I would say it is obviously by virtue of descriptions of what the person looks like, where she lives, what she has done and so on.
So Kripke's "causal series" would itself seem to consist predominately in representations and descriptions. That begins to make it look like the only distinction between fixing and determining reference may be that the latter is thought to consist in a whole chain of isolated 'fixing reference' events, and that description plays a large part in the "causal' process of rigid designation.
The issue was: must this (minimal) description be true in order that the referent of the thought be determined by that thought? What if both you and I saw a woman whom we believed was almost hit by a car, but the car only appeared to us to drive close to her owing to a misleading perspective? In that case, wouldn't you agree that we are still referring to that woman (or to that man whom we falsely thought was a woman!) in spite of the fact that she (or he!) wasn't nearly hit by a car?
Right. That's how Kripke suggests his causal account might elucidate how proper names determine their referents.
Yes, new people can be initiated into the already existing naming practice by means of reference fixing descriptions. The important points to remember, though, is that, firstly, a necessary requirement for their successful initiation into the practice is that the practice already exists and is founded on direct "causal" acquaintance by some of the earlier participants into (or founders of) the practice. And secondly, the content of the reference fixing description by means of which new participants are initiated can be entirely false without this impeding the initiate's ability to refer to the named individual.
Again, it doesn't matter at all if the sorts of contents that are made use of in the deployment, use and transmission or proper name using practices are predominantly consisting of (1) descriptions or (2) de re senses (information insensitive "causal links"). That's an empirical question which Kripke doesn't take any stand on. What he's arguing is that (2) is indispensable and that (2) can't be reduced entirely to (1). (And hence, proper names can't be translated into definite descriptions). Also, it's the essential involvement of (2) in the constitution of naming practices that accounts for proper names behaving as (information insensitive) rigid designators.
It seems you're talking about something that I am not.
What's at issue is whether or not false description can be used to successfully refer. Kripke's account does not seem to be able to provide an acceptable explanation of these cases when they happen. That is the point I'm currently arguing...
You're wanting to argue about whether or not Jane needs to know something else about Joe in order for her to be able to use false description to successfully refer to Joe(to pick Joe out by saying false stuff about Joe).
I would have thought that it was, on the contrary, one of the main strengths of Kripke's "causal" account of de re reference (by means of proper names or demonstratives) that it enables people to successfully refer to individuals which they have (mainly or entirely) false beliefs about, whereas this is not possible to do by means of standalone definite descriptions.
I cannot see that.
What's your take on Kripke's notion of the 'referent of the description' in cases of false belief in the form of false description?
...Kripke's doctrine doesn't seem capable of properly accounting for false belief. In fact, some cases of false belief are quite problematic for it.
Nevertheless???
:gasp:
Jane believes Joe killed Bob. She refers to Joe by stating, "You know - the guy who kiled Bob...". She is saying stuff about Joe. She is picking Joe out. The referent of the description is the specific individual that is being picked out of this world by Jane. That is clearly Joe.
Kripke's framework(his notion of the 'referent of the description') demands concluding otherwise when Jane's belief is false.
Let me repeat...
Kripke's framework would be forced to report Jane's belief in a remarkably different way if it were false.
In such a case, according to Kripke's notion of 'referent of the description', the referent of Jane's description could not be Joe. She believes Joe killed Bob. Allen did. Jane doesn't know of Allen. Yet, according to Kripke's notion of the 'referent of the description', the referent of Jane's description is Allen.
This framework leads one to say that Jane is referring to someone she does not even know about, and that the person she is saying stuff about is not the referent of her description. Are we to conclude that it makes any sense at all to say that Jane can describe and talk about Joe while the referent of Jane's description about Joe is not Joe, but rather it is Allen.
That looks like a fundamental error in taxonomy. If you get thought and belief wrong, you'll have something or other wrong about everything ever thought, believed, stated, written, and/or otherwise uttered.
Kripke's notion of "proper referent" cannot properly account for Jane's referring to Joe by virtue of saying stuff about him that's false. Ask Jane who she is referring to. Tell her that Joe is innocent. Prove it to her. Ask her again who she was referring to... She will say "Joe" if she knows his name. Let's say she doesn't. Put Joe in a lineup. She will still pick out Joe. She is referring to Joe.
Kripke would tell Jane that the referent of her descriptions was Allen. Jane would tell Saul that she doesn't know Allen, and that she certainly knows who she was talking about even if she said some stuff about him that was wrong, mistaken, false, and/or otherwise not true. I would agree with Jane.
Kripke is saying "Nevertheless..." because although we would, in ordinary cases, understand the speaker to be referring (and indeed, to intend to be referring) to the man who unbeknownst to the speaker doesn't have champagne in his glass, the way Kripke intends to use the phrase 'referent of the description' is to refer to the object uniquely satisfying the conditions in the definite description exactly as descriptivists about proper names understand definite descriptions to refer. So, he's not begging the question against descriptivists.
In the case Kripke describes, the way the reference actually works is grounded on the demonstrative perceptual acquaintance that the speaker and members of his audience have with the drinker. Here also, the definite description can be understood to fix the reference (in the mind of the hearers who merely believe the man to be drinking champagne, or who understand the speaker's mistake), and not determine it. It calls everyone's attention towards the intended individual, who is perceptually present to everyone involved, while also carrying false information about this individual owing to a false presupposition (or misperception).
Hmmm...
His text and his footnotes both clearly set out his notion of the 'referent of the description' as the object uniquely satisfying the conditions of the description. I'm showing how that notion leads to a reductio when it comes to explaining the referent of false description.
Could you point me to "the case Kripke describes". I'd like to see him put his own notion to use as a means for clearing up the charges I'm levying against his notion of the 'referent of the description'.
Yes, he sets out this notion as the notion being used by descriptivists in order to show descriptivism's shorcomings. Immediately following the passage that you quoted (N&N. p.25), he explained: "This is the sense in which it's been used in the logical tradition. So, if you have a description of the form 'the x such that phi(x)', and there is exactly one x such that phi(x), that is the referent of the description."
This is just the case that you quoted from p.25. It's not his notion of the 'referent of the description' that he's making use of. It's the traditional notion -- as used by descriptivists -- that he is explaining (and which correspond to the first item in Donnellan's pragmatic distinction between (1) the "proper referent" and (2) the intended referent of the definite description being enunciated by a speaker in a specific context shared by the targeted audience.) He is explaining this notion used by descriptivists in their account of proper names in order to argues against its use as a satisfactory account of the way proper names refer.
Thanks. Perhaps I have conflated what Kripke is granting as a means to argue against, and what he's actually claiming himself with regard to reference. That doesn't seem very clear to me...
Quoting Pierre-Normand
Yes, I would agree that it doesn't need to be true that she was almost hit by a car. The description would have more accurately been 'the women who appeared to us to be almost hit by a car' which would be a true description.
Quoting Pierre-Normand
OK, I would agree with all of that as well. I have said from the start that I think reference relies either on observation or ostention (which would be the case with those who witnessed the 'baptism') or description (which would be the means by which those who have never met or seen the baptized person, and so must rely upon being told about him or her would fix their reference to the person in question).
Well, that's cool. That means Kripke and you are pretty much on the same page, after all.
That's Hume's bundle theory, which is supposed to arise from trying to imagine an object that has no properties. Since we can't, we seem to know a priori that an object can't be something independent of its properties. (Correct me if I twisted that somehow)
Do you take Kripke as delving this deeply into ontology? That he wants to argue with Hume?
There is one concern/question that persists for me despite all this, but it's best to remain silent as of now. It may turn out that it is answered.
Thanks to all here who have shown me where I'm in error...
I see this as one of a number of instances of Kripke making an uncharitable interpretation of the descriptivist position. I'm tempted to say 'straw man' but feel that may be a bit strong for what he intended.
I very much doubt Russell would agree with Kripke's claim that Russell's position is that the speaker is referring to the man uniquely satisfying the description - ie the man that would be identified as the referent by an observer that was omniscient enough to know what everybody in the room had in their glass and yet was strangely ignorant of the thought process of the speaker (ie, did not know that the speaker thought that the man she had in mind had champagne in it).
A descriptivist position with less straw in it would be one in which the reference (if it makes sense to talk about one - see my earlier comments about the folly of always dissecting speech acts) made by the speaker is to the individual that she believes satisfies her description. That reference will be correctly interpreted by the listener if that description also uniquely picks out the same individual in the context of the listener's beliefs.
If there is a single listener, we can talk about the reference being 'successful' if the listener picks out the same individual as the speaker intended. But if there are multiple listeners it is possible that some pick out the same individual while others do not, so the notion of 'successful reference' is ambiguous.
Consider a very young child that thinks their aunt is an astronaut, because of a misheard conversation, or perhaps because he had seen her in a SCUBA outfit or something else that might be mistaken for an astronaut's gear. The parents know about that. The child looks out the window and sees the aunt coming up to the front door. He says excitedly 'look - astronaut come to door!'
The parents know to whom the child is referring, even though they do not share the child's belief that the aunt is an astronaut.
I have no idea what Russell would have said since he was mainly interested in the logical reconstruction of a scientifically rigorous language (just like Frege and the logical empiricists were) and wasn't very sensitive to the pragmatic features of ordinary language.
However, it seems to me to be common ground among most contemporary parties that, in Donnellan's champagne case, the speaker is making reference to the person that she merely believes satisfies her description. The problem is to account for it. If the individual being referred to doesn't actually satisfy the description then what makes it the case that it is this individual to whom she herself intends to be referring to? It is not enough to say that he is being referred to in virtue of the fact that the speaker (merely) believes him to satisfy the description. That's because, by saying that, we haven't explained how it is precisely him (and not someone else) who is being referred to. In other words: we are trying to account for who it is who is believed by the speaker to be satisfying her definite description. If we merely appeal to the speaker's belief regarding who it is that she is thinking about, we still have to provide an account of the reference of her belief.
I couldn't quite follow this. Perhaps you could elaborate on what the difficulty is that you see.
It seems to me that, if the DD picks out a unique individual based on the speaker's beliefs, then that explains how it is precisely that person, and not someone else, to whom she is referring.
One simply lists the people she can see and her beliefs about each one, then compares them to the DD and picks out the one for which the beliefs match the DD.
In that case, the person who the speaker is looking at does not match the DD (since the DD expresses a false belief about that person), and hence, by your own account, isn't the person who the speaker is talking about.
It looks like you may have made the slide from (1) "X is the person that the speaker falsely believes phi(...) about" to (2) "X is the person who satisfies the predicative content of the speaker's false belief phi(Y)". But (2) doesn't follow from (1). The negation of (2) rather follows from (1).
I totally agree, but I reach the conclusion this is a good argument for Davidson's 'dubbing.' In your example, the person is dubbed with the properties which may or may not be true, resulting in ideas about the person which are unprovable. That does seem to be the normal state of affairs in human interactions.
I'd like to know a bit more about Davidson's 'dubbing'. Would you happen to have a reference?
What I wrote was, not that the facts about the person match the DD, but that the speaker's beliefs about the person match the DD.
See last line of my prev post. I chose my words carefully, as it is imperative to do in this subject area, indeed in most of philosophy.
However you also said: "It seems to me that, if the DD picks out a unique individual based on the speaker's beliefs, then that explains how it is precisely that person, and not someone else, to whom she is referring."
In this sentence, what did you intend to be the anaphoric antecedent of "that person"? It is "the unique individual based on the speaker's beliefs", right? How it this individual singled out by the speaker's belief, on your view, if not as the individual that satisfies the predicative content of DD?
(I have completely rewritten this post because my initial reply was misguided and based on a misreading of your position.)
OK. I see what you mean now. However, in order to carry through this procedure you need, in a first step, to survey the potential references (e.g. the people who are perceptually present) and assign to them what it is that the speaker believes about each one of them specifically in order to, in a second step, compare those beliefs with the content of the DD. So, you need to first rely on an account of the reference of the speakers mental act of demonstrative reference. The speaker must be able to pick out in though who it is that she believes the predicative content of DD to be uniquely true of. But she can't do this by means of the very same DD, on pain of circularity. (That was basically my earlier objection).
Specifically, kripke initiated the idea of dubbing. The problem with it from Davidson's point of view was that purely referential theories of naming have trouble with defining meaningful knowledge, for which he provided new ideas on meaningfulness that allow for indeterminacy, in case there are mistakes in the act of assigning a label to a reference.
I think I can imagine how Davidson's coherentist and somewhat internalist account of meaning would raise problems for Kripke's externalist (or "purely referential") account of reference. However, do you have a source where Davidson explicitly adresses Kripke along such lines?
Unfortunately my tutor at oxford has retired and she was too polite ever to write down the criticism. What she pointed out, which I think was a good observation, is that when people talk about 'the man holding the glass of vodka' they are not talking about a cluster of properties viz, male, with arms, holding a glass containing liquid, etc.' even if that is how the reference breaks down for the purposes of logic. They are saying 'that person', in a Wittgensteinian manner, pointing as it were, to enable an assertion about them without befuddling other detail once the reference is defined. So for purposes of logic, kripke's theory is excellent; but for purposes of understanding normal human language, davidson provides the additional necessary extensions, and one issue to decide, when examining limits in kripke, is whether the limit is a fault of kripke's, or a fault of our own understanding of meaning for any particular assertion.
Well, strangely enough, this rough account of demonstrative reference seems to me closer in spirit to Kripke's causal/externalist account that it is to Davidson't internalist/interpretivist account.
(I think Gareth Evans's account of demonstrative reference combines the best of both Kripke's 'world-involving' pragmatism and of Davidson's interpretivism. It also somewhat breaks the false dichotomy between externalism and internalism; what is internal to the rational order of linguistic practice in the world isn't internal to the brain.
Maybe so. Ive thought alot about it this last 40 years, far more than I should really, and so I'd hazard to add some thoughts for your amusement. If I were to say, that man holding a glass of vodka is drunk, then it would appear that the alcohol is necessary to the truth of the proposition. As you say, the glass could contain water, and the person could be drunk on love, talking with a girl so enamored by him that the behavior is the same. For such real-world cases it appears to me a purely externalist account is insufficient, because, as soon as any intrinsic state is implied to any extent, there is no property with truth value assignable by empirical observation.
Can you help me to see the circularity? I was imagining something like the following in the speaker's mind:
I am aware of the following:
- person 1, a young man, at 12 o'clock, with a flute of champagne
- person 2 at 1 o'clock, a young woman with a white frilly dress holding a tankard of ale
- person 3 at 11 o'clock, a teenage girl in ripped jeans holding two hors d'oeuvres and no drink
- person 4 at 3 o'clock, my best friend Sabrina
Now person 1 just winked at me. The nerve! I am cross. But maybe I imagined it. I will ask Sabrina if she saw it. Speaks:
'Sabrina! Don't look, but did you see how the man over there with champagne in his glass just winked at me?'
Maybe I can help explain, the idea is that each person has already established a different cluster of descriptions for the subject in question, in this case. So the listener compares their own cluster with the known parts of the speaker's cluster to establish a shared identity of reference. Maybe Im wrong but the 'circularity' refers to the issue that no two people ever have the same cluster of descriptions due to each person also being different, and therefore, viewing other people from different perspectives. So the point it that the cluster of references has to have enough commonality to the listener and speaker to establish a unique refrerence. If two people had exactly the same cluster of descriptions for another person, then they would be indistinguishable as separate people, for the purposes of the operation of the naming theory.
On your view, the person you are making reference to is person-1 on account of the fact that, between all four people who are perceptually present, only person-1 is such that your belief about that person satisfies the DD you are thinking of (and expressing). This account presupposes that your belief about that person indeed is about that person and not about someone else who might actually be, unbeknownst to you, drinking champagne, (or about nobody, if nobody is having champagne). What is this account of the reference of your belief on the basis of which the truth of the predicative content of the DD can be evaluated as matching up with this belief?
Well I regret I must agree with andrewk. As you are interested in externals only, the belief doesnt matter. All that matters is that the two identify a sufficient part of the descriptive properties as referring to the same person. Thats the point of the theory. It doesnt matter how many of the descriptive properties are true or false, or if some of them could truthfully apply to others too.
If one believes that the person is drinking champagne, then the description represents the belief. The belief refers to the person the speaker believes to be drinking champagne.
Actually no, I stand by my prior statement. All that is necessary is for a sufficient number of the descriptive properties to be identified as referring to the same person. It doesn't matter whether the speaker believes them true either.
For example, it is a common technique in black communities to deliberately lie about descriptions which is known to others. As an overly simple example, they will say 'don't insult my brother like that.' The person who is not his brother then nods in agreement and raises a fist.
This is common ground. The issue is to explain how the speaker's belief comes to be about the speaker's intended referent in the world. @andrewk's account of the reference of the speech act relies on the assumption that the mental act thereby expressed is about the very same object she is thinking about. What accounts for the reference of the belief in the first place?
Again, it is a common technique in black communities to deliberately lie about descriptions which is known to others. As an overly simple example, they will say 'don't insult my brother like that.' The person who is not his brother then nods in agreement and raises a fist.
I've tried to help understand the issue but I do have to rest.
In order to establish that the speaker and his intended audience share (a sufficient part of their) beliefs about the same individual, to whom they are thinking about, one must first be able to say who it is that their beliefs are about. However, even if we leave this circularity problem aside, Kripke made a good case that shared beliefs aren't necessary. The audience would normally know who the speaker is thinking about even if the audience knew most or all of the descriptive content used by the speaker not to be true of her intended target. @andrewk got at least that right.
That isnt true either. Black communities love to make fun of white people by talking about, for example, invented people who dont exist, when actually talking about the white person. And Ive heard them do it many times without the white person realizing it and some black teenager sniggering out of sight. There's alot more forms of communication than are obvious from the blithe statements of simple truths and falsehoods that people for whom English is not a first language figure out, and then deliberately connive to humiliate native English speakers together without the native English speakers realizing it.
And I do have to go to bed now, good night.
That the descriptive content can represent false beliefs about the intended target is common ground. What we're inquiring about is the positive account for the reference of the thought (or of the speech act expressing this thought) being what it is in spite of the fact that the definite description by means of which the speaker thinks of the individual is false or mostly false.
Rest in peace :wink:
hence belief is removable by occam's razor. Its irrelevant to the theory. You too.
That's not an argument against Kripke, neither does it help @andrewk who does appeal to the content the speaker's belief in his account of reference.
That's interesting, but what I meant to say is that for reference to be successful, on Kripke's account, it's not a requirement that the descriptive content associated with the speaker's 'idea' (i.e. the de re sense of a demonstrative or proper name) of her intended reference be mostly true. I did not mean to imply that making use of misleading descriptions can't possibly, indeed, mislead outsiders to a conniving community.
Simply put...
As a result of the speaker knowing how to use language to draw an other's attention to the 'object'.
I do not understand this. How can it be the case that I have a belief about somebody that is in my field of view, and yet the belief is not about that person? Isn't that a bare contradiction - "I have a belief that is about X and not about X"?
Would it help to break it up? My belief is about the person at 12 o'clock (so in the above sentence we can replace 'X' by 'the person at my 12 o'clock'), and the belief is that that person is a young man and has a glass of champagne and has winked at me. As far as I am concerned 'the person at my 12 o'clock' is enough to identify the person. But talking to somebody else, I probably feel a bit more info is needed to avoid confusion - for instance my 12 o'clock may be Sabrina's 10 o'clock. So in my verbal statement I replace the position reference by my belief about the champagne and the age and sex, and the belief about the wink becomes a question rather than a part of the DD.
Yes, that's sketchy but basically right. It also takes us out of the realm of Kripke's descritivist targets, and dovetails with his own account.
I was only considering the set of persons (person-1, ..., person-4) who are perceptually present and can reasonably be thought of by the intended audience to be the person being talked about (and demonstrated) by the speaker. One of them might be drinking champagne unbeknownst to the speaker. Of course, the speaker herself would know who the person is that she is looking at and thinking of, but she would not know that by description (or so would I be prepared to argue on Kripke's behalf).
In that case, when you add "...at my 12 o'clock" to the description, you are relying to the content of the true part of the description to secure reference in spite of the falsity of the other parts of the description. When you are thus relying on a true descriptive core (however small) in order to account for the determination of the reference, you move back into the target area of Kripke's objections to descriptivism, which you had attempted to evade by means of your account of reference by means of (potentially false) descriptions that merely match up with the speaker's (potentially false) beliefs about her intended reference.
Not to speak on behalf of andrewk, but rather on my own behalf...
The above criticism is based upon a misunderstanding of belief and how it works. False beliefs are not true. What's said about the referent in a false description is about the referent. It need not be true in order to refer.
Jane believes Joe killed Bob. She refers to Joe as "the man who killed Bob". Joe did not kill Bob. Allen did. When Jane says "the man who killed Bob", she is not expressing a belief about Allen even if and when it is the case that he satisfies the description(that he matches up with the description).
That alone shows us that satisfying the description is not necessary for successfully reference. To talk about "matching up with this belief" is to talk about whether or not the description is true. That is irrelevant to successful reference.
Well you asked a question that could only be answered with such ambiguity. I also do not see how it takes us out of the realm of descriptivist accounts. I'm ok with agreeing with Kripke. I'm ok with not. I don't think I understand his position well enough to know which is the case...
Of course. It only needs to be true in order to refer descriptively, in case the intended reference would be singled out descriptively by the predicative content of the definite description. If the intended reference is singled out demonstratively, for instance, and we can account for demonstrative reference non-descriptively, then it's possible to express a false belief by means of a false definite description of this demonstratively referenced individual.
This is all common ground between Kripke, you and me. It is @andrewk who relied on this matchup in order to make his descriptivist account work.
This seems odd to me.
On the one hand you agree that false descriptions can successfully refer. On the other, you seem to be implying that they cannot refer 'descriptively'. How else do descriptions refer if not descriptively?
Have I misunderstood or is there a bit of nuance here? I'd appreciate - and do appreciate - your participation here.
You're saying that false description does not pick out the referent, but rather that it has/had already been picked out by true description or demonstratively(pointing, showing).
Is that about right?
Remember Kripke's explanation that he intended to use the phrase "reference of the description" in order to match up with the descriptivist logical tradition. (That was on page 25, if I remember). That's how referring descriptively works. You supply a definite description of the item you intend to refer to, and you intend this item to be whatever uniquely satisfies this description. (That's what makes the description definite). By definition, such a description is about the item (if there is any) that uniquely satisfies the description. Another way for a definite description to refer would be as a reference fixing rather than a reference determining device. In that case, it might serve to disambiguate among several items that a speaker could be making reference todemonstratively, or by means of a shared proper name, while accounting for the fact that the content of the description could be false and merely believed to be true by the speaker.
That the intended reference might already have been determined by a true description (e.g. andrewk's "...at twelve o'clock") might be a requirement of a purely descriptivist account. Kripke is arguing that the reference can be singled out entirely non-descriptively but that, in some cases, in order to enable the reference to be communicated non-ambiguously, a definite description (either true or merely believed to be true of the intended reference) can be supplied to other people in order to draw their attention to the intended item and thereby enable them to refer to it under the same (or deferred) mode of demonstrative reference. (I am somewhat adapting his account of proper names to demonstrative reference since, in spite of the obvious differences, they both are de re modes of reference that rely on the possibility of knowledge by acquaintance).
If all that Kripke is saying is that, where every single belief that a person has about a person, including that he is standing at 12 o'clock, or that I was introduced to him yesterday in a meeting, or that my grandmother told me a story about him, is false, then one cannot give an account of how the person can be referred to, then the situation he is using is so rare that it is ridiculous to use it as an objection to any theory of anything.
To which I would add that, if every belief I have about a person is false, the question of whether I 'can refer' to that person is moot - it becomes unclear what 'referring to' would mean in that situation. At best the person is 'referring to' an element of a hallucination they had.
The only situation I can think of in which every belief somebody has about somebody is false is where I am undergoing hallucinations or have false memories, so that I am thinking of the person over there but there is no person over there, or I am remembering my grandmother telling me of this person called Nixon, but that memory is false and my grandmother never told me of Nixon.
I am fairly sceptical of Kripke's theory but I don't believe it is as trivial as such an interpretation would suggest. Certainly that's not what I get from N&N.
I do remember that. It's been the source of a bit of confusion on my part.
See if I have this right...
Here the difference between reference fixing and reference determining would be that the former makes use of an otherwise inadequate description(one that is incapable of successfully picking out an individual), whereas the latter is making use of a purportedly adequate description, according to one who argues in favor of definite descriptions.
Kripke isn't arguing that it isn't rare that all of our beliefs about an item that we are making reference to non-descriptively (e.g. by means of a demonstrative device or of a proper name) are false. That might indeed be extremely rare. What he's arguing only is that however big or small the core of our true beliefs about this item might be, it's not this true core of beliefs that determines what the reference is. He's arguing against descriptivist theories that make some core of beliefs about an item necessarily true of this item in order that the believer might be making reference to it, or that make it necessary that there be such a true core.
That sounds about right, with the caveat that there is nothing wrong or inadequate about referring to an item purely descriptively (and thus ensuring that our description of it is true, if the item uniquely exists) if this is what one intends to do. (Mathematicians often refer to mathematical objects purely descriptively). Kripke's main point is that reference by means of proper names doesn't work like that.
Where do you believe he argues that?
I don't see any argument on p25-6 to that effect. The only support he offers to his claim that a descriptivist must say that the reference is to the person uniquely satisfying the description (somebody of whom the speaker is presumed to be unaware) is another claim:
"This is the sense in which it's been used in the logical tradition."
I am dubious of that second claim (and he offers nothing to support it) but, even if it were true, that would not mean that it is essential to a descriptivist theory that one takes that interpretation.
Well, for sure, you yourself attempted to supply a more nuanced account. But there is some unfinished business above since I have claimed that your own proposed account still is vulnerable to Kripke's objections. Do you propose to amend it as the claim that, whatever set of true beliefs a speaker happens to have about the item she intends to refer to, this set determines descriptively what this item is? Or maybe you want to phrase it differently?
It's been more than 15 years since I've read Naming and Necessity back to back. So, I must acknowledge that I may now tend to conflate some of Kripke's original arguments with those of other pragmatists/externalists who have followed in (some of) his footsteps, and expanded on his views, such as Gareth Evans, Hillary Putnam, Michael Luntley, Gregory McCulloch, John McDowell and David Wiggins.
Yes, my first stab at summarising my notion of a robust descriptivist position is something like this:
When a speaker uses a verbal description to refer to an object, they will usually* use properties that they believe belong to the object and that they believe are sufficient to uniquely identify it amongst the set of objects that might reasonably be considered candidates, given the context.
When a speaker uses a proper name to refer to an object, they will have in mind a description with the above properties.
Whether a listener understands the speaker and picks up the same object as the speaker intended will depend on:
- in the description case, whether that description uniquely picks out the same object as the speaker intended, given the listener's beliefs and the context;
- in the proper name case, whether the proper name leads the listener to pick out the same object as the speaker intended, given the listener's beliefs and the context.
I find the descriptivist account incomplete, but not for the reasons Kripke suggests. Rather, I believe it is often unhelpful to break up a speech act into parts and insist on identifying referents. It is often the case that the speech act has an intent that does not depend on the identity of the presumed referent, or even on whether there is a referent. In this case I think Wittgenstein is the one with the most realistic and helpful account.
*An exception would be when the speaker believes that the listener has a different set of beliefs about the object. In that case it would make sense for the speaker, in order to be understood, to use properties that the listener believes holds, even though the speaker does not believe they hold.
The irony(or difficulty depending) is that what we're doing here - the activity we're all involved in - is the referent of our own discourse. That holds good for all historical accounts as well. Via discourse, we are drawing an other's attention to the fact that we draw an other's attention to some thing in particular that our attention is already upon. We are accounting for how that happens. We do not need to draw an other's attention to the fact that we're drawing an other's attention to some thing in particular in order to draw an other's attention to that. In other words, we do not need to talk about the fact that we can draw an other's attention to some thing or other in order to be able to do so. The other need not know that that is being done. We need not know that we're doing it.
Drawing an other's attention to the same thing in particular that our attention is already upon is something that all of us began doing long before we came to realize that we were doing it. Drawing an other's attention to the same thing in particular that our attention is already upon is not existentially dependent upon our awareness of it. It does not require being named. Rather, it is something that exists in it's entirety(it is something that we do) prior to our knowing that we're doing it. Drawing an other's attention to the same thing in particular that our attention is already upon is not existentially dependent upon our ability to take an account of it.
We can draw an other's attention to the same thing in particular that our attention is already upon by virtue of ostension and/or description, despite the fact that the description need not be true. What we cannot do is take account of the fact that we're drawing their attention to some thing that ours is already upon by virtue of false description. What we're doing when we draw an other's attention to some thing that ours is already upon cannot be adequately taken into account by a single name/term. It just cannot be done. Rather, what we're doing can only be taken into account by virtue of true description.
That's the irony here.
There is a clear distinction between the necessary and sufficient conditions for drawing an other's attention to some thing that our attention is already upon and our accounts thereof. Drawing an other's attention to some thing that our attention is already focused upon is not something that is capable of being true/false. It's something that happens. The necessary and sufficient conditions for drawing an other's attention to the same thing in particular that our attention is already upon do not include our thought/belief and/or terminological jargon about the fact that we're doing it. Rather, our thought/belief and/or jargon(our reports/accounts) about drawing an other's attention to some thing that ours is already upon can be true/false.
We cannot use false descriptions about what we're doing when we're taking an account of drawing an other's attention to some thing that ours is already upon and expect to arrive at an acceptable conception and/or notion of reference. Any and all acceptable conceptions/notions of reference must be able to properly take account of the fact that in all cases of referring we are drawing an other's attention to some thing that ours is already upon. This can only be arrived at by virtue of true descriptions about how that happens.
That sheds a bit of much needed light upon the elephant in the room.
There's a difference between what successful reference takes and what a proper account of successful reference takes. The former can happen with the use of false descriptions. The latter cannot consist of such.
Strictly speaking, counterfactuals can only be de dicto, and not de re.
Is that true?
The distinction is very nuanced however, and that rendering cannot capture all that convention says about it. The SEP article ought be confusing enough for anyone's joy.
I like the idea of substitution without losing meaning as a means for adequate translation. It's handy for checking on the coherency of terminological use. It also often renders the notion of 'logical' entailment useless. Gettier plays on it when the substitution quite simply does not hold. What is claimed to be entailed by 'X' can have different truth conditions... different meaning.
Yes. I'm quite confused. I was under the impression that rigid designators can only be talked about what is said, not the thing itself. The same or similar would apply to counterfactuals.
What does that mean?
Jane can refer to Joe by saying "the man who killed Bob" even when Joe did not, because she believes Joe killed Bob. She need not know Joe's name. It is arguable whether or not she needs to know something else(have some other true belief) about Joe. We cannot take proper account of what Jane is doing by virtue of using description if our descriptions of what she's doing are false.
What she's doing is drawing an other's attention to the same thing that her attention is already upon by virtue of expressing her own thought and belief. Those belief statements need not be true in order to be about Joe. They need not be true in order to draw an other's attention to Joe. That is because they need not be true in order to be meaningful. A listener of Jane's(when Joe is not present) can know who she is referring to by sharing her belief about Joe, or by knowing that she believes it. Neither person here needs to know Joe's name. Both would need to know what Joe looks like in order for the description to successfully refer.
This is the interesting part...
Knowing what "the man who killed Bob" means is quite simply inadequate for successful reference if knowing that is equivalent to knowing which man uniquely satisfies that description. Knowing that Allen killed Bob does not help a listener at all when it comes to knowing who Jane is talking about.
https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/31d4/81ec126c3baef191ea0990832bf81727de87.pdf
Abstract: The problem of counterfactual attitudes de re was identified by Ninan (2008) as a challenge for standard theories of de re. I show that once counterfactual non-de re attitudes are properly analyzed, trivial composition of such an analysis for them with the analysis of doxastic de re provides the solution to the problem. Thus there is no independent phenomenon of counterfactual attitudes de re, and therefore no problem as such.