Plato's Phaedo
At Banno’s suggestion I am starting a thread on Plato’s Phaedo.
I will be citing this online translation: http://www.faculty.umb.edu/gary_zabel/Phil_100/Plato_files/310585462-Plato-Phaedo.pdf
but relying on this one: Plato-Phaedo-Focus-Philosophical-Library/dp/0941051692. Certain terms from this edition will be used in place of what is found in the online translation.
EDIT: I have compiled the separate commentary posts in order that it may be read together:
1. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/10914/platos-phaedo/p1
2. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/534860
3. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535343
4. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535924
5. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/536573
6. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/537114
7. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/537698
8. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/538481
9. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/539501
10. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/540733
The dialogue is written as a first hand account but it is not Plato’s account, it is Phaedo’s as told to Echecrates. We soon learn that Plato was not with Socrates on his final day. He was sick. (59b) We do not know the nature of his illness. What would have been so serious as to keep him away? That question will be addressed in due time. But for now we should note that Plato is twice removed. He was not there with Socrates, and there is no indication he was there when Phaedo told Echecrates what he had witnessed. Plato is mentioned in only two places in the dialogues. Here it is his absence rather than his presence that he draws our attention to.
Socrates is doing something he has never done before, writing. He explains it this way:
often in my past life the same dream had visited me, now in one guise, now in another, but always saying the same thing: "Socrates,'' it said, "make music and practise it." Now in earlier times I used to assume that the dream was urging and telling me to do exactly what I was doing: as people shout encouragement to runners, so the dream was telling me to do the very thing that I was doing, to make music, since philosophy is the greatest music. (61a)
He continues:
I reflected that a poet should, if he were really going to be a poet, make stories rather than arguments, and being no teller of tales myself, I therefore used some I had ready to hand …(61b)
Several things need to be noted. First, he calls philosophy the greatest music. Second, he claims that he is not a storyteller. But here he tells a story about a dream from his past life. That it is just a story will become clear.
Unlike Socrates, Plato did write and he is a very capable storyteller, capable of the greatest music. His dialogues are akin to the work of the poets’ plays. What we will hear are not simply arguments but stories. The question arises as to whether this is a comedy or tragedy. Phaedo says that he was not overcome by pity and that Socrates seemed happy (58e) Phaedo reports feeling an unusual blend of pleasure and pain. (59a). As we shall see, opposites will play an important part in Socrates’ stories.
I will be citing this online translation: http://www.faculty.umb.edu/gary_zabel/Phil_100/Plato_files/310585462-Plato-Phaedo.pdf
but relying on this one: Plato-Phaedo-Focus-Philosophical-Library/dp/0941051692. Certain terms from this edition will be used in place of what is found in the online translation.
EDIT: I have compiled the separate commentary posts in order that it may be read together:
1. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/10914/platos-phaedo/p1
2. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/534860
3. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535343
4. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535924
5. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/536573
6. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/537114
7. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/537698
8. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/538481
9. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/539501
10. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/540733
The dialogue is written as a first hand account but it is not Plato’s account, it is Phaedo’s as told to Echecrates. We soon learn that Plato was not with Socrates on his final day. He was sick. (59b) We do not know the nature of his illness. What would have been so serious as to keep him away? That question will be addressed in due time. But for now we should note that Plato is twice removed. He was not there with Socrates, and there is no indication he was there when Phaedo told Echecrates what he had witnessed. Plato is mentioned in only two places in the dialogues. Here it is his absence rather than his presence that he draws our attention to.
Socrates is doing something he has never done before, writing. He explains it this way:
often in my past life the same dream had visited me, now in one guise, now in another, but always saying the same thing: "Socrates,'' it said, "make music and practise it." Now in earlier times I used to assume that the dream was urging and telling me to do exactly what I was doing: as people shout encouragement to runners, so the dream was telling me to do the very thing that I was doing, to make music, since philosophy is the greatest music. (61a)
He continues:
I reflected that a poet should, if he were really going to be a poet, make stories rather than arguments, and being no teller of tales myself, I therefore used some I had ready to hand …(61b)
Several things need to be noted. First, he calls philosophy the greatest music. Second, he claims that he is not a storyteller. But here he tells a story about a dream from his past life. That it is just a story will become clear.
Unlike Socrates, Plato did write and he is a very capable storyteller, capable of the greatest music. His dialogues are akin to the work of the poets’ plays. What we will hear are not simply arguments but stories. The question arises as to whether this is a comedy or tragedy. Phaedo says that he was not overcome by pity and that Socrates seemed happy (58e) Phaedo reports feeling an unusual blend of pleasure and pain. (59a). As we shall see, opposites will play an important part in Socrates’ stories.
Comments (648)
And I look forward to a dialogue about this dialogue.
Thanks for this. I have downloaded it and hope to read along with you and others.
Quoting Fooloso4
Ah, how intriguing. The dialogue sounds like a Russian doll. What kind of illness...hmm...physical, mental...a broken leg causing great pain...
Quoting Fooloso4
Really ?
Quoting Fooloso4
I've just been discussing dreams elsewhere in the forum - the fact that strange figures flit in and out and we can have weird conversations with them. Again, I once talked about dreams as a source of inspiration which led to real life problems being solved. Dreams are a bit of a mystery.
So, whose voice would be it be ? That of his daemonion ? Some kind of a spirit ?
Quoting Fooloso4
But why would it need to do that, or Socrates assume that - if it is a source of inspiration, then Socrates already has it in spades.
Quoting Fooloso4
Does S. then see himself as a poet, even as he makes arguments ?
Why, if he was being encouraged to 'make music and practise it' - or rhythmic lyrics - would he dismiss his own talent and rely on second-hand material?
Quoting Fooloso4
Oh, hot damn...this is beginning to sound like Dallas. Bobby in the shower. Everything that had happened previously - Bobby dying - was only his wife's dream...
So, we don't get to read any of Socrates' poems then ?
Quoting Fooloso4
I am looking forward to seeing how this all pans out...soap opera meets political drama ?
Quoting Fooloso4
Both ?
Quoting Fooloso4
A bitter-sweet play.
Socrates obeys what the dream commands so as to acquit himself of any impiety. (60e) Only now, at the end of his life, he doubts that he has not obeyed by philosophizing. And it is only by chance that his death was postponed. Since the same dream visited him often in his past life, it is curious that he remembers the dream but only now questions he was doing what it asked.
Quoting Amity
Plato's Socrates says that his daemonion only warned him about what not to do. Xenophon's Socrates tells a different story.
Quoting Amity
I think it is Plato's way of telling us that what follows should be regarded as stories rather than reasoned arguments.
Quoting Amity
I think his intention is, like that of the sophists, to persuade. This leads to the question of the relationship of the sophist and the poet to the philosopher. Rather than attempting to resolve that problem I will leave it open, because I think that tension is always at play in the dialogues.
Quoting Amity
I will be addressing that.
Quoting Amity
Yes. The idea of opposites not being mutually exclusive will come up several times.
Thanks. I will disappear for a while to read the Phaedo...
Do you recommend only reading up to a certain point before discussion, or what ?
I recommend reading at your own pace, moving forward and backwards with the eventual goal of seeing the whole.
To read to get the gist, for simple pleasure - followed by a slower, more analytical read. Perhaps zooming in on something I find interesting or puzzling. Sounds about right for me.
Look forward to hearing more from you, as and when...
The next section will cover up to and including 64a.
I will take up issues as they occur in the text.
Appreciate that :up:
Great. I look forward to that.
Thank you, @Fooloso4; it would be remiss of us not to take advantage of having someone who knows what they are talking about to hand, and this is a text that has implications across our subject. It came up in the thread on reincarnation, mentioned in response to the question "what is it that is reincarnated": "There is no coherent idea or concept of the individual soul that is not tied to an actual individual" coheres neatly with the view I expressed there, so I'm interested in how this comes out in the dialogue; there seems then to be a deeper reading of the text that will be enjoyable to investigate.
But there is also the argument from recollection, which I have long considered somewhat dubious, yet is central to Plato's wider thought, and so worthy of reconsideration.
But mostly I'm looking forward to this reading because I expect the unexpected, the unknown unknown.
Plato's Phaedo - this pdf is the translation with notes by David Gallop.
Contents
The translation 1
Notes 74
Notes on text and translation 226
Bibliographies 239
Abbreviations 242
Index 244
Quoting Fooloso4
An easy and short read; the section up to 64a takes us to p8. I hope more people will join in the conversation that @Fooloso4 has started with encouragement from @Banno. Thanks.
It should be quite a ride.
I have decided, against all my natural inclinations, not to search the internet for secondary sources.
Simply to read, think and make connections for myself. Looking forward to @Fooloso4 as a guide to a closer and deeper understanding - who will take and answer relevant questions.
Quoting Fooloso4
I've read the section, looking out for these elements. I am intrigued already.
The concepts of death, suicide with religious themes. The pain/pleasure aspects - the mix and the separation. The subtle comedic parts.
Before I go into detail, I think it probably best to wait for @Fooloso4 to comment first...
And he might well be waiting for others to join in. I hope people do :sparkle:
Yes, and thanks for suggesting this to @Fooloso4. It is a most welcome surprise.
Quoting Banno
:cool:
This is a gem of the perennial philosophy - that pleasure and pain always accompany one another. Men foolishly chase pleasure and revile pain, not seeing that they are conjoined.
Quoting Wayfarer
Perhaps I am wrong. And the best way would be to post own thoughts and questions first.
Hmmm...
But I have so many :scream:
I think that is the way to go. Will post something later re the pain/pleasure issue.
[ My mind goes all over the place - I remember the poignant scene from the film 'Shadowlands' where Jack ( C.S Lewis ) and his wife, Joy shelter from the rain. Joy is dying and wants to talk about it. Jack not so much. He doesn't want to spoil what is a happy moment.
Jack: I’ll manage somehow. Don’t worry about me.
Joy: No, I think it can be better than just managing. What I am trying to say is that the pain then is part of the happiness now. That’s the deal. ]
So immediately we are involved in the issue of Episteme and Techne?
So, here pain and pleasure are mixed together - blending the feelings and senses of reflecting on death and loss of Socrates even as they enjoy the philosophical discussion. Noting that some people are more emotionally affected than others - perhaps a criticism of a lack of rationality ? Being emotionally incontinent is not good ?
p3 60a
Again, there seems to be a dismissal of what 'kinds of things that women are given to saying'. Implying that it is an unwanted feminine characteristic. And yet, his wife would be the one to carry on and look after their son. I think she is misrepresented here - she has been the provider of finance. She has been there with her care. Living with Socrates and his absences would require a practical wisdom...at the very least.
p3-4 60b
I think this section important - his pleasurable release from painful tight chains.
Death might be seen as a welcome release from the physical body with all its discomforts.
The pain of life v the joy of the afterlife ?*
There is a separation. Not here a mingling as felt by Phaedo.
* not convinced that is is how Socrates would see life though, nor about any joy in afterlife.
Although Phaedo seems to think that even in Hell, Socrates would be fine.
58e
Socrates despite his many virtues was probably in today’s terms not on board with gender equality. Don’t forget these dialogues hail from 300-400 BC.
I am not forgetting time, place or person.
I don't see Socrates as a perfectly virtuous man, no matter what he says or is alleged to have said.
There is undoubtedly a bias towards males and their 'drunken' discussions - the strength needed in war - the heroic narrative.
Women are invisible but for their tears. It shows a complete blindness to the life and battles of women; their role and strength in keeping things going...providing support and care.
However, I think that Socrates in the business of 'knowing oneself' was concerned with humans; people including women. The vision of a better society with increased wellbeing. That includes acknowledging the opposites or the mingling...of pain and pleasure...of love and war...of life and death.
It would be easy to skim over, or skip this weeping episode but I think it worthwhile to note, especially given the discussion on supposed opposites. Reason v Emotion.
As Foolos4 said: https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/534374
Quoting Fooloso4
Pass me the wine :party:
I get what you are saying.
However, I am not sure that any parts of the dialogue written by Plato are 'casual'.
There is so much there - I don't think a word is ever wasted - we could be here forever...
p5 61b
Can you imagine having this kind of conversation in your last hours ?
And why wait until then...
Yes, it is the ship from the story of Theseus and the Minotaur. I don't think the conundrum is part of the myth, but Plato was aware of the problem. It can be found in a couple of the dialogues. There are several parallels in the Phaedo between the myth of Theseus' journey and Socrates own.
The Greek term is mousikê. The translation I rely on uses the transliteration 'music' instead of 'art'. In Plato's Ion Socrates denies that poesis is a techne, it is, rather, enthousiasmos, that is inspiration. But here Socrates calls philosophy the "greatest music". As such it seems to cut across the distinction between episteme and techne. Despite what he says, Socrates is clearly a skilled (techne) storyteller, and further, his stories and images require knowledge (episteme) of the character of the person or persons he makes the story for. With regard to this, consider his calling himself a "physician of the soul".
Right. He tells him to drop dead!
This and:
Quoting Amity
reflect common opinion at that time.
I think it may also be part of the theme of comedy and tragedy. If this play is to be a comedy then crying and weeping are to be dispatched.
Inquiry and speculation based on what we imagine it to be based on hearsay. This is the measure by which to evaluate the stories that follow.
Socrates states that it would be better for some to be dead. In that case, it would be better for others to be alive. But he does not make the connection. Instead he moves to a defense of the prohibition against suicide.
Cebes gives a little laugh to which Socrates responds:
Socrates does not give an account. He appeals again to hearsay, to what is said in the Mysteries.
Socrates likens life to a prison. In that case it would not be just some men who would be better off dead, but all men who do not wish to be imprisoned. The irony here should not be missed. What Socrates is trying to persuade them of is not simply that death is not so bad, but that the soul will endure and be born again. But if life is a prison, then rebirth would mean to be imprisoned once again after having been freed from life.
Simmias objects:
Socrates responds:
Only Socrates made clear in the Apology that a court of law was not the proper place for him to defend himself. Socrates’ defense begins here, with those who are not hostile to philosophy.
Socrates says that he is hopeful about something they have long been told, that death is something far better for the good than for the wicked. This is not a recollection of death, but a story that has long been told.
What are we to make of this startling and puzzling claim?
Philosophers are trying to see life, to gain a vantage point on it. It would appear that the only vantage point is in death.
I don't know but it reminded me of something else - perhaps the Stoics. Something like it is only because of death that we appreciate life...i.e. it gives perspective as to what really matters.
How to live life well. Keeping death in mind...
Or it could be that the 'dying' refers to philosophers giving less oxygen to mundane matters. Paying more attention to the mental than the physical.
Or...the aim to attain a higher self by killing off the base instincts.
Or...living life in the moment so that there are no regrets or fears at point of death.
Or...practising arguments - so that the better man wins by killing any apparent conflicting reasons...or wrong conclusions.
Or...playing devil's advocate - pretending not to be alive to the better argument.
None of the above.
I think he is just trying to encourage his anxious young men that because they are philosophical they will be ready to die when the time comes. Not to fear it or to grieve his passing. He is setting an example of how to approach death with the right attitude.
Quoting Fooloso4
Perhaps that is why he sent his wife way...the tears...the lamenting...he wanted a positive message to be held in lasting memory.
[quote="Fooloso4;534838" ] If this play is to be a comedy then crying and weeping are to be dispatched.[/quote]
No. It's a tragicomedy. The tears are there in joy and despair.
I will have something to say about this in the next section. Part of the Stoic practice of philosophy involved meditations on death.
Quoting Amity
I agree. His arguments are rhetorical, intended to persuade, give them courage, and alleviate their fears.
Quoting Amity
A tragedy is about the protagonist's downfall. But instead of the end of his life being a downfall
Socrates makes it seem as if it is a journey of hope. A happy ending and new beginning.
But I think you are right. No life is either one or the other, but a mixture.
Quoting Fooloso4
That they're examples of the Ur-religion of the Ancient Greeks, relfected in Orphism, which was ultimately grounded in the pre-historic Indo-European mythology of the endless caravan of reincarnation and the fallen state of mortal man. Death in this context is a return to the source of life more than the ending of it all. The philosopher, being purified, being a 'good man', has nothing to fear at death because he will be 'joining the company of good men'. Philosophy is 'preparing for death' by letting go of the passions and attachments, as Socrates demonstrates by his calm demeanour.
And it couldn't have hurt that Socrates was over 70. All 'death prep' aside, I wonder how he would have taken the news at 35...
Old age should burn and rave at close of day;
Rage, rage against the dying of the light.[/quote]
I ask a wreath which will not crush my head.
And there is no hurry about it;
I shall have, doubtless, a boom after my funeral,
Seeing that long standing increases all things
regardless of quality.
Ezra Pound
Socrates does make use of mythologies as a means of persuasion, both stories of old and new ones he makes up, but this does not mean that he is persuaded by these stories. Regarding knowledge he demands logos not muthos, that is, not simply stories but the ability to give an account of what is said that can be defended against elenchus.
Quoting Wayfarer
Yes, I think that this is part of it.
I think "life as a preparation for death" is indeed the key to understanding Socrates and Plato. However, we find parallels in Egyptian culture.
The ancient Egyptians viewed death as a temporary transition into what could become everlasting life in paradise. The Egyptian outlook on death was not focused on fear as much as it was preparing and transitioning into a new prosperous afterlife.
The Egyptian Gods judged the merits of human character and deeds when deciding who was permitted to be immortal. As a result, much of human-life was centered on the hopeful attitude that if one is moral, one will live forever in a blissful afterlife. (This is somewhat comparable to Christian concepts of religion.)
So, basically, for the Egyptians – at least the wise or the initiated into wisdom traditions – life was a preparation for death. It seems to me that Greek philosophy was influenced by the Egyptian outlook. This may provide part of the explanation for the fact that the Greeks developed the philosophical system they did, whereas others whose beliefs were more similar to those of the Sumerians didn't.
The Ancient Sumerian and Egyptian Attitudes toward Death and the Afterlife
Philosophy as life-long preparation for death would be more than just about “letting go”. It would also entail the cultivation of virtues and spiritual knowledge, etc. i.e., all the elements that together constitute Platonic philosophy.
For me, reading this is both compelling and non-compelling.
Compelling: following the arguments put forward by Socrates to Simmias. Considering the purpose of philosophy. The importance of discovering what life and death is really all about. Philosophy as preparation for death. The questions of duality. Is it even possible to be a 'genuine' philosopher if it means turning away from body to soul ( or mind ) - to isolate oneself or by gathering in the company of like-minded souls only ?
I think not. However, I am not sure that that is what Socrates is saying. He qualifies everything with 'as far as possible'. Nevertheless, there is a focus on abstract concepts such as 'Beauty' compared to the experience of seeing things that are beautiful (65d)
It appears that the world is to be 'seen' by thought alone. This line drawn between sense experience and rational thought - I don't find compelling. There is an interaction.
Just as in the distinction between 'pure philosophers' who have a special knowledge of truth via the reasoning soul compared to the hoi polloi 'infected' (67a) as they are by bodily concerns or pleasures.
It seems that the 'true believers' * - the intellect having been purified (67c) - alone have access to the benefits of the hereafter:
(67c)
This all starts from the premise, the definition of death as: 'nothing but the separation of the soul from the body' (64c); 'the release and parting of the soul from body' (67d)
What is the 'soul' ?
Is it the reasoning mind alone ?
I think, if there is such a thing, it would involve the bodily senses - even if they are not always 'true' in the sense of correct.
(65c)
What are 'the things that are' or 'that which is' - things that exist ?
Concepts such as 'Beauty' don't exist by themselves, do they ?
They arise from the real world - we create such - why ? To give ourselves something to think about.
Philosophy can be just as much an impure distraction as anything else...
They arise from the real world - we create such - why ? "
This is a viewpoint that Plato is dedicated to challenge. Man is not the measure of all things. Truth is different from mere appearance. Beauty (and justice etc) do exist "by themselves" quite independently of our mere opinions. We can apprehend beauty (justice etc) by exercise of the intellect. Poetry and myth are not enough.
He believed all that and at the same time was one of the most poetic and mythically inclined philosophers of all time. Quite a contradiction.
I've long been fascinated by culture. In this case there's 2400 years of cultural change that stands between us and Plato.
I always wonder to what extent I can put down the lens of my own worldview and see through the eyes of someone like Plato.
If you analyze what I just said, you'll see traces of what Plato has Socrates say here.
Instead of saying that sinful flesh stands in my way, I say my worldview distorts the truth.
Compare this to Kant: that there is no knowable truth beyond what I couch in the language of time and space.
Does pure thought reveal to us that there is an unexplored landscape right in front of us? What do you say?
In the Phaedo Socrates is silent about the first possibility. He wishes to leave his friends with a message of hope, but if death is nothingness then despite the attempt to portray the end of his life as a comedy it is a tragedy. The practice of dying and being dead cannot be the practice of nothingness. That practice must take into account both possibilities. If there are rewards and punishments, one must live a just life and be rewarded rather than punished. And if there is nothing after life then one should live life for its own rewards rather than live in expectation of what may never be. Here too it is the practice of justice, for the just soul according to the Republic is the healthy soul, in proper harmony with itself.
If we heed the words of Parmenides that “out of nothing comes nothing”, then if a dead person is nothing and out of nothing comes nothing, there can be no rebirth.
But a problem that must be faced in the Phaedo is fear of death. One has it within their power to live in such a way as to avoid fear of punishment for wrongdoing in death. What about the fear of nothingness? Here the practice may involve meditation along the lines of Epictetus:
Simmias laughs at Socrates claim that philosophy is the practice of dying and being dead:
The only good philosopher is a dead philosopher.
Socrates defines death:
Simmias agrees with Socrates’ claim, but we should not be so quick to agree. The question of the soul is the very thing that will be the focus of the discussion. Death may simply be, as Socrates said in the Apology, annihilation. The idea of the soul itself by itself will be questioned.
Socrates then proceeds to make an argument for asceticism:
It is not Socrates who thinks this, it is the opinion of most human beings. So what is the opinion of Socrates who is quite literally headed for death? We are provided with a piece of evidence near the beginning: Xantippe is there with his little boy (60a). A seventy year old man with a young son is hardly a man who eschews the pleasure of sex.
Socrates asks:
Socrates now introduces his “Socratic Trinity”, the Just, the Beautiful, and the Good. (65d) But he says nothing of them, and for very good reason:
This is at odds with the Republic and the story of knowledge of the Forms. But of course those philosophers who had knowledge of "the Forms themselves by themselves" only existed in a city made in speech. A city that is the soul writ large. An image of the soul found in an image of the city. A fine example of Plato’s poesis.
Now if the soul is reborn this is not a problem. In fact, it is an essential part of the myth of anamnesis, that is, knowledge through recollection. But if death is the end then knowledge of such things is not possible.
And if these things are not true then rather than great hope there is a danger of a loss of hope. Knowledge of the just, the beautiful, and the good hang on the fate of the soul.
What even Plato may not know is that something amazing is dying with Socrates. Athens is never going to be the same after its recent defeat at the hands of the Spartans. This defeat precipitated his trial.
One can imagine that just as Genesis is made of pre-Bronze Age images, maybe the waves of settlers along the Aegean who became the Greeks also held onto versions of the old stories. Those stories would have been as old to Socrates as Socrates is to us.
Those stories are about immortality.
Quoting Amity
I agree.
Quoting Amity
Some readers are all too quick to reject. We need 'as far as possible' to figure out what he means. This often requires going beyond isolated statements. I think it is a good practice when you come across something questionable to note it, postpone judgment, keep in mind the circumstances, and see how things develop. With the dialogues it is always important to look not only at what is said but at what is done.
Quoting Amity
Socrates' many qualifications are important. How far is it possible to turn away from the body? The qualification 'it seems' and its variations are frequent.
Quoting Amity
The Forms differ from the things of experience but they are not abstract concepts or objects of the mind. They are said to be "things themselves by themselves". This formulation is used with regard to the soul. What this means will be discussed.
Quoting Amity
Good question.Socrates gets Simmias to agree before they even raise the question.
Quoting Amity
In that case the soul would not endure separate from the body.
Quoting Amity
The Forms.
Quoting Amity
Concepts do not exist by themselves. They require thought or mind. But Beauty is not a concept. It's existence is independent of the mind. Things are beautiful to the extent they are images of Beauty itself.
Quoting Amity
In the Symposium Socrates says that the love of wisdom is eros, desire. Philosophy then cannot be freedom from desire if it is motivated by desire.
A paradox rather than a contradiction, perhaps. A paradox arises when the same thing is seen from different perspectives, and thus is different to a contradiction, although due to the difficulties in the subject matter, it might be difficult to differentiate them.
Quoting Amity
I think the key word is 'nous' -
[quote=Wikipedia; https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nous#Plato]Nous sometimes equated to intellect or intelligence, is a term from classical philosophy for the faculty of the human mind necessary for understanding what is true or real.[/quote]
So it's a faculty rather more specific than is described by the general term 'thought'.
“nous” is the contracted form of “noos” which is also used in the sense of “heart” or “soul”, i.e. that part of the self that uses a more direct or intuitive form of perception or understanding.
A useful way to look at it is:
1. eikasia or “imagination”, “image forming” related to sense perception.
2. pistis or “belief”, related to the things we perceive or imagine.
3. dianoia or “thinking”, apprehending by means of thought processes.
4. noesis or “intuition”, understanding, wisdom.
Obviously, these levels of knowledge are more or less fluid forms/functions of mind or consciousness, they are not tight compartments.
The individual nous is in turn illumined by the Cosmic Nous or Divine Mind. So, there is a continuum extending from Ultimate Reality all the way down to the lowest levels of experience or existence.
Correct.
Amity is right. The passage under discussion is not about noesis but rather dianoia, thought or reason.
The Phaedo tells a different story than the Republic.It is certainly useful to compare the dialogues, but what is said in one cannot be substituted for what is said in another. Each must be read on its own as a whole. It is not explicated in the Phaedo because it is not there. As Socrates said, quoted above:
In which of the dialogues does Plato say this?
Quoting Fooloso4
In Phaedro 97-98, the discussion of the books of Anaxagoras, where Socrates criticises Anaxagoras for assigning causes such as ‘air and aether and water and many other absurdities’, contrasting this with the ‘real causes’ which is ‘the real good’ that always ensures that things are in accordance with the good. He uses the simile of physical causes as being like the ‘bones and sinews’, which, of course, Socrates cannot act without, but at the same time, saying that the reason he’s in jail and not escaped to some other province has nothing to do with bones and sinews, but the requirement that he observes the law. Although I don’t discern there any equivalent expression to ‘cosmic law’ or ‘divine mind’, the presumption is still that things are guided by intelligence, not by merely material causes.
Yes, especially in the contrast with the "bodily" perceptions, ??????? is used.
As a matter of expression in Greek, the use of "???" to nous and logos are not far away from the nouns and verbs by themselves.
Once again, according to the dialogue knowledge of the good can only be attained in death if at all.
Noesis is not reasoning. It is direct apprehension.
Quoting Wayfarer
Right, but that is very different from what Apollodorus is claiming. I will have more to say about this section when I get there.
Right. The prefix "???" here means by or through, thus dianoia (???????)/i] through thought and [i]dialectic through speech.
Quoting Phaedo 64b
I take this to mean that knowledge that is only ‘attained in death if at all’ is not thereby shoved off into an unknowable never-never, although it might seem like that to us. Bearing in mind the later arguments about the fate of the soul and of philosophers and ‘good men’, I think the argument is being made that the philosopher can discern the Good by power of reason as is argued in [url= http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0170%3Atext%3DPhaedo%3Asection%3D79d ]79a-d.
The thread I provided a link to suggests that our frustrations with what we are (immaterial souls/physical bodies) will automatically lead us to desire/wish to become that we are not. So, if we really are incorporeal souls, we would yearn to be physical bodies and if we're infact physical beings, we would be desperate to be nonphysical souls. Thus, the argument is, since we're all, in a sense, "dying" to be nonphysical souls, it follows, doesn't it?, that we're in fact physical beings.
Some may respond that we could've been souls before birth in physical form and were greatly dissatified to be so and opted for life on a physical plane. The problem is, why don't we have memories of making such a decision?
[quote=Wikipedia]Persons of such a constitution [those who favor the body] will be dragged back into corporeal life, according to Socrates...they [those who favor the body] will be unable to enjoy the singular existence of the soul in death because of their constant craving for the body. These souls are finally imprisoned in another body [/quote]
Yes. I am trying to keep in mind that Plato is the one who wrote this dialogue even as he draws attention to the fact that he wasn't there, apparently due to illness. He has Phaedo narrate the events as he recalls them.
Interesting that there is a reliance on someone's memory for the 'truth', or is it a myth (both ?) of what happened. Also, that Plato in choice of content and method brings his own 'worldview', including bias. The danger is recognised that it might not always coincide with that of the historical Socrates.
Quoting frank
Indeed, the way we view the world is coloured by our knowledge, experience and beliefs.
Quoting frank
There is more than one worldview or perspective. Even within a single person, there are tensions and conflict. Changes throughout our lives can alter our perspectives, or not.
My intention in this thread was to concentrate only on the particular sections as we proceed through the Phaedo. Also, of course, to listen to other points of view; some might call this 'mere opinion'. Interesting to read other interpretations...
Dialogue is as important here as it was to Plato and Socrates.
Quoting frank
I don't know what you mean by 'pure thought'. How do you understand it as it pertains to this section of the text ?
That is a quote I can relate to.
Quoting Fooloso4
:smile: Am I speaking to a ghost ?
Quoting Fooloso4
So, Plato in giving us an understanding of who Socrates was, gives several versions of what he actually thinks ? Talk about getting to the 'truth'... :roll:
Quoting Fooloso4
Ideas of the soul - of afterlife - of life and death - all 'images' or 'imagination' or mere speculation as in a story...?
Quoting Fooloso4
Yes, it comes back to the story of hope that Socrates is giving to his audience. Does he actually believe what he is saying, or is it simply a matter of consolation...
If Socrates wants to inspire and for philosophy to continue, then he must offer hope in the very act of practising philosophy.
Understood.
I can postpone final judgement but not at the time of my reading and questioning.
I assess as I go...
This dialogue continues to intrigue and challenge me as I try to focus only on a particular section of text.Quoting Fooloso4
Thanks for clarification. Look forward to seeing what 'things themselves by themselves' actually means.
Quoting Fooloso4
Correct.
Quoting Fooloso4
OK. I still don't understand this...I will wait...
Quoting Fooloso4
Indeed, I think the importance lies in the quantity and quality of desire.
Philosophy as a human enterprise can be as 'infected' by distractions or obsessions as much as the body. At death, desire is lost.
I guess, even if you believe in an afterlife...depending on what you think has been promised by 'being good' or temperate, it will have been satisfied.
Right now, I am only reading this particular English translation.
That there are more ways of interpreting and understanding I have no doubt.
Informative to read the responses by:
@Fooloso4 https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535610
@Valentinus https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535632
@Fooloso4 https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535646
Egyptian influence on early Minoan art is generally accepted. But there are also some interesting parallels between the Egyptian cult of the Mother Goddess and similar developments in Minoan culture. Obviously, Crete was just across the sea and there were trade and cultural links between the Minoans and the Egyptians.
Similar links also later developed between the Greek mainland and Egypt, with extensive Egyptian influence on Greek art in the 7th century BC. And then we have literary accounts of Pythagoras going to Egypt in search of secret knowledge which he apparently obtained from Egyptian temple priests.
“[Pythagoras] was also initiated into all the mysteries of Byblos and Tyre, and in the sacred function performed in many parts of Syria […] After gaining all he could from the Phoenician mysteries, he found that they had originated from the sacred rites of Egypt […] This led him to hope that in Egypt itself he might find monuments of erudition still more genuine, beautiful and divine. Therefore following the advice of his teacher Thales, he left, as soon as possible, through the agency of some Egyptian sailors […] and at length happily landed on the Egyptian coast […] Here in Egypt he frequented all the temples with the greatest diligence, and most studious research […] After twelve years, about the fifty-sixth year of his age, he returned to Samos …” - Iamblichus’ Life of Pythagoras
How is that "very different"? As I said before, Plato is best interpreted in the Platonic tradition of Plotinus and others. If you choose a different standpoint then it might help to let us know what it is.
Yes, we will have to look a those arguments and whether they succeed or fail. This is why I ended my last reading this way:
Quoting Fooloso4
In the Second Letter Plato says that the Socrates of the dialogues is made "young and beautiful", which can also be translated as "new and noble".
Quoting Amity
Reading and thinking along we become involved in speculation, but Plato provides the images and stories.
Quoting Amity
Before deciding whether we think he believes what he is saying, we have to figure out what it is he is saying. There may be more to it than at first appears.
Quoting Amity
Yes! He will have much more to say about this.
The irony is that on the one hand the desire will be fulfilled, one will be able to see the truth unencumbered by the body. On the other, if philosophy is the desire for wisdom rather than its possession there would be no philosophizing in Hades.
Platonism is an impediment to understanding Plato. You end up attributing things to Plato that are nowhere to be found in the dialogues.
Quoting Apollodorus
It is not a matter of a standpoint but of letting the dialogues stand on their own. In the Phaedrus Socrates says about a written composition:
The dialogue should be read as a whole, with each part having a function within that whole.
If you want to read Plotinus you would do well to read Plato, but not the other way around.
Not necessarily. What kind of things might that be? Wouldn't an anti-Platonic approach also lead to misattributions or misinterpretations and perhaps even more so?
Philosophical systems do evolve over time. However, Platonism is generally consistent with Plato's writings, that's why it's called Platonism, and it does help in understanding uncertain or ambiguous points. Obviously, concepts that are unambiguous and crystal clear need no reference to external sources. But where this is not the case, it can do no harm to see what other Platonic writers have to say.
As I said in my previous post, it may even be helpful to refer to the wider cultural context, including non-Greek (e.g. Egyptian) influence, to better understand the worldview of Ancient Greek philosophers.
You are confusing terminology. Platonism and Platonic are not the same. "Anti-Platonic" would presumably mean against Plato. The result may well be misattributions or misinterpretations.
Quoting Apollodorus
The dialogues are not a philosophical system and do not evolve. How the dialogues are read and interpreted change over time. The reliability of any of those interpretations can only be evaluated in light of the dialogues themselves.
Quoting Apollodorus
This is simply wrong. It is called Platonism because it was influenced by Plato. It is not consistent with his writings. Nowhere in Plato do we find your assertion about the individual mind being illumined by the cosmic or divine Mind and the rest.
In this case, there's a relatively profound change in worldview.
We can try to put ourselves there. Note that the Greeks did move between realism and idealism much the same way we do, but even the most materialistic people of his day still allowed divinity of some kind.
Quoting Amity
And it may be that I need to cut out. Images from Phaedo have gone deep into my thoughts since I first read it.
So I'm like, when are you guys going to relate Wittgenstein to what he's saying about the transcendent vantage point?
Maybe later.
What kind of images ?
When did you first read it?
What was your worldview then related to philosophy, religion...? What is it now ?
Quoting frank
We could. How would you do that relative to the Phaedo?
Other than do a heap of research, we can read and discuss the text as a glimpse of a certain worldview as seen and portrayed by Plato.
Quoting frank
Why would you think that ? Is it too difficult to read again with a fresh pair of eyes?
Perhaps you know enough already and wish to explore further.
Clearly, we are all at different levels of understanding. Some might be frustrated at content, interpretation and the process. So be it.
As far as I am aware, the purpose of the thread is to read and discuss Plato's Phaedo.
Quoting frank
So, I'm like, when are you going to realise what @Fooloso4 is attempting to do here ?
I note you ask questions of me but haven't answered mine:
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535717
Quoting Amity
I think that was a fuck-off. Fair enough.
Quoting Amity
Ask Fooloso4.
If I had meant to say, "Fuck off", I would have. You wouldn't have to think about it.
Your interpretation of my post as such, combined with an unwillingness to answer questions is telling. I'll end it here. For now.
I would like for you to stick around. This tread was started in part because of things you said about Plato and the soul.
Quoting frank
That, it seems to me, would be a good reason to read it again. I find that every time I read the dialogues I find something new and different. Certainly I do not the Phaedo now the same way I did when I first read it.
I agree. That was behind my questions re @frank 's deep ( ? ingrained ) images and any changing worldview.
Quoting Fooloso4
It is the same for me, with any book or film there is always something I missed first time round.
However, some may have fixed views on what the text means.
Responses can be ready-made. Re-heat in microwave for 3 minutes.
I am re-reading it. I've read it many times.
Did I misunderstand you when you said you "need to cut out".
Uh, carry on. :cool:
Plato and his disciples didn’t call themselves “Platonists” or their system “Platonism” so the designation is irrelevant. What matters is that this was a living tradition that was transmitted orally from master to disciple for centuries after Plato. Its representatives didn’t think they were just “influenced” by Plato, they believed and had reasons to believe that they followed Plato in all his main teachings.
It is clear from Plato’s writings that he believed in an eternal “Good” which is the source of all ideas, both in the higher world of realities and in the lower world of appearances. The immortal aspect of man, soul or spirit, is obviously connected with the Good, that’s why the philosopher can ascend or reascend to the Good.
Plotinus and others identified the Good with the One, etc. which they had every right to do. That doesn’t mean that they “misinterpreted” Plato or that they made things up just for the sake of it.
That makes the whole discussion kind of pointless, doesn't it? What happens if following the closure of the discussion you decide to find "new and different things" in the texts?
And yet that was the designation you used.
Quoting Apollodorus
That may be what matters to you. What matters to me is the dialogues themselves. I have no interest a Platonist cult.
Quoting Apollodorus
Well, if what you claimed is an example of following his main teachings then they thought wrong.
Quoting Apollodorus
In the Seventh Letter Plato says:
It does not make it pointless. It simply means that there is more there then I have seen. It is not a matter of "deciding" to find something new and different things. If they are there to be found I consider myself fortunate to have found them and revise my interpretation accordingly.
That's precisely why I pointed out that in the Greek philosophical tradition, teachings were transmitted orally.
Even if there is no "treatise" by Plato, certain core teachings must be acknowledged and they have been acknowledged, both by Platonic philosophers like Plotinus and by modern scholars. If you don't acknowledge that, then you might as well throw the book out of the window and forget the discussion.
On the other hand and as I said before, if you do want to have a discussion of Plato then it would be helpful to state what you think Plato's core teaching are or are not, and then adduce evidence for or against as the case may be. This would be a sensible procedure IMO.
Oh. really. You said:
Quoting Apollodorus
It cannot clear from his writings if he did not write what he actually thought about such things.
Has an oral tradition ever been authenticated?
Quoting Apollodorus
The core teaching of Plato is not in the form of a doctrine. He teaches those who are thoughtful and perspicacious enough how to philosophize. To the careful reader he does not provide answers, although there are plenty of things he says that can be latched onto as answers. This dynamic plays out in the dialogue, as we shall see.
Quoting Apollodorus
I am not going to allow you to dictate how I will proceed in this thread. I will follow Plato's lead, attending to what is said and done in the the dialogue in the order it occurs. It is only once we have seen the whole that we can see how everything fits together, with each part serving its purpose.
Socrates demystifies “mystic rites”, “genuine hidden meaning”, “mysteries”, and “purification”. (69c-d) The practice of dying and being dead turns out to be the practice of a life of moderation and justice and courage.
Cebes breaks in:
Cebes hopefulness amounts to saying that if what Socrates says, that the soul is somewhere herself by herself, is true then is true. Cebes states it in such a way that the latter follows as a conclusion from the former, but both state the same thing.
Socrates responds:
Socrates proposes telling a more thorough story in order to see if the stories he has told are likely or not. He shifts from Cebes ‘true’ to ‘likely’. He proposes to “investigate it in some such was as this”. (70c)
But, of course, some other argument is needed. The living come from the living. The argument that life comes from death requires a soul that does not come to be or die. Now perhaps a soul separate from the senses, a priori, might think that the living come from the dead, but our experience informs us that we are born of living parents.
Socrates now shifts from living things to beauty and ugly, just and unjust, larger and smaller. It should be noted that he mentions justice and beauty but not the good. According to the argument, doing good would result in doing bad. (70e)
In the Republic Socrates says that the Good: "provides the truth to the things known and gives the power to the one who knows". It is "the cause of the knowledge and truth". Further, "existence and being" are the result of the Good. (508e - 509b)
The argument from opposites concludes with the claim that this movement must be circular:
Perhaps Cebes is persuaded by this, but it assumes what is still to be proven, the continuation of the soul in death, and ignores the obvious fact of generation of life from the living.
Two points to be noted here. Socrates just went through this long argument from opposites, how life comes from death, but if the soul is deathless then it could not come to be or become again from its opposite.
Second, note the qualification: “if it is true”. Simmias does not share Cebes enthusiasm. He does not place his hope in the possibility that it might be true. He wants to be reminded of the demonstrations that it is true. There is a play here between recollection and remembering.
He is referring to the demonstration in the Meno where a slave without any education is able to solve a complex geometric problem. Cebes mentions but seems to fail to recognize the importance of Socrates’ “well put” questions. Without them the slave would have never “recollected” the solution. The irony here should not go unnoticed. An overarching question of the dialogue is about teaching and learning. Socrates teaches him how to solve the problem and yet claims it was recollection. This is not the place to get into it, but the difference between Meno’s problem, teaching virtue to someone like Meno who is lacking in virtue and teaching someone geometry is very different. There is a sense in which virtue must already be in the soul if one is ever to be virtuous, but it is not evident that the same holds for mathematical knowledge.
Socrates breaks in:
He goes on to give an example of recollection:
There seems to be no distinction here between recollection and being reminded of something. In the example given recollection is independent of stories of death. Socrates now shifts from things perceived to “the equal itself”. (74a).
It is through the combination of sense and thought that we perceive that things are equal. That this is either based on or leads to recollection of “the equal itself” is questionable.
All that is necessary to see how implausible this is is to consider how we learned what it means for things to be equal. But Socrates’ concern is not simply with the equal:
Can the earlier argument for opposites be reconciled with “the beautiful itself”, “the good itself”, and “the just itself”? What each is itself does not allow for its opposite.
As Socrates wraps up this argument we should not overlook a difficulty that is introduced but only developed later:
The problem is that “the beautiful itself”, “the good itself”, and “the just itself” are each one and distinct from things we call beautiful, good, and just. If the soul is in the same way they are then “the soul itself” exists, and my soul and your soul are like the things that are beautiful, good, and just, things that admit of their opposite. Things that come to be and pass away.
You can proceed any way you wish. I don't care and I'm not stopping you. I'm simply pointing out that there are major inconsistencies in your statements.
Like all other philosophers, Plato naturally preferred to convey his teachings orally, from master to disciple as had always been the practice. Hence he was reportedly reluctant to write down anything. Whatever he did write down is obviously incomplete and ambiguous and may be interpreted in many different ways.
There is, however, a scholarly consensus as to the core teachings that can be extracted from the available texts. You seem to deny both the scholarly consensus and the Platonic tradition itself.
If your claim that "He teaches those who are thoughtful and perspicacious enough how to philosophize. To the careful reader he does not provide answers, although there are plenty of things he says that can be latched onto as answers", then you can read into the dialogues anything you like and you don't need a discussion.
Since you have already decided to reject both the Platonic tradition and the scholarly consensus, the conclusions cannot be anything but your personal opinion, in which case you might as well state from the beginning what that opinion is.
Quoting Apollodorus
I must intervene here because quite simply you are spoiling the thread with your focus on @Fooloso4.
It is not the case that the discussion is pointless. Perhaps it is to you but not to me, or anyone else who simply wants to read Plato's Phaedo.
Even if there is a degree of scholarly consensus, that is beside the point as far as I am concerned.
I am here to read and think for myself first and foremost. Then to write and exchange thoughts about the extract in question.
As mentioned previously, I had wanted to do this without recourse to secondary sources.
A change for me.
However, given the turn of events, I looked up one of the SEP entries concerning Plato.
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/plato/
Quoting SEP article on Plato
[my bolds]
Quoting Fooloso4
@Fooloso4 has patiently explained his approach a few times now.
It works for me and, hopefully, for others reading along.
Please respect the spirit, allow a 'thinking for ourselves' without any further side-tracking, thanks.
We know nothing of his oral teachings. I asked you to provide authentication of any oral teaching. You could not.
Quoting Apollodorus
I deny that there is a scholarly consensus. The fact that you think there is shows that you really do not know what is going on today.
There has been an important reappraisal in the way the dialogues are read. Influential figures are Jacob Klein and Leo Strauss, and his students including Alan Bloom, Stanley Rosen, Thomas Pangle, and Seth Benardete, and their students, including Charles Griswold, Rhonna Burger, David Roochnik, Laurence Lampert , and many others.
Quoting Apollodorus
It is evident that you have not been reading what I have written and have not checked it against the text. You have not made even one specific textual comment on anything I have said. Show me where what I have said cannot be confirmed by the text. I asked you to provide textual evidence for your claim but you have not been able to. Instead of point to Plato's texts you cast about elsewhere.
Thank you.
Many Platonists today look to Plato for religious and quasi-religious answers,often of the Christian variety.
Indeed, Apollodorus comments on the proceedings are unhelpful and unwelcome.
This pleases me immensely; A consensus would make this thread mere scholasticism.
That's Aristotle, not Plato...
I think part of the attraction to Plato is the lack of interpretative consensus. Each year, after all this time, hundreds of books and articles are published on Plato. One would think that if a consensus existed none of that would be necessary.
An interesting wedge...
I have long found the discussion of recollection unconvincing; but this shows how it might have seemed plausible to our Greek companions.
Of course.
There is an obvious methodological error in
Quoting Apollodorus
I am not surprised to see this in Apollodorus, having observed a habit of first forming a conclusion and then looking for the arguments that might support it.
Of course I have. I said:
"The individual nous is in turn illumined by the Cosmic Nous or Divine Mind. So, there is a continuum extending from Ultimate Reality all the way down to the lowest levels of experience or existence"
To which you said:
"In which of the dialogues does Plato say this?"
Wayfarer already answered that. It isn't my fault that you don't read other people's posts. But here is the text from The Republic 509D-513E if you insist:
"And this is he whom I call the child of the good, whom the good begat in his own likeness, to be in the visible world, in relation to sight and the things of sight, what the good is in the intellectual world in relation to mind and the things of mind [...]
And the soul is like the eye: when resting upon that on which truth and being shine, the soul perceives and understands and is radiant with intelligence; but when turned towards the twilight of becoming and perishing, then she has opinion only, and goes blinking about, and is first of one opinion and then of another, and seems to have no intelligence [...]
You would say, would you not, that the sun is not only the author of visibility in all visible things, but of generation and nourishment and growth, though he himself is not generation?[...]
In like manner the good may be said to be not only the author of knowledge to all things known, but of their being and essence, and yet the good is not essence, but far exceeds essence in dignity and power."
After which he introduces the line that divides the phenomenal from the noumenal or the physical from the spiritual as I pointed out in my earlier post which you also chose to ignore.
What the text is saying is that above the phenomenal world or world of appearances is the intelligible or noumenal world which is illumined by the Good (ton Agathon). The Good is also the source of all ideas that constitute the intelligible world, copies of which make up the phenomenal world. In other words, the whole of existence, including soul, originates in the Good and is bathed in its light just as the physical world is bathed in the light of the sun.
Very simple, really. I don't know on what basis you are denying it. You may have a reason but you refuse to tell us what it is.
@Apollodorus?
Your objections having been duly noted, please allow the thread to continue without obtrusive interjection.
Gotta love a cliffhanger...
Yeah, you are. I'd like a clear run at the dialogue; your interjections detract from that for me. It seems I am not the only one who thinks so. By all means, start another thread, or wait until we complete the reading; but this is a thread specifically set up to work through the text under @Fooloso4's tutelage.
Let it be.
Quoting Apollodorus
Obviously disingenuous, since you continue to post.
For Plato, and others, there is a something more... a reification fo the use of "equal"; making it a thing and necessitating that being able to use the word requires familiarity with that thing.
I hadn't appreciated the similarities between Plato's recollections and, say, Kant's synthetic a priori.
SO we have here the beginnings of a tradition that runs right through to Chomsky's universal grammar.
The same occurred to me but decided not to give him something else to turn into an extended rant about Marxism and liberals.
Not arguing with you here, just asking, if you were to teach a child the use of of "equal", how would you do that?
Would you show them two equal sized objects? Something like that? Hope that they get it and are able to abstract from what you show them?
Endpoint being: inquiry may involve examples. An example is not a reification of anything.
Then we could talk about Meno's Paradox, when Fooloso4 is ready.
"The same" rather than "equal"... the process would be one of drawing attention to what is the same - both are red; despite their being quite different shapes. Both are heavy, despite being made of very different things. So the process is not recollection, but recognising and copying a pattern in the use of a word.
Actually I read it. And I responded. It is your fault for not reading other people's posts.
Quoting Apollodorus
This does not support your claim of a Cosmic Mind
Oooo I can't resist...
If one assumes a cosmic mind, anything might count as evidence for it.
I would throw in some sex but Socrates already said the philosopher has not interest. Although, as I mentioned, at seventy years old he had a young son.
I thought you were teaching them "equal"
I guess I'm just wondering why you changed it from equal to same.
I will be addressing his eagerness to agree in my next section. As I see it, it has little or nothing to do with the strength of the argument.
SO force of habit.
In my opinion, which is certainly not original, the Forms are themselves images rather than, as he says, what things are images of. But that is a discussion for another time.
Oh, I see. Previous understanding. :naughty:
But yeah, that's why I was asking, I know you're a teacher and we're talking about inquiry.
I will acknowledge that I have been much influenced by Christian Platonism, in the context of which Socrates and Plato have been described as ‘Christian before Christ’. But as I’ve also been influenced by Indic philosophical teachings, I’m aware of overtones of non-dualism that can sometimes can be discerned (Thomas McEviilly's book The Shape of Ancient Thought is a rich source of insight into those). But in either case, I don’t see those influences as necessarily in invidious. In fact, I think there's a kind of 'anti-Christian' bias that is often at play - the wish to deny the religious or metaphysical dimension in the dialogues so as to project the kind of Plato that is more harmonious with this secular age. (What did he really mean by 'soul'?)
That said, I too am dubious of injecting phrases such as 'cosmic mind' into the discussion or the interpretation. But on the other hand, as I've already stated, I think that the Greek term 'nous' has to be considered throughout, as it has nuances which are completely foreign to the modern use of 'intellect'.
Edit: Wayfarer avoided answering... @Fooloso4?
Christianity could have been all sorts of things It's Platonic because it has Plato stuck in one of its central columns.
To place Phaedo in the context of religion vs science isn't helpful. Idealism vs realism, yes.
This is a digression, but I’m very interested in the later conception of ‘the rational soul’. Very briefly - just as the Ideas of things are their real essence, so the capacity of the mind to grasp the ideas is its higher aspect. The bodily senses receive the physical shape, but nous perceives the Idea or the principle, immediately through intellectual apprehension, not through the intermediary of sense. This became much more developed in the scholastic hylomorphism of Aquinas and others, but the seeds of the idea are visible going back to the Parmenides. It is this conception of the rationality of nous that distinguishes the Western philosophical tradition most strongly from the Asiatic (as Russell remarks in his chapter on Pythagoras.)
As I said, a digression or perhaps a footnote, but I really don’t want to sidetrack this thread and henceforth will try and confine my comments to the specific passages under consideration.
The following from my last posted reading:
Quoting Fooloso4
I think this is anachronistic.
Why do you say that? Democritus was his elder.
I don't agree that his intent is to demystify. Typical modernist secular analysis, making Plato safe for the secular academy. (We find exact parallels in the 'naturalisation of Buddhism' which likewise attempts to strip the entire tradition of any suggestion of a life beyond.)
All of the following arguments - the argument from opposites, the cyclical argument, the affinity argument - are arguments for the immortality of the soul.
Which, as I say, is the template for the development of hylomorphic dualism, notwithstanding Aristotle's revision of the nature of the Forms.
So, the rationale for a life of moderation, justice and courage, is so as to act in accordance with the Good. As has already been stated on the section on death, the philosopher has less reason to fear death, because he will find himself in 'the company of good men'. Added to which, the soul is most likely to attain knowledge when apart from the body:
Quoting Phaedro 65c
Demystify that!
Yes, it's ontological idealism.
It was 2400 years ago. Cut him some slack.
Yep, hence the absurdity of applying terms invented in the interim. Like calling a shield a type of anti-missile defence, it's too easy. It's anachronistic.
Is there some impending confusion we're trying to avoid?
Let's read the case.
Ok. The SEP says he was an idealist. Let's see if they got it wrong.
Where? Not in the article on Plato. The idealism article claims him, but with reservations.
Detail.
In the Idealism article.
My point was that his views can be contrasted to those of contemporary materialists like Democritus.
If you don't want to call it idealism when you're considering that contrast, that's fine. Call it what you like.
I think it’s better described as objective idealism. That is, Ideas or Forms are real, in that they’re not dependent on your or my mind, but they’re only graspable by a rational intelligence. Consider Pythagoras’ theorem as a paradigmatic example. (In my view, it's the mainstream tradition of Western philosophy.)
That works.
Here are the quoted terms from 69c-d in context and bolded, starting with what I quoted above with a break in the paragraph. It is one paragraph though without a break.
The purification is as he identifies it, moderation and justice and courage and thoughtfulness.
In due time.
Quoting Wayfarer
Socrates has done it for me, but I do not want to get ahead of myself.
Neither term existed then.
That release on the last day of his life is important. The inclusion of Xanthippe gives sharp relief to her charge that one last party is planned with his friends. The friends' concern about the subject of death is mixed up with the realization that they won't have Socrates to animate them any longer.
Pardon the lateness of my reply. I am working in meatspace presently so I will participate in a delayed fashion.
I'm trying to understand why that's significant to you. No one called Plotinus an early Neoplatonist at the time. We call him that for our own convenience. Is there a danger of confusion there? Maybe, but the convenience has proven more significant.
Plato's views are called idealism by professionals. So I'm just curious more than anything. Why the objection?
The article continues:
"Although we have just referred to Plato, the term “idealism” became the name for a whole family of positions in philosophy only in the course of the eighteenth century."
It really isn't. Look into it.
Why call it idealism at all? Is everything that is grasped by a rational intelligence a form of idealism? Is mathematics a form of idealism?
Yes. I'm going to just note that your objection comes with no support understandable to me and move on.
In regards to the Enneads by Plotinus, that book is an ordering of reality in relationship to the One. It is a system that attempts to be consistent to itself. The semantics and concern are much different than the character of Plato's Dialogues where the conversation goes where it goes.
It is this kind of purification that is needed for those who arrive in Hades.
I'm aware of that. I probably should have used Gnosticism as an example of the freedom we give ourselves in baptizing ideologies.
What?
As a general interpretive principle I think it best to minimize the use of anachronistic terminology.
Sure.
Quoting Janus
Better if you tell me why 'neoplatonism' is not a more specific term than 'objective idealism', not to mention 'idealism'. If 'objective Idealism' is a specific term then it refers to Hegel's philosophy; if it is used to refer to Plato's (completely different) range of ideas as found in the dialogues, then the term has lost its specificity. Is there controversy about what the term 'neoplatonism' refers to?
No controversy. The term picks out philosophers over a 1200 year span and multiple cultural settings.
There are different schools of thought. There are also many scholars who avoid the use of anachronistic terminology. The idea is, to the extent it is possible, to understand an author on his own terms using his own terminology.
Mathematical Platonism is, and it’s strongly rejected by many modern philosophers on those very grounds. I agree that Plato would of course not have used the term ‘idealism’, but practically all synoptic accounts of Western philosophy trace what later becomes ‘idealism’ back to Plato’s theory of Ideas, for reasons that ought to be pretty obvious.
//edit @Janus - as to the matter of classifying types, Hegel’s is generally classified as absolute idealism. Strangely enough, if you do a random search on ‘objective idealism’, one of the first name that comes up is C S Pierce. However that is again another issue - a ‘meta-philosophical’ one, you might say.
Do you want to continue this here or start a different thread?
Yep.
It really is that simple.
I don't deny that Plato's philosophy could, with a bit of judicious massaging, be understood as a form of objective idealism, but I think the term is correctly applied to monistic thinkers who reject any kind of transcendence, or noumenon, which Plato's philosophy (and Kant's, which Hegel was explicitly working against) does not.
I think @Fooloso4 is right to reject the use of what can only be considered anachronistic, unnecessary and unhelpful terminology. Trying to equate Plato's philosophy with neoplatonism would be no different than trying to understand Kant in terms of neokantianism, that is it would be bound to mislead.
Your reply is most welcome - indeed any considered replies and comments about the text are - no matter when they arrive on the scene.
The themes of pain/pleasure - chains/release - body/soul - fear/desire - bad/good continue throughout. *
From the OP:
Quoting Fooloso4
Later: https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/534374
Quoting Fooloso4
Right now, I am struggling to keep up with the reading, now at:
67c - 76e pp12-25 as covered by @Fooloso4 here:
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535924
* p12 67d
The weekend is here, the sun is shining, I am going out...having just finished p14.
Way to go... :cool:
I don't think anyone was "trying to equate Plato's philosophy with neoplatonism". "Neoplatonism" is a neologism anyway.
But @Fooloso4 appears to have gone in the opposite direction or extreme and made up his mind to reject everyone's reading of the dialogues except his own.
By Fooloso4's principle Neoplatonism isn't idealism either. :joke:
Whatever, let's move on.
Sure. But that raises the difficulty as to what constitutes non-anachronistic, necessary and helpful terminology. Are we going to start using Plato's own Greek terms? And how do we decide on their precise meaning when it has already been determined that the dialogues can, and maybe should, be interpreted in many different ways?
Plato's own Greek terms were often varied and indeterminate. Plato deliberately did not employ precise or just consistent meanings throughout his works or even within the same dialogue.
Why? Perhaps his philosophy was a work in progress with many problems and hypothesized solutions still open in his mind. He suggested many alternatives for discussion or debate but certainly not for fixed single-minded interpretation. Although Plato's philosophy can be partially reconstituted for a single dialogue as implied by the setting, events, and characters portrayed.
Perhaps. I think another reason was that philosophical or spiritual teachings were transmitted orally. But that doesn't eliminate the problem of terminology and meaning.
Interesting. Well worth keeping in mind. I expect there exists a Glossary somewhere which might help ? *
Quoting Apollodorus
Which translation are you reading ?
I have read English translations of e.g. original Chinese; 'The Tao Te Ching' being the most recent.
I appreciate the problem of understanding the meaning.
However, good translations of foreign texts will usually include an Introduction, Notes on the text and address problems of interpretation. They discuss other interpretations and meanings and give reasons for their own choice.
Quoting Fooloso4
If you look at the Contents page here:
Quoting Amity
The Notes run from pp 74 - 226.
For me, looking up each and every note as I read the translation stops the flow.
However, if a problem arises or when I have completed the reading, then the Notes should prove useful.
How about the translation(s) you are reading/have read ?
* found this glossary - there might be a better one elsewhere:
https://users.manchester.edu/Facstaff/SSNaragon/Ancient%20Philosophy/Glossary.htm#N
Now, can we get on with the job of reading the text ? [ Perhaps comparing translations if and when necessary] ?
That would be nice...
No one disputes that. But @Fooloso4 said he reads the dialogues differently every time he reads them and he intends to disregard meanings suggested by Platonists like Plotinus and modern scholars alike.
N.B. I was addressing your post:
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/536374
Quoting Apollodorus
Quoting Apollodorus
Still you focus on @Fooloso4.
I will leave him to address your 'concerns', misunderstandings or misrepresentations - yet again... :roll:
More distraction from actually reading the text.
Why ? Continual thread disruption needs to be addressed - possibly by the mods ?
I won't. When he deliberately alters what I have said, as he has done and elsewhere, I no longer respond. Disagreement is one thing, dishonesty another. Disagreement I address, dishonesty I call out and the conversation ends.
Good call.
I have had enough and contacted @fdrake via PM.
Also flagged posts.
If you want to join in, do your best to make it textual. That's gonna hold for everyone.
Thank you for quick response :sparkle:
I agree that going off-topic to a certain extent can be a valuable and further exploration.
However, this appears to be more a continual pattern of dishonest and disruptive behaviour, even if it seems to be, at first glance, genuine questions or concerns.
Thanks.
Cebes does not remember what went before, the cyclical claim about life and death he had agreed to. Socrates reminds them that it has been demonstrated, but is willing to go through it again. Their fears, he says, are childish. (77e) We might then wonder whether Socrates will attempt to persuade them the way one might persuade a child. And sure enough, that is exactly what Cebes asks him to do:
Cebes is too manly to admit that he is afraid of death.
There are a few things here to note. First, Socrates tells him to sing his own incantations to sing away his fears. Second, Cebes sounds like a child when he accuses Socrates of abandoning them. Third, it appears that he really does not want proofs and demonstrations but incantations to charm away his fears. I think this is why they are so ready to accept what really are weak arguments. It may be why some readers are so ready to accept them as well.
Socrates says they could search both Greece and foreign cultures to find a singer of incantations to spend their money on. In the earlier passage on purification he also abruptly talks in terms of monetary exchange, but suggests that thoughtfulness is the genuine coin for which and with which all things must be bought and sold. The incantational songs are the Greek and foreign mysteries and mythologies.
But Socrates says that they are not needed, that there is no one and no song more capable of preparing them for death than themselves by their own thoughtfulness, courage, moderation, justice, and true virtue.
At Cebes urging they return to the point they left off. Socrates uses an argument that Descartes will borrow:
Cebes agrees.
Cebes forgets about “the child inside us”. Their fear of death and turmoil at Socrates’ impending death are at odds with something that is always self-same and keeps to the same condition.
Socrates now returns to the discussion of Being, the Equal itself, the Beautiful itself, what is invariant and constant, and contrasts them with the many beautiful things and equal objects, that is, things that change. (78d-e)
Cebes agrees, no doubt he has heard Socrates talk about the Forms. But the distinction between the visible and intelligible realm in the Republic is not the same as the distinction between the visible and unseen. Obviously, not everything that is unseen is unchangeable.
In accord with this distinction Socrates divides body and soul, here and There, the senses and thoughtfulness, master and slave, divine and mortal.
I left the Greek term phronesis untranslated here. The online translation uses ‘wisdom’, Brann uses ‘thoughtfulness’. It is commonly translated as ‘practical wisdom’ or ‘prudence’. Brann’s choice is intended to distinguish phronesis from sophia, that is, wisdom and to emphasize thatphronesis, “ … in spite of its strong connotation with the heights of intellectual vision in this dialogue, refer in its most basic meaning to a thoroughly healthy state of mind - to good sense and sound judgment”.
What Socrates here calls ‘ phronesis’ is instead the state of the soul separated from the body. The condition Socrates elsewhere calls death. The attempted division does not hold. Practical wisdom is about living, the union of body and soul. The soul alone has no use for phronesis or thoughtfulness. We should recall that Socrates previously said that knowledge of things themselves, the Forms, is only possible, if possible at all, in death. Despite the high flown language, Socrates’ feet remain firmly on the ground, tethered byphronesis.
It is instructive to compare this with the divisions of the soul in the Republic. A tripartite soul undermines the argument for a unitary soul. The problem of self-rule in the Republic is not a matter of competition between the body and soul, but takes place within the soul itself and introduces an element that is absent here: thumos or spiritedness, the love of honor and recognition, loyalty, anger, defensiveness, and so on. With the split between body and soul desire, eros, is atopos, without a place. Socrates has tied it to the body, but philosophy, the love of wisdom is described in the Symposium as eros and is not a bodily desire. Is eros then an in between, between body and soul?
The assertion of separation and the unchangeable nature of soul now becomes more doubtful:
Cebes agrees. Previously he agreed that the soul is unchangeable but he has changed his unseen mind.
What happens next seems to undo what has been done. The immutable human soul can become the soul of donkeys and other animals of this sort, or wolves and falcons and hawks, or bees or wasps or ants. (82a -b)
The problem is obvious. What happens to the human soul? The soul of these animals is not a human soul. Such transformation is contrary to the claim of an immutable human soul. But Socrates does not stop there. The soul of the philosopher may enter the class of the gods (82c)
A translation is being read here, not the original text. Anyway I don't want to derail this thread any further. I don't have time to read along with the text at the moment, so I already feel somewhat like an interloper. But reading just the thread I have found very interesting.
:up:
Phaedo librivox
It varies moderately from the text being used here, but I found it useful.
The reputed last words of the Buddha were 'all compound things are subject to decay. Ardently seek your own salvation'.
Quoting Fooloso4
viz. the Indo-European myth of Sa?s?ra.
The focus you bring to what Cebes agrees to despite the inconsistencies between the particular arguments is interesting. Cebes also changes the subject when pressed beyond his willingness to just agree. His mention of "knowledge as recollection" in response to Socrates at 72a is a dodge:
It is fair enough to say that Cebes' reference to what Socrates argued for before is germane to the discussion but it is not a response to Socrates' statement in the moment.
I'd like to see what others make of the 'argument from opposites' (70c-72e).
It seems to operate on the presumption that 'the opposites' - those given include larger and smaller, weaker and stronger, faster and slower, the beatitful and the ugly, and of course the living and the dead - are intrinsic to the whole process of generation and decay. Also there's a correlative relationship, in that one gives rise to the other - what was smaller becomes larger, what is weaker becomes stronger, and so on.
There are some problems that I think are easy to see with this argument - firstly that whilst weaker and stronger are comparative - things can be weaker or stronger - being alive or dead is not a comparative, as something can't be more or less dead. So there's something of an equivocation going on. Furthermore, there's a counter-argument that the living are simply the natural descendants of other living creatures, that they've since died is immaterial to the nature of their origination. And that it's not hard to envisage that the process could come to end with complete extinction.
I'm also interested in the provenance of this type of argument. I can think of one example from the pre-socratics, and another, even more alike, from completely different culture setting roughly contemporaneous to Socrates. (Any guesses?) But I'm surprised that Cebes seems to so willingly accept the premisses of the argument without voicing any of the above kinds of objections.
I'm also intrigued by the argument that if things didn't arise from their opposites, then everything would end up dead, or asleep (like Endymion, the legendary sleeping ruler.) I've read elsewhere of a later argument, I think from Islamic philosophy, that says that if the universe was of infinite duration, then everything that could happen, being of finite duration, would already have happened.
Thanks. It is useful. Especially if suffering from eye strain.
I downloaded the 8 audio files of Jowett's translation.
Listening to the 1st one (17mins) late at night I fell asleep before the end.
I hear that is one way of absorbing material in to the subconscious - well, for language learning anyway.
For philosophy, methinks tis better to time it for daylight hours...
Then again...
Reading from beginning to end, as in a novel, is fine.
However, this text is nested and includes sets of philosophical arguments.
I need to see how everything fits in. Also to look outside the text for help.
So, I looked for an overview and found this helpful
https://iep.utm.edu/phaedo/
Outline of the Dialogue
References and Further Reading
General Commentaries
The Philosopher and Death (59c-69e)
Three Arguments for the Soul’s Immortality (69e-84b)
Objections from Simmias and Cebes, and Socrates’ Response (84c-107b)
The Myth about the Afterlife (107c-115a)
Socrates’ Death (115a-118a)
Quoting Amity
Quoting Wayfarer
Plato gets much justifiable but undeserved grief for setting up formal and informal pairs as opposites and for being illogical in their resolution. But back in antiquity Parmenidean proto-logic was a huge advance over hand waving and its details fall far short of our modern elementary logic. Much that is obvious to us was a work in progress for Plato.
Heraclitean pairs of contraries are different than strictly formal Parmenidean contradictions. Parmenidean negation and Socratic elenchus don't work for informal overlapping interacting pairs. Plato was well aware of the logical difficulties, and for the most part presents them to the reader as a challenge for better suggestions of resolution. We haven't advanced quite enough yet to fully do that. Just try a few and see.
This got me thinking about why Plato chose Cebes to be a major participant in this dialogue. I will be trying to tie some things together in an upcoming post.
Right. I pointed this out. The opposite of soul is body, which would mean that the soul comes from body.
This kind of hint should not be overlooked. Plato is well aware that the arguments will not persuade somebody who is going to go through it sufficiently. We see here that he is writing to two different audiences: those who in one way or another will benefit from hearing his “songs” and those who will not be charmed. Socrates will himself make this distinction.
Instead of another argument Socrates says:
This is Socrates’ swan song. Interlaced with all his arguments are his songs, his music.
There is something comical about Socrates’ likening himself to the swans. He is, by all descriptions, not at all like a swan in appearance.
Later Socrates will talk about his “second sailing”. For the moment I will note only a few things. There is pilot in control of the raft. It goes wherever it is takes. Short of knowledge, what is sought is the best and least refutable “human accounts”. He is fully aware that these accounts may not bring them safely to where they want to go. As an alternative he proposes “some divine account”. This safe account is one that is accepted, but does not stand up to exhaustive examination. They are stories that calm men’s fears and give them courage. Like Socrates’ prophetic swan song.
Simmas:
This is an argument that deserves closer attention, but rather than respond immediately Socrates gives Cebes a chance to voice his objection to Socrates’ argument. Cebes says that he too, like Simmias, must make use of “some sort of likeness” (87b) The making of a likeness or image, the use of the imagination, eikasia, plays an important but often overlooked role in the dialogues. The reoccurring play of images operates throughout the dialogues on many levels.
Cebes draws the likeness: the soul is to the body as a weaver is to his cloak.
Simmias’ and Cebes’ arguments have shaken the confidence of the others.
Phaedo:
Echecrates:
Simmias’ likeness of a raft in dangerous waters was prophetic. Can Socrates restore their trust in arguments? This is an issue of grave concern. Socrates suggests they should be in mourning if the argument cannot be brought back to life. (89b) Socrates makes the problem explicit:
I think that this is a remarkable demonstration of the power of Plato’s insight into human psychology.
The danger here is that they may come to believe that philosophy has failed them. Socrates is about to die because he practiced philosophy and nothing he has said has convinced them that he will be better off for having practiced it. It is because of Socrates that they came to love philosophy, but it may be that philosophy cannot do what they expect of it. They are in danger of misologic, hating what they once loved.
His 'daemon'?
One reason the role of Cebes is odd is because Plato is not there. Which is pretty strange given that we would not know Socrates without Plato.
In the first section of my reading I discussed Plato's absence. I will have a bit more to say toward the end.
We might still know of Socrates through Xenophon and Aristophanes, but although Xenophon had his admirers, including Machiavelli, he is not held in the same high esteem or enjoy the same popularity as Plato. From Xenophon we know of Socrates as a comic figure hanging from a basket in the Clouds.
As a side note, Nietzsche argued for a version of this in his doctrine of Eternal Recurrence. So, arguing for the infinity rejected by others. Also a part of rejecting what he saw as "Socratic"
Plato brings an intimacy that is special to the dialogues. A chance to be there when they were.
In the works of Plato Socrates daemon only warned him away when from doing things. One argument he made is that if death were bad he would have been warned.
Many who are taught to read philosophy are taught to pay attention only to the arguments. With Plato the setting, characters, and action are all essential elements.
I agree. This openness is a reflection of his zetetic skepticism. Knowing that he does not know he inquires. The other half of his openness may at first seem to be its opposite. The dialogues frequently end in aporia.
That is a very interesting comment. Thanks for opening up that perspective. I guess what caught my attention was the way that the interdependent nature of opposites is assumed as more or less self-evident in those passages. I wonder how or if this sense is preserved in modern philosophy and science.
Quoting Wayfarer
Socrates means Apollo, his master and god of prophecy.
The swans owe their prophetic power to Apollo. Socrates says: "I hold that I myself am a fellow-servant of the swans, consecrated to the same god ..." which would seem to indicate that his master was Apollo. But (and with Plato there is always more to it) he goes on to say: "... that I possess prophetic power from my master no less than theirs" Which indicates that it is not Apollo.
Short answer: I don't know.
How does it indicate that? To me it is clear that he means Apollo.
"Now I believe that I myself am the swans' fellow-slave and sacred to the same god, and have prophecy from my master no less than they do"
There is nothing unclear in the text.
The text includes an unnamed authority after the reference to Apollo.
The Sedley & Long version doesn't. You're using the wrong translation.
Socrates is the dedicated servant of Apollo who is his master and god of prophecy. Hence the gift of prophecy is naturally and logically from his divine master Apollo.
Yes, but especially with reference to prophecy, I think in this case the text refers to Apollo as indicated by the Sedley & Long translation.
In 85B, Socrates likens himself to the followers of Apollo but speaks for himself at the same time.
Here's another translation by Fowler that supports the Sedley & Long one:
85b] but since they are Apollo's birds, I believe they have prophetic vision, and because they have foreknowledge of the blessings in the other world they sing and rejoice on that day more than ever before. And I think that I am myself a fellow-servant of the swans; and am consecrated to the same God and have received from our master a gift of prophecy no whit inferior to theirs, and that I go out from life with as little sorrow as they. So far as this is concerned, then, speak and ask what ever questions you please, so long as the eleven of the Athenians permit.”
There is nothing unclear that I can see.
I checked a few other translations. I think I misread the one I used:
"I possess prophetic power from my master no less than theirs ..."
This means prophetic powers that are not less than theirs, that is Apollo, not from some other master.
I thought so because the Greek text doesn't have that ambiguity.
[85?] ????????? ????? ???? ?? ??????, ???? ??? ????? ??? ????????? ?????, ???????? ?? ???? ??? ?????????? ?? ?? ????? ????? ?????? ??? ????????? ??????? ??? ?????? ??????????? ? ?? ?? ????????? ?????. ??? ?? ??? ????? ??????? ????????? ?? ????? ??? ?????? ??? ????? ??? ????? ????, ??? ?? ?????? ??????? ??? ???????? ????? ???? ??? ????????, ???? ???????????? ????? ??? ???? ?????????????. ???? ?????? ?? ????? ?????? ?? ??? ??? ?????? ??? ?? ????????, ??? ?? ???????? ????? ?????? ??????.
Anyway, that clarifies it.
In the Apology:
"And now I wish to prophesy to you, O ye who have condemned me; for I am now at the time when men most do prophesy, the time just before death. (39c)
He speaks here in his own name.
There is one other comparison I simply can't help but make with regard to the early Buddhist texts:
Quoting Phaedrus 85c-d
[quote=The Simile of the Raft; https://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.022.than.html]The Blessed One said: "Suppose a man were traveling along a path. He would see a great expanse of water, with the near shore dubious & risky, the further shore secure & free from risk, but with neither a ferryboat nor a bridge going from this shore to the other. The thought would occur to him, 'Here is this great expanse of water, with the near shore dubious & risky, the further shore secure & free from risk, but with neither a ferryboat nor a bridge going from this shore to the other. What if I were to gather grass, twigs, branches, & leaves and, having bound them together to make a raft, were to cross over to safety on the other shore in dependence on the raft, making an effort with my hands & feet?' [/quote]
Very interesting. Maybe we can discuss a few other points as well, once this has come to a conclusion. (Hopefully soon.)
It would seem that no amount of deference to the gods will free Socrates of the "hatred for logos" that sees him as the corruption of youth.
Quoting Wayfarer
Re: Socrates. I step back from the whole debate about what kind of an -ist he is alleged to have been. What particular spirit led him and how - if he had any god, or religion, it was that of philosophy.
To encourage people to think for themselves in a spirited and rational manner; to base their actions on that rather than follow dead dogma.
He lived and died for that. He followed a different god from that of the status quo.
Re: Plato. From what little understanding I have - he was a brilliant writer who muddied the waters of understanding in different dialogues. Clearly, he made his name and here we are - how many words have been spilled in all the many and conflicting interpretations of his writings.
Some here have already made up their mind and follow Plato from their own 'worldview'.
That's fine. I don't care. Some want to move on quickly once they think they have proved a point.
Again, fine. I don't care.
I will take my own time, even if it is away from this particular thread.
If that means stepping back and looking at other resources - or even abandoning ship - so be it.
I appreciate all the time, patience and effort that @Fooloso4 has given to starting and maintaining this thread. It is quite the challenge.
He continues to be open to re-reading and admitting where he might have misread or misinterpreted.
That says a lot.
Plato's Phaedo is about more than arguing over -isms. For me, Socrates was a spiritual thinker who acted on his belief in the power of philosophy. A heady mix of reason and spirit to move.
I am interested enough to look around; head out of the TPF for a while to read and think at my own pace.
I found an Open Yale course on 'Death' - lecturer Prof. Kagan.
https://oyc.yale.edu/NODE/196
Look under 'Sessions', you will see that Lectures 4,6,7,8 and 9 are dedicated to Plato's Phaedo.
Videos, transcripts and audio files are available.
Might be worth a look, I don't know.
Best wishes, everyone :sparkle:
So many ways to skin a soul :halo: :sparkle:
A major theme of the dialogue is phronesis. If Socrates was an atheist how prudent would it be for him to admit it? His concern is threefold: what this would mean for him, what it would mean for others, and what it would mean for philosophy if he openly professed atheism. We have seen what it meant for Socrates. What it means for philosophy is a perennial problem. There are always those ready to condemn and censor. What it means for others depends on the person. This is something Socrates will address.
Socrates didn't tend to care much about prudence. He expressed admiration for Sparta in the middle of a devastating war. He managed to irritate the crap out of most Athenian citizens.
I think it's more likely we're taking in Plato's flair for poetic expression.
Early on Socrates makes a comment that will prove to be ironic:
As we have seen, this is in part true but in part not. There are things he readily accepts but he keeps returning to the same questions. There is a peculiar mixture of remembering and forgetting. It is Cebes who remembers Socrates’ story of recollection, but he loses the scent of the current argument. He is a lover of philosophy, but not a philosopher. He is like the lover of music who is not musical. He admires what the philosophers have to say, but seems incapable of making the “greatest music”. (61a)
The danger of misologic leads to the question of who will keep Socratic philosophy alive? Put differently, philosophy needs genuine philosophers and not just scholars.
Socrates turns from the problem of sound arguments to the soundness of those who make and judge arguments. He now introduces what is an all too common problem:
What Socrates is saying here may not be what he seems to be saying. He is not saying that he is not interested in “making the weaker argument stronger” so as to gain victory. He is not going to try to persuade others, but to persuade himself that what he says seems to be true. Now persuading himself that what he says seems to be true is very different from attempting to say what seems to be true. It appears as if he is taking his own advice when he tells Cebes and Simmias that they themselves might be the most capable of singing their own incantations about death.
If this is correct, then what he is recommending is that sound arguments be put aside and in their place songs to make the soul sound. That something like this is what he has in mind is confirmed by what he goes on to say:
Here, for the first time, Socrates suggests that there might be nothing at all for those who die, that they have met their end. The timing is important, coming immediately after the questioning of the ability of arguments to establish the truth.
Socrates returns to the argument but, following Cebes example of the weaver, introduces a new definition of death:
Socrates once again returns to recollection, and both Cebes and Simmias agrees that:
With this agreement Socrates returns to Simmias’ argument that the soul is a tuning. It is only with this being agreed on that Socrates is able to dispute Simmias’ argument that the soul is an attunement.
Socrates argues that the soul cannot be an attunement if the tuning existed prior to what is tuned. But
there is an argument that Socrates neglects to pursue. 'Tuned and Untuned'. The tuning of a lyre exists apart from any particular lyre. It is the same relationship between the Equal and things that are equal, and the Beautiful or Just and things that are beautiful or just. In accord with that argument the Tuning of the Lyre still exists, but the tuning of a particular lyre does not endure once that lyre is destroyed. Why does he neglect this? The consequence would be the death of the soul along with the body.
Simmias denies this, but note the shift from ‘soul’ to ‘one soul’ and 'a soul'. If death is the “perishing of soul” then a soul, the one that perishes, is to the greatest degree "less fully a soul".
The proper analogy to good and bad souls would be good and bad tunings. Good and bad, virtue and vice, are not things in the soul, they are conditions of the soul, just as sharp and flat are conditions of an attunement. A good soul would be a well tuned soul and a bad soul a poorly tuned one.
Socrates has intentionally jumbled terms and Simmias is unable to disentangle them. Attunement itself cannot be non-attunement just as Equal itself cannot be unequal, but just as equal things are more or less equal, attuned things are more or less in tune.
The argument is as follows: soul is an attunement, vice is lack of attunement, and so the soul cannot be bad and still be a soul because it would no longer be an attunement. What is missing from the argument is that being in or out of tune is a matter of degree. Vice is not the absence of tuning but bad tuning.
Socrates closes this discussion by citing the authority of Homer, the “Divine Poet” (95a). Homer for the Greeks has been made divine, a god, apotheosis. Socrates appeals to Homer’s divine authority or less gloriously, to the authority of the poet rather than the strength of argument. He uses Homer’s authority in support of his argument against attunement on the grounds of the separation of body and soul, and the rule of the soul over the body. But the passage cited (Odyssey XX 17-18) is not a case of the soul ruling the bodily desire, but of the soul controlling its own anger. In an earlier post I discussed the problem of soul’s desire. In both cases the divide between body and soul cannot be maintained.
Why do you think this?
https://sententiaeantiquae.com/2018/07/05/homer-divine-not-human/
And this article convinced you that the ancient Greeks, in general, believed Homer was divine?
No. That was simply the first thing that came up on search. For a more scholarly source:
https://publishing.cdlib.org/ucpressebooks/view?docId=ft3f59n8b0&chunk.id=d0e3428&toc.depth=1&toc.id=d0e3009&brand=ucpress
Per Moses Finley,
"No other poet, no literary figure in all history for that matter, occupied a place in the life of his people such as Homer's. He was their pre-eminent symbol of nationhood, the unimpeachable authority on their earliest history, and a decisive figure in the creation of their pantheon, as well as their most widely quoted poet."
They honored Homer out the wazoo, that's true. They didn't actually think he had been made into a god.
From the article cited:
"The Hellenistic portrait belongs to another category. The heavy, archaizing locks framing the face, the fillet containing the hair rolled up in the back—also an archaizing trait—and the full, heavy beard all conjure up the majestic aura of a god."
Mention is also made in the Archelaos Relief , also known as, "Apotheosis of Homer":
http://www.hellenicaworld.com/Greece/Art/Ancient/en/HomerArchelaos.html
The point that should not be lost is that Socrates called him the "divine poet" in the Phaedo and in the Ion calls him the "best and most divine".
This is not the place to get into the concept of apotheosis. Here is a short quote from Wiki before I move on:
You're in conflict with one of the greatest classicists of the 20th Century.
And how does this relate to my analysis of the Phaedo?
Since you asked, quite frankly it indicates that you don't know much about the setting of the work. You're prone to jumping to odd conclusions, and then you refuse to accept facts when they're presented.
The setting of the work is Socrates last day. If you think that any conclusion I have arrived at is odd then I would welcome a discussion of it. The fact is what he called Homer divine. If I am wrong that others did not regard him this way what difference does that make?
One of the things one could do is analyze the argument that Homer affirms that the soul can be separated from the body.
Who is Plato arguing with here? Would this opponent (who believes the soul is essentially motion, or what we might call energy) be persuaded by an appeal to divinity? Is that was Plato has Socrates doing?
Who was the great Athenian law giver? A god? No, it was Solon, a man.
So maybe Plato is showing off the conservatism of the gentry? Think about the images in the works of Homer. It's the Greek epic. It describes how people should relate to one another and it clearly gives precedence to an aristocrat like Plato. Maybe it's: I speak for tradition. I speak from the depths of the Greek soul.
Or maybe it's something else.
Perhaps that is the case. On the other hand, the dialogue begins with Socrates trying "bodily" music composition to satisfy what his daemon might be requiring from him. That and the calls for phronesis are at odds with the harsh division between the body and the mind in many of the arguments.
Maybe all that time in fetters messed with his old modus operandi.
Where in the dialogue is it? Stephanus number?
Quoting frank
Where?
Quoting frank
What is the relevance to the dialogue? Again, a stephanus reference would be helpful.
Quoting frank
See above. As a student of Socrates a case would have to be made that he is conservative. Socrates certainly was not.
None of these things speak to the specifics of your claim that my conclusions are odd. None of them speak to your point that the Greeks did not deify Homer.
One cool thing about Plato is the way he presents the repeating theme of oppositions.
It will come through in a dry logical argument, then it shows up in the tone of the work.
You just posted it.
Quoting Fooloso4
Who is the opponent he is addressing? We talked about this earlier (in regards to why it comes in handy to call Plato's approach idealistic). What is the existing contrast to his approach? You should know this.
Quoting Fooloso4
This is a middle work. It's Plato we're hearing here, not Socrates. In what sense was Plato conservative?
Quoting Fooloso4
Holy crap, man.
Do you mean where Socrates said "Homer put it poetically"? (94d) Socrates makes the distinction between poetry and argument several times. Homer does not present and argument. He says:
Socrates uses this to claim that the soul is not a harmony of the body, but rather the soul rules over the body.
I pointed out that:
Quoting Fooloso4
And:
Quoting Fooloso4
Quoting frank
I don't know what you mean. If you explain it I will respond. If you mean the appropriateness of using the term 'idealistic' I have nothing further to say.
Quoting frank
It is all Plato we are hearing, from the early dialogues to the end, simply from the fact that he wrote the dialogues. We cannot make a clear distinction between where he might be repeating what Socrates said and where he is not. Some scholars have attempted to do this, but others reject this approach. One thing is clear: With the possible exception of what he wrote while awaiting the poison, Socrates did not write anything and Plato never speaks in the dialogues. In this dialogue attention is drawn to the fact that he was not present. Xenophon also wrote Socratic dialogues. His dialogues differ from Plato's, even when they are writing about the same thing. Compare, for example, Plato's Symposium and Xenophon's.
In what sense was Plato conservative?
I don't think he was. You said:
Quoting frank
And I responded:
Quoting Fooloso4
Plato was an aristocrat but not a conservative. He was truly a revolutionary. Socrates was not an aristocrat but was a revolutionary.
Quoting frank
Is this what stands as an argument for you? You have not told me why it makes a difference to our understanding of the text if Socrates was alone in calling Homer divine. It is right there in the text. No one who heard it disagreed or found it odd for him to have said this.
We might take it that Socrates is suggesting that divinity was at work in Homer. He's not suggesting that Homer is really divine.
You specifically stated that Socrates was calling on Homer's divine authority.
We could look at how an appeal to divine authority differs from an appeal to tradition. In this, I suggest we'd need to think about the competition of ideas at the time.
In some cases, your interpretation is just wrong. The bigger problem is that you seem to think there is one right interpretation.
Think of Phaedo as food for thought.
Quoting Wayfarer
The hatred of logos is a big part of this dialogue. At the beginning of Phaedo, there is a proposal that that the trial would be played out again amongst those assembled. To that extent, doesn't the topic of corrupting people fall within the parameters of the dialogue under discussion?
I do not think there is one right interpretation, but you have not given me a single case of where you think my interpretation is wrong. Without details your accusations are empty. Provide specific cases and where you think my interpretation does not agree with what is said in the dialogue, as well as what you think is a better interpretation, and we can talk.
Do you understand that?
Socrates calls him divine. In what way is his calling him divine not presenting him as being divine?
What he means by this is another matter. And whether or not he believes it cannot be determined without first figuring out what he means.
Once again, you said in some cases my interpretation is wrong, but you have not given a single case. So what are those cases? Saying that he calls him divine is not an interpretation. It is a direct quote from the text.
Quoting Fooloso4
Thanks to @Fooloso4 for drawing this to my attention. It meant that I paid more attention and found comedic elements I wouldn't otherwise have done. It surprised me at the time because I had the wrong impression that Plato did not think highly of humour. So, another paradox.
See SEP article on 'Philosophy of Humour':
Quoting John Morreall
Humour compares, I think, to the issue of desire, as a bodily disturbance to be disdained.
However, as mentioned previously, this is not absolute. It includes the idea of temperance. The Goldilocks effect. Keeping the right balance. So, what matters is the quantity and quality of the emotion; the type and motivation, virtuous or vicious.
I have probably missed some of the wry, subtle humour sprinkled throughout. Some are obvious: 'chuckles'. We have to work at noticing. No emoticons here :smile: :sad: :chin: :brow:
In general, it is a way of looking at the human condition; the bitter-sweet connections, the experiences of pain/pleasure.
Listening to the second of the audio files recommended earlier by @Banno
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/536659
I woke up in time to hear the last few minutes:
pp15-16 ( 70b-d)
Bracketed numbers within the text refer to the Notes.
I haven't looked there yet. Curious as to why 'speculate' and 'recalled' have been highlighted. I could speculate...that mere or idle 'opinion' had been frowned upon...that 'recall' occurs when thinking in the present about things past, we don't need a re-born soul.
Socrates mentions his scornful and critical 'comic poet' - ? Aristophanes *
Again, we can see why this kind of humour was not appreciated and objected to.
Nevertheless, it is used to good effect in the dialogue(s), helping us to form the picture.
For example: the audience is fearful about death and loss. What happens after death.
Socrates brings in some wry comments that raises chuckles - a release from pent up nervous energy and anxiety. Both Plato and Socrates are more than aware of the human condition - the interplay between body and mind. The need for a sense of humour...
Not to mention patience with those who hurl false accusations :brow:
-----
* Edit to add from the Notes, p104:
What do you think it signifies?
Re any stated belief, how do we know that this is an absolute belief sincerely held ?
I think that the point is: we don't know, even if we think we do...
Even recent past events are seldom recalled perfectly by one person, never mind if more are involved. And as for the recall of a soul events...or knowledge of...any truth...
I think it signifies that it is something other than what us moderns think of as a 'myth', by which we mean, something that could never happen. The way myths are told in ancient literature - not only by Plato - they're often allegorical presentations of truths which can't be stated directly. Which is convenient for modern intepreters, because they can also be dismissed as 'merely myth'.
Interesting. Do you have any particular examples in mind ?
I tend to agree with that. Take the example of 85b where, on being asked who Socrates refers to (Apollo or some other master), he replied "I don't know" only to later claim that he "misread" the text and corrected himself after consulting other translations and even that only after I pointed out that his reading is incorrect.
How can you "misread" a text written in plain English?
But he goes even further and baselessly asserts:
Quoting Fooloso4
So, he uses his own misreading to infer quite a lot from it. "It is not Apollo" (even when it obviously is Apollo) and, anyways, "with Plato there is always more to it" so let's turn the dialogues into something else, like a "comedy" for example. Plato, after all, was not a philosopher but a playwright.
Correct.
The very one we’re discussing! Socrates refers to ‘an ancient myth’ and also ‘the mysteries’. ‘The mysteries’ are a reference to the Greek ‘mystery religions’, notably Orphism (the cult of Orpheus) which taught a doctrine of re-incarnation very similar to ancient Hinduism (to which it was distantly related). It has been called the ‘ur-religion’ of Ancient Greece, ‘ur-religion’ being the ancestral indigenous belief system which originated with the ancient Indo-European peoples. (On a side-note, the original definition of a ‘mystic’ was ‘one initiated into the Mysteries.’ And if, as legend suggests, Plato was such an initiate, then he was literally ‘a mystic’).
OK. I thought you were thinking of philosophical interpreters of Plato's Phaedo who dismiss it as 'merely myth' as you expressed:
Quoting Wayfarer
And wondered if you had anyone specific in mind.
Plato is also said to have been initiated into Egyptian mysteries as was Pythagoras. But you are right, we can't ignore the mystic aspect of Platonism and try to force an exclusively atheistic or materialist interpretation on Platonic texts. Otherwise we take a dogmatic approach which to my understanding the discussion intended to avoid.
I was thinking of passages like this:
[quote=Phaedo 69c; http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0170%3Atext%3DPhaedo%3Asection%3D69c] And I fancy that those men who established the mysteries were not unenlightened, but in reality had a hidden meaning when they said long ago that whoever goes uninitiated and unsanctified to the other world will lie in the mire, but he who arrives there initiated and purified will dwell with the gods.[/quote]
Quoting Amity
You make some good points.
As I have said before, with the dialogues we need to look not only at what is said but at what is done. Here are two examples from the Phaedo of Socrates laughing.
At 84d: "When Socrates heard this he laughed quietly " (or in other translations "gently")
At 115c: "laughing quietly" (serenely)
This looks interesting:
From the summary of the book "Plato's Laughter":
Counters the long-standing, solemn interpretation of Plato’s dialogues with one centered on the philosophical and pedagogical significance of Socrates as a comic figure.
Quoting Amity
Nietzsche said:
The Sedley and Long translation is slightly different. But in 69d it says:
[quote=]For in fact, as those involved in the rites [mysteries] put it, "many carry the fennel-wand, but few are inspired". The latter, in my opinion, are none other than those who have pursued philosophy correctly. In trying to become one of them I left nothing undone in my life, at least as far as I could, but did my utmost in every way. Whether I did so correctly and achieved anything, I'll know for certain when I've got there, god willing, and I don't think it will be long.[/quote]
This and other statements would suggest that the speaker does see himself as a follower of the mystery traditions.
You seem to have missed the irony. They have recalled the doctrine. They have not recollected. It remains something they have been told rather than knowledge they have attained.
No one denies that there is humor in Plato's dialogues but to dismiss them as "comedy" is stretching it too far. Plus, even comedy may have a spiritual message. Your conclusion doesn't follow from the facts.
Yes. But on what grounds do we ignore or dismiss other views like those of later Platonic philosophers in favor of Nietzsche?
Yes, but they are vindicating the doctrine in 72c and 72d are they not?
If the living come back from the dead, this justifies belief in learning as recollection, as discussed at 72e ff
So, where is the "irony"?
I don't know what to say about that.
:up:
Socrates is talking about the Bacchants, those who have been initiated into the rites of Bacchus, that is, Dionysus; the god of the grape, wine, and fertility. Wearing masks is also part of the rituals. The Socrates' and Plato's masks are significant in this context.
Here too the irony should not be lost. Socrates' talk of phronesis and moderation are in sharp contrast to the divine madness the rituals were intended to induce. But, as the Phaedrus makes clear, Socrates was not opposed to divine madness. There is here, once again, a play of opposites.
Well, if Socrates was not opposed to divine madness, why would he be opposed to the Bacchic rites?
And, anyway, at 72c and 72d he vindicates the doctrine of rebirth and of learning as recollection does he not?
So, the text does seem to have a spiritual message after all, and it isn't only "comedy"?
You are right the book you mentioned does sound interesting but expensive !!
Here is another : 'Laughter, Humor, and Comedy in Ancient Philosophy'
Quoting Book review by David Konstan
[my bolds]
Again, we see the opposites pain and delight > mixed pleasure.
Sure. But he wasn't translating. He was reading Gallop's English translation.
1. How did he misread that?
2. Why was he so quick to read so much into his own misreading?
Indeed. And I have kept that in mind when reading.
It is something I am alert to in real life, including being aware of my own actions and if I follow my own advice. Some things are easier said than done :wink:
BTW, Greeks, like others in the ancient world, were aware that great civilizations preceded them. They liked to think of themselves as descendants of the great elders (and they were, they just didn't know how as we do).
They would have been predisposed to honor old wisdom. We're the opposite. We think of ourselves as the highest point humanity has yet reached. We look with suspicion on our elders, ready to snicker at their folly.
So it probably helps to put ourselves in Plato's shoes in order to understand him.
Correct. And the crux of the matter is, are they the shoes (1) of a philosopher or (2) of an author of comedy? I think the evidence tends to suggest (1) as the correct answer.
Again, interesting information. I didn't know about the Bacchants.
Good to follow the continuing themes as outlined in the OP:
Quoting Fooloso4 :cool:
The interplay.
The pain and the pleasure.
The chains and release.
Life and death.
Body and spirit.
The tragi-comedy of the human experience...
Of course there is. That is Plato's obvious method. But his play of opposites suggests that another reason for using humor may have been to provide a counterweight to the seriousness of the subject matter.
After all, spirit is light and joy. Humor is uplifting, while a somber mood may be depressing. And the purpose of philosophy is to elevate the spirit. Combining humor with metaphysical teachings does not seem to be a contradiction.
Playwrights were big celebrities back then. I don't know, probably best to just drop it, huh? There's more important stuff in the world. :grin:
lol I think you might be right there. But maybe we should wait for the final verdict before we give up completely?
I should add, in case it is not obvious, that wine and fertility are about bodily pleasures. And yet, Socrates throughout the dialogue has railed against the pleasures of the body. Here too, the context is "being mastered by pleasure" and the "exchange pleasures for pleasures", but he refers to the rites of the Bacchants "Riddles" and "mysteries" indeed!
Socrates is quite clear it is not rites that purify:
There is, however, one more piece of the puzzle:
The thyrsus is the wand, but not all who carry the wand and participate in the rites understand them. They have, as it were, the props and go through the motions, but do not practice philosophy in the right way. And, if any confusion still remains, once again, practicing philosophy in the right way means,
"in truth, moderation and courage and justice".
I think that was already obvious. But practising moderation and courage and justice must be considered in the context of Socrates' belief in rebirth, etc. as discussed at 72a - 72d.
As if to emphasize this change, Socrates says:
And Cebes said:
After Cebes says this:
Then says:
One might think that what will follow is a discussion of natural science.
But he did not find the answers he sought.
Socrates accepted Mind as the cause, but instead of inquiring about what Mind is, or how it arranged things, he sought an explanation for why it is best that things be the way they are. He did not find such an explanation in Anaxagoras or anywhere else. He thus launched his “second sailing” to find the cause. (99d).
Those familiar with the Republic will recall the story of the ascent from the cave where it was necessary to first look at images of things (beings) before being able to look at things themselves, and then finally looking at images of the sun before looking at the sun itself.
With his “second sailing” Socrates looks to what seems best in a double sense. First, he wants to understand how it is best that things are arranged by Mind as they are, and second, having failed to understand things as they are, that is, to attain truth and knowledge, he seeks what seems to be the best argument.
I am going to try to show you the kind of cause with which I have concerned myself. I turn back to those oft-mentioned things and proceed from them. I assume the existence of a Beautiful, itself by itself, of a Good and a Great and all the rest. If you grant me these and agree that they
exist, I hope to show you the cause as a result, and to find the soul to be immortal.
Take it that I grant you this, said Cebes, and hasten to your conclusion. (100b-c)
Cebes does not really seem interested in the forms and agrees without question in order to get to the point that concerns him, the immortality of the soul.
Socrates does not attempt to describe the precise relationship of beautiful things to Beauty itself. One would think it important to do so if it is to be accepted as philosophically sound. He settles instead for the “safest answer”. The image of sailing brings to mind, or rather, as we may recall, a “recollection” of the image of the raft sailing through life in the midst of danger.
According to Simmias' image, if we cannot gain knowledge, the raft will be out of our control and tossed about, unless there is a more stable carrier, some divine account. Is Socrates’ safe account just such an account? What is the cost of passage?
Socrates “assumes” the existence of the Beautiful itself and a Good itself, and so on. He does not try to prove them and does not say how they actually relate to things.
Recollect also the following: Socrates said he persuades himself that what he says seems to be true, (91a) which is very different from attempting to say what seems to be true. Is he trying to persuade himself that the forms seem to be true? Has he been successful? However we may answer this, one thing should be obvious: if the myth of recollection was true, none of this would be necessary. He would have simply recollected what he knew from being dead, the existence of Beauty itself, Justice Itself, the Good itself, and all the rest.
Socrates ends with a very odd bit of advice:
Then would you not avoid saying that when one is added to one it is the addition and when it is divided it is the division that is the cause of two? And you would loudly exclaim that you do not know how else each thing can come to be except by sharing in the particular reality in which it shares, and in these cases you do not know of any other cause of becoming two except by sharing in Twoness, and that the things that are to be two must share in this, as that which is to be one must share in Oneness, and you would dismiss these additions and divisions and other such subtleties, and leave them to those wiser than yourself to answer. But you, afraid, as they say, of your own shadow and your inexperience, would cling to the safety of your own hypothesis and give that answer. If someone then attacked your hypothesis itself, you would ignore him and would not answer until you had examined whether the consequences that follow from it agree with one another or contradict one another. (101c-d)
When one is added to one it is not the addition of one to one that makes two but it is two by sharing in Twoness. Socrates tells him that he should “loudly exclaim” this. Yelling has seemed to take the place of persuasion by reason.
Compare this to the description of dialectic the Republic:
"Well, then, go on to understand that by the other segment of the intelligible I mean that which argument itself grasps with the power of dialectic, making the hypotheses not beginnings but really hypotheses—that is, steppingstones and springboards—in order to reach what is free from hypothesis at the beginning of the whole. When it has grasped this, argument now depends on that which depends on this beginning and in such fashion goes back down again to an end; making no use of anything sensed in any way, but using forms themselves, going through forms to forms, it ends in forms too." (511b)
In the Republic hypothesis is used to get free of hypothesis, back to the beginning of the whole. Here, however, Cebes and Simmias are told to go from hypothesis to hypothesis, but they do not free themselves from hypothesis. They are told not to discuss the beginning, but, of course, they can’t because they have not arrived at the beginning. They have not arrived at the forms. At best they have arrived at what seems to them best. The philosopher, if Cebes and Simmias are philosophers, does not have knowledge of the whole either through dialectic or recollection.
I think you are missing some important points, e.g.:
1. Full recollection of past knowledge is not automatic. it needs training by means of philosophy, etc. and may require more than one lifetime to develop fully.
2. What you recollect in this life depends on what you knew in your past life or lives. If you were not a fully enlightened soul in your past life then you wouldn't have experienced Beauty Itself, Justice Itself, the Good Itself, and all the rest, and you couldn't recollect all that in this life.
Thanks for further explanation.
Sometimes things need spelling out, even if they might seem obvious to others.
Even when things seem more clear or obvious as we discuss the dialogue, repetition does no harm.
Indeed, I think there are instances of such in the text. To reinforce or to replay the arguments all the better for analysis and assessment of any conclusions.
This helps to consolidate any short term 'Aha, got it!' or 'OK...but not quite there yet' into the long term memory. All the better for later recall. No rebirth required.
I repeat the themes in my posts because it helps keep them in mind as I go.
For example: https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/538325
Quoting Fooloso4
Yes. I recall that, even if I am not overly familiar with it. Thanks for the memory :cool:
I had thought of it fleetingly in the previous discussion re chains and release. Freedom from the painful fetters - the pain gradually being eased as Socrates rubs his legs. It is a process.
Just like the pain and pleasure of reading a difficult text...
So, people learn through repetition; the repetition builds paths in our brain. Once people have been down the same path a few times, they find the place quicker next time round.
That is why I am struggling and others might find it all too obvious and have a quicker pace.
Quoting Fooloso4
Understood. But got a long way to go...thanks for being a guide along the way :sparkle:
Even if you are not an Absolutely Perfect Sage :wink:
The problem may be that others are only too quick to proclaim what is all too obvious and not pace themselves slowly enough to attend to the details that can turn the obvious into something quite different.
Quoting Amity
Consider the following from my last post. Socrates says:
[quote]I deliberately repeat it often, in order that no point may escape us, and that you may add or subtract something if you wish.(95d)/quote]
As I pointed out:
Quoting Fooloso4
Also consider what Socrates says about incantations. Sometimes we come to believe something is true just through repetition.
Have you considered that "others" possibly includes yourself?
The OP says “The question arises as to whether this [Phaedo] is a comedy or a tragedy”.
IMO the discussion so far has failed to show that Phaedo is a “comedy”.
If anything, it is a tragedy (???????? tragodia) in the traditional sense of drama invoking an accompanying catharsis, or a "pain [that] awakens pleasure", for the audience, with a very clear spiritual message.
In your own words, "Plato did write and he is a very capable storyteller, capable of the greatest music. His dialogues are akin to the work of the poets’ plays".
The fact is Plato is far greater than a "very capable storyteller" or "poet", as stressed time and again by later Platonists. So, the real question is for what reason you choose to deny this.
There's no comedy or tragedy because it's not a drama. There's no story arc.
"Drama" in the sense of "play". Obviously, not a conventional one. But it does contain elements of tragedy and comedy and has a spiritual message to convey. So, maybe something like the mystery plays of antiquity only more complex and sophisticated?
If that's what it becomes for you, fine. The dialogue format was popular at the time. It's just the format Plato used.
I don't see a spiritual message. I see the expression of ideas that will course through philosophy for the next 2400 years.
To each his own?
You don't have to see anything. The dialogues can be interpreted on many different levels, such as literal, allegorical, etc.
Platonism, by which I mean the philosophical and mystical tradition that regards itself as closely following Plato, does see a spiritual message in the dialogues, though.
But, as you say, "to each his own".
Of course. Have you read any books about Meister Eckhart?
Quoting SEP article: Plato's Myths
Peter Adamson
Audio Player - c. 20mins.
https://historyofphilosophy.net/plato-myth
The History of Philosophy Without Any Gaps - King's College London.
Excellent, easy to listen to - knowledgeable with light touches of humour. Er.
I think the bit about Phaedo is roughly 12min in. But the whole thing including the background to the music at start is enjoyable :cool:
From an interview with Stanley Rosen, an influential scholar who has written extensively on Plato:
Rosen demonstrates the approach in Plato's Sophist: The Drama of Original and Image.
A few more points from the interview that are worth considering:
The degree to which tidbits might be buried in what looks like offhand comments is very different issue to that of the dialogue's status as a play.
That happens to be correct. But works of this type were not meant to be studied on your own because in that case you could reach any kind of conclusion that might be diametrically opposed to the author's own outlook. These texts were normally read under the guidance of a qualified teacher.
In any case, precisely because the dialogues are intended to stimulate the reader to think for himself, it doesn't seem proper to tell him from the start to stick to a materialist interpretation of the text. Let the reader decide for himself.
Yes, I have. I think Eckhart's teachings come very close to the mysticism within the Platonic tradition.
You said:
Quoting frank
In response I quoted Rosen making specific points as to the dialogues being dramas:
Quoting Fooloso4
That's what I'm saying, "drama" or play with a moral and spiritual content.
What is 'Platonism' ? It depends on your view. Some have already offered thoughts but don't give references.
Post your definitions or understanding here, or not. Preferably with links to sources.
Here's the SEP version:
Quoting SEP article on Platonism
Or I suppose another thread can be started by Platonists or spin-offs ?
I think that this is correct. It is something that I have been attempting to show. Cebes and Simmias are the image of just such non-philosophical readers and listeners. They have to have their childish fears charmed away by myth and incantations.
By contrast:
It is significant that those who have opposed my interpretation have not said anything about the details of what Socrates says in the dialogue about myths. Instead they point elsewhere.
Yes. I have been attempting to understand and slowly getting there.
I think most careful readers and followers of this discussion can see and appreciate your approach to this.
Quoting Fooloso4
Yes. It is unfortunate.
However, interesting questions have been raised and I have learned more than I would have if I had just stuck to the text.
I am trying to do both. Not easy.
Hopefully this will lead to a better understanding :sparkle:
He was influenced by Neoplatonism. I think Hegel also came across a brand of it, but that'd be for some other thread.
Anyway, which part of Phaedo reminds you of Hegel's take on oppositions?
Have you thought of just drawing out the significant ideas instead of providing your interpretation?
For those interested in interpretations. 'Methodologies for Reading Plato' :
Quoting Christopher Rowe
Just a few snippets from this article which has 12 short sections !
OK enough already... back to the text...
From the Rosen interview:
And from @Amity above:
Quoting Christopher Rowe
Well, we understand that. But I think that what needs to be established is whether metaphysical concepts such as "forms"/"ideas", "soul", "rebirth", etc. occur in the dialogues. If they do, then it is legitimate for traditional Platonists to extract metaphysical teachings from the dialogues irrespective of Plato's actual intention that, incidentally, is impossible to determine beyond reasonable doubt.
In other words, if the true and only intention of the dialogues is to stimulate thought or reason, how can we claim that they should stimulate the reader exclusively in a materialist sense? It seems to be a self-contradictory claim.
Well, Socrates says many things in the dialogues. He certainly seems to agree with traditional Platonic concepts such as soul, immortality and rebirth as at 72a - 72d etc.
Incidentally, although the structure of the Platonic texts has been compared to that of a drama or play, the true setting of Plato’s dialogues is more akin to a symposium.
Symposium - Wikipedia
Symposia (“drinking together”) were central to the Greek cultural context in which philosophers like Socrates and Plato operated. They were the part of banquets after a communal meal held in honor of the gods, when drinking of wine tempered with water (hence the Greek term ????? crasi, literally "mixed" for wine) was accompanied by games, music and discussions among the men. There were big differences between symposia. Philosophical symposia naturally revolved around philosophical discussions (and not around sexual or other such activities as sometimes erroneously assumed).
The dialogues taking place in works like Phaedo are very much like conversations that would have taken place in a philosophical symposium, from which satire or humor would not be lacking.
So, the dialogues may be seen as a combination of dramatic performance and symposium.
In terms of the dialogues' function of stimulating thought, though they may not provide a "dogma" as such, they do provide moral and metaphysical concepts such as justice, immortality, rebirth, etc. that can guide the reader's thought in a moral and metaphysical-mystical direction, should the reader be so inclined.
Lies to children are simplified versions of the truth, containing intentional lies that cover deeper, more detailed or complex issues in order to explain the overall picture.
Wittgenstein's ladder is different int hat it is necessary to climb the ladder in order to then dispose of it.
Is what we have read so fr a lie-to-children or Wittgenstein's ladder? Is Socrates engaged in pedagogy, or is this a necessary logical step in the argument?
That's a good question. I don't think it is a step in logical argument, but I do think that Plato intends for the most thoughtful of us to work through the logic of the accounts he gives. In the next section that I will present (probably tomorrow) he will call the "safe answer" he proposes here as a hypothesis , an "ignorant" or "unlearned" answer, and will propose another.
I think the main purpose is rhetorical. It is the pharmakon against misologic. (89d) The truth is, logos or accounts or arguments cannot accomplish what is hoped for, knowledge of the fate of the soul. But this is not a truth they are ready to hear. Socrates does not want them to give up on philosophy so here he resorts to the myth of recollection, with its promise of knowledge and the safe passage of the soul to Hades and back. In the Republic to the story of the ascent from the cave to transcendent knowledge of the whole. This story in particular has inspired generations to pursue philosophy. And, as Nietzsche nicely sums it up, Christianity becomes Platonism for the people.
Reading Rowe's article, I understand that interpretations of Plato's dialogues lie on a spectrum; the neoplatonist and a reductionist analytical approach being at opposite ends.
The approach taken by @Fooloso4 is analytical; with fine attention to detail.
However, there is no reduction to argument and counterargument alone.
There is much more colour...
Quoting Fooloso4
I appreciate that even with his level of expertise, it is not only a challenge to decipher the dialogue but to present and discuss any understanding.
The article excerpts I found useful :
VIII. The Problems of Cherry-Picking
Quoting Christopher Rowe
IX. Two Worlds or One?
Quoting Christopher Rowe
And everything that Nietzsche said is true, of course. How could it possibly be otherwise?
But I think you have failed to show that the dialogues are "comedy" or that Plotinus, Proclus and other Platonists are inconsistent with Plato.
Based on the divisions in the article you cite my approach would be "Straussian":
From an earlier post:
Quoting Fooloso4
These are the people I read and whom I have learned the most from.
An important statement from Strauss's student Stanley Rosen:
Quoting Fooloso4
Between this and Rowe's criticism it is clear how far apart those who look at the dialogue as a whole with attention to parts are from those who say:
Quoting frank
I thought as much.
Quoting Fooloso4
I had absorbed this but my recall is rubbish !
The Rosen quote is referenced in the Rowe article in Section X - Hidden Meanings ?
which says more about the Straussian approach and the different versions:
Quoting Christopher Rowe
I have returned to the pdf text and Librivox audio files in an effort to catch up.
Just finished listening to audio 3 which corresponds roughly to pp16-26 ( 70d - 78b)
Also to your discussion, here ( about 6 days ago ! )
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535924
The first 2 Arguments for the Soul's Immortality:
1. Opposites/Cyclical
2. Recollection
Still thinking about them. But when it comes to comedy - listening to the audio really brings it out.
The request to be reminded of the Recollection proof: 'Not sure that I remember the doctrine !'.
Quoting Fooloso4
I had remembered the story of how Socrates helped someone work through a problem but couldn't recall who or where ! And yes, it made me wonder again just how much of this Recollection argument is more about stilling the fears of the 'child within us' - Cebes and Simmias.
Anxiety about losing Socrates continues.
Socrates gives some counselling:
There are plenty of 'charmers' in Greece - incantations to reduce fear.
However, I think the final words at 78b say it best:
It does help to have a guiding hand...in this world...
Going forward and reaching back even as we speak.
Indeed. As if what counts as drawing out a significant idea is separate from someone's interpretation :brow:
I agree. One time I shared my concern about this with Rosen. He said that this is why he deliberately tried to distance himself from the "Straussians". More recently there has been a split between "East Coast" and "West Coast" Straussians over the conservative activism of those on the west/right. Whereas Rosen emphasizes the unresolved problems, they have convinced themselves that they have the answers. It is remarkable how Strauss has engendered such a wide, varying, and opposing set of views.
I am glad you caught that. Plato's playfulness goes unnoticed by those searching for his doctrines,
Quoting Amity
And to be clear, Socrates is talking about myths and those involved in the cults of mystical rites. Some here are advocating that we pay attention to them but ignore what Socrates says about them. If they are to be looked at, it should be from this perspective if looking at them is intended to shed light on the dialogue.
You keep saying "to be clear", but it isn't at all clear what you are on about.
Nobody says we should ignore what Socrates says about myths. But then nor should we ignore the other things he says regarding soul, immortality, and rebirth.
Either the dialogues are intended to stimulate thought or they are not. If they are, we can't ignore the fact that myths may have some truth in them and just dismiss them out of hand. The dialogues merely demand that we don't accept tradition unthinkingly, not that we become nihilists, atheists or communists.
So how would you sum up Phaedo in a few words (if you had to)?
Are you joking or just ignoring what has been said?
You're not able to sum up your view?
So we have one vote for "can't give a summation"
How would you package your view?
Very briefly, I see Phaedo as a combination of philosophical discussion as would take place during a symposium and a drama or play. It encourages analytical and critical thinking and points to a higher plane of experience that may be reached by way of reason but that can only be fully "lived" or "realized" in mystical experience. Concepts like soul, immortality, rebirth, forms/ideas etc. all point in the same metaphysical direction but together with moral concepts like virtues and justice have a practical application in the attempt to build a better society.
My summation (super tiny):
Phaedo is a vehicle by which Plato presents antithesis to materialistic ideas that were developing at the time.
His strategy is to point to aspects of thought that seem to rule out a materialistic view. The significance to "point out" is that per one the arguments, the ideas he presents can't be taught. They can only be revealed through examples and stories meant to uncover them for the reader.
One of the first ideas has to do with the apparently inherent imperfection of things sensed. The point here is related to aesthetics. If we examine a greek statue, it may seem perfect from a distance, but when we get closer, we'll see little imperfections here and there. This is fascinating notion that many people have realized long before encountering Plato. Maybe because Plato is just endemic to Western thought at this point? Or maybe Plato was right: some ideas are just native?
Another fascinating idea he presents will haunt philosophy for thousands of years, all the way to the 20th Century. It was in Aristotle, Kant, in Heidegger and Merleau Ponty, Schopenhauer and so on. It's that a thing has meaning relative to its opposite.
He also talks about forms and such.
In short, it's a philosophical smorgasbord wrapped up in a charming little dialogue (it's not a play).
In case there are some here who are seeing this and might be confused, read the quoted statements above by Rowe and Rosen. The desire for a neat little "package" tied with a pretty bow is antithetical to an educated reading of the dialogues.
Thank you for the deletion of flagged posts and for continued moderation.
Mind arranges things according to their kind, that is, what kind of thing it is. But the arrangement according to kinds is only part of the story. Things are as they are, according to this hypothesis, because it is best that they be this way.
What happens when we use this hypothesis to investigate the cause of generation and destruction? It would seem that living things are alive because they share in the reality of Life and things that are dead because of the reality of Death. It follows that it is best that living things are alive and dead things dead.
There are two problems with this. First, it contradicts the argument that things come to be from their opposites. Second, it undermines what Socrates said about life being a prison and being alive the destruction of the soul by the body (95d). Unless, of course, it is better to be a slave and better that the body destroy the soul.
Socrates introduces the forms Bigness and Smallness.
At this point an unnamed listener speaks up. Phaedo says he does not remember who it was. (103a) What is the significance of this? Perhaps the anonymous participant is the model for the anonymous reader who does not accept what is said but questions it.
Socrates responds:
The anonymous man to whom he turns and then turns away from is not given a chance to respond and does not interrupt. While it is true that Socrates was talking about things coming to be and now the Forms themselves, there is the problem of how they are related.
Although it appears that Socrates simply dismisses what the unnamed man said, the conversation moves in that direction. Socrates says:
Why would Socrates have previously gotten them to agree with an answer he now says is an ignorant one? Is Socrates’ new safe answer different from the answers he rejected as a young man because in part they made use of the senses? But how could he now know that fire is hot without the senses?
Before his second sailing Socrates rejected natural causes including heat, cold, and fire. (96b) As well, or so it seemed, to two being the result of adding one to one. He claimed that the safe
answer was caused by twoness. Upon closer reading, however, what he was saying is that neither the one added or the one added to becomes two. (96e) In other words, each one remains one and together they are two.
It is the unit, the one, that makes counting intelligible. We must consider how this relates to the Forms, which are each always one even when combined.
The significance of the unnamed man’s challenge now becomes evident.
It is not, as the ignorant answer would have it, Life that makes a body living but soul.
But has it?
One might object that the Forms “Triad” and “Snow” are indestructible, but this points to the problem of Socrates’ distinction between Forms and things. When it snows it is not the Form Snow that snows.
The Cold in snow is indestructible, but snow is not. If the soul is like snow then it too would be destroyed. But Socrates has confused Cebes, and no doubt some readers.
The opposite of what the soul brings along is Death. In accord with what has been said, snow brings Cold and three Odd. Snow cannot admit Hot without being destroyed. Three cannot admit Even and remain three. So, soul cannot admit Death and remain soul.
According the examples, when the opposite approaches - Hot or Even, the Cold in snow and the Odd in three retreats. But if it is the soul in body that retreats then what is the opposite of soul that approaches?
Socrates has not been able to navigate the ship to safety. They are in treacherous waters, in danger of being shipwrecked, just as Simmias feared.
The dialogue of Cratylus approaches your question from a particular point of view. Cratylus claims names are natural entities while Socrates argues that they are assigned values. The argument is not rancorous. Cratylus won't be climbing the ladder with Socrates. Pedagogy is dispensed sparingly.
I think that perhaps two in "a half and another half are two" do not refer to some form of Twoness of the number two but to two as individuals, each being "a half"?
Quoting Phaedo 85c-d
This epistemic approach might appear to match the powers and methods of the three parts of the tripartite soul. The tuning might then be finding the right balance among the three parts, however way Plato might think that possible.
To know a Form, Socrates has already proposed that [2] cannot possibly be sufficient, with only [3] having any chance of success as anamnesis gained through prodding one's own inner soul/mind and not as originating based on samples of individuals hypothetically grouped from the outside world.
Quoting Phaedo 73c
Thanks for your contribution. I am not sure I understand you. But based on what I think you are getting at.
It is the unit, the one, that makes counting intelligible. In one sense a half and a half is two, but in another it is one.
But with regard to twoness:
Note the similarity to the quote from 73e.
He is not claiming that Twoness is a thing known. It is an hypothesis.
From my discussion of recollection at 73 :
He goes on to give an example of recollection:
There seems to be no distinction here between recollection and being reminded of something.
Simmias says he has some lingering distrust:
Socrates responds:
Socrates is telling them that they should not be so ready to accept what is said as the truth. There seems to be a play on a double sense of human weakness, the limits of human argument and Simmias’ ongoing concern that death means our destruction, that we are too weak to endure. In any case, there is a limit we human beings cannot go beyond, and we should not search further. That limit occurs at death.
Socrates leaves it there for us to sort it out. Generation and destruction are each one and together two, but it is by the division of what is one, that is, the cycle of generation and destruction, that they become two. Socrates has identified two causes: mental and physical. Mind arranges or orders things according to their kind or Form. Things are not Forms, they come to be and perish. We can now see the difference between Socrates’ unlearned or ignorant hypothesis and the one that has replaced it. The first used only Forms and could not account for things coming to be and perishing. It was a static model that did not allow for change. But change itself needs an account. The two accounts must be unified, made one, by the good, that is, by an account of why it is best that things are as they are. This has not been done.
The discussion of generation and destruction is guided by two considerations that at first may seem odd to have conjoined: physical causes and number. The overarching question of the dialogue is what will happen to Socrates. The concern is that the unity that is Socrates will be destroyed. In order to address this Socrates divides his unity into a duality, body and soul. It is by this division of one into two that he attempts to demonstrate his unity in death.
According to Cebes’ argument, body and soul are each one and together are two, each separate and distinct. Weaving is an ordering or arrangement. Arrangement or ordering, an activity Socrates attributes to Mind. The act of weaving requires something physically acting on something else that is physical. A disembodied soul cannot be a weaver. Unless the two are one, the man Socrates is cut in two.
Simmias’ account is physical. Body and soul are not separate entities, they are one. A harmony. But harmony is one from many. An attunement is an arrangement. A purely physical account is not adequate either. This is why Socrates initially rejected physical causes but later reintroduced them after the introduction of Mind. Physical things cannot order themselves without Mind.
The problem with Simmias’ account is that if body and soul are one then the destruction of the body is the destruction of the soul. Socrates attempts to separate them in order to save the soul, but can only do so by blurring the distinction between the Form Soul and a soul. If Soul is imperishable it does not follow that Socrates’ soul is. The human soul is átopos, literally, without place, unclassifiable,. It is not a Form and not a physical thing. If there is no distinction between Soul and Socrates’ soul, then it would not be Socrates’ soul that is undying. The fate of Socrates in death is not assured by the fate of Soul. Just as the snow is destroyed at the approach of heat, Socrates’ soul is destroyed at the approach of death, while Snow and Soul remain unchanged Forms.
He turns back to stories that have been told:
The trustworthiness of the story is not questioned. This seems to be because arguments have come to its end, and stories are all that is left. In his last minutes Socrates turns from Hades to the Earth. It is here that he has been all along. (61d)
His tale of the Earth mixes science and myth. The Earth is a sphere in the middle of heaven balanced at rest without support or force. It is very large and we live in only a small portion of it, “like ants or frogs around a swamp”. Many other peoples live in many other similar parts.
Everywhere about the earth there are numerous hollows of many kinds and shapes and sizes into which the water and the mist and the air have gathered. The earth itself is pure and lies in the pure sky where the stars are situated … We, who dwell in the hollows of it, are unaware of this and we think that we live above, on the surface of the earth. It is as if someone who lived deep down in the middle of the ocean thought he was living on its surface. Seeing the sun and the other,heavenly bodies through the water, he would think the sea to be the sky; because he is slow and weak, he has never reached the surface of the sea or risen with his head above the water or come out of the sea to our region here, nor seen how much purer and more beautiful it is than his own region, nor has he ever heard of it from anyone who has seen it.
Our experience is the same: living in a certain hollow of the earth, we believe that we live upon its surface; the air we call the heavens, as if the stars made their way through it; this too is the same: because of our weakness and slowness we are not able to make our way to the upper
limit of the air; if anyone got to this upper limit, if anyone came to it or reached it on wings and his head rose above it, then just as fish on rising from the sea see things in our region, he would see things there and, if his nature could endure to contemplate them, he would know that there is the true heaven, the true light and the true earth, for the earth here, these stones and the whole region, are spoiled and eaten away, just as things in the sea are by the salt water. (109b - 110a)
There are similarities and differences between this story and the allegory of the cave in the Republic. In both stories humans are unaware of their true condition and believe that what they see is the whole of things as they are. The cave images are human artifacts, but what is seen in the hollows is by the nature of our condition.
What the humans say is based on what is seen or experienced. Because of the limits of our experience there are natural limits to our arguments. Myths have no natural limits. In both stories there is an image of an ascent to the truth, a journey from here to There. We have no experience of death and so Socrates’ arguments are not strong enough to transcend that limit. His myths of death, the journey from here to There, are myths about the ascent to truth.
It is only in myth that Socrates can find what is sought in argument: the good. Why it is best that things be as they are. In the myth we find:
But the question of the good of the whole is not complete without the inclusion of human actions:
Immediately following this story Socrates says:
Myths do not reveal the truth. And yet Socrates tells them myths. They are not a substitute for arguments, but argument has its limits. Simmias was not fully convinced by Socrates’ arguments. He was no longer distrustful of the arguments, but still has some lingering distrust within himself. (107b) Throughout the dialogue Socrates has referred to myth as a means of self-persuasion. Here again he says that one should “sing incantations to himself, over and over again”(114d)
Crito asks about final instructions. Socrates says they should take care of their own selves.(115b)
Socrates goes into a chamber to bathe. What should we make of this? Why care for his body when the whole time he has been treating it without regard and even with contempt?
Despite all that Socrates has said to convince his friends that what is happening is a good thing, they are distraught:
Socrates, on the other hand, did not appear to be troubled at all as he took the cup and drank.
Perhaps the appropriate question is not whether this is a comedy or a tragedy but rather the question of how we choose to persuade ourselves. One might wonder how this can be seen as a comedy. To begin to answer that question we might consider that Socrates himself did not regard his life or its end as a tragedy. This is so not because of what happened but because of how he judges. Argument cannot reveal the good, why it is best that things are as they are. Socrates seems to have persuaded himself and wants to persuade others that what is best is to be persuaded that what is is best.
Being told he could not, as he ironically requested, pour a libation (117b), he says:
Much has been written about what this means. Asclepius is the god of medicine. This suggests that there has been a cure or recovery. Some interpret this to mean that Socrates has been cured of the disease of life. But he says “we” not “I”.
In the center of the dialogue Phaedo said that they had been “healed” of their distress and readiness to abandon argument. (89a) In other words, Socrates saved them from misologic,about which he said "there is no greater evil than hating arguments". (89d)
There is one other mention of illness. In the beginning when we are told that Plato was ill. We are not told the nature of the illness that kept him away, but we know he recovered. Perhaps he too was cured of misologic. Rather than giving up on philosophy he went on to make the “greatest music”. Misologic is at the center of the problem, framed by Plato’s illness and the offer to Asclepius. And perhaps conquering the greatest evil is in the end a good reason to regard this as a comedy rather than a tragedy.
It was this that caught my eye in your comments on reincarnation, and that had me encouraging you to produce this thread. I find an uncertain Socrates far more agreeable than a dogmatic Socrates.
Thank you for your efforts. I trust the thread was worth your while, perhaps in terms of ordering your understanding, perhaps in terms of addressing the various comments here.
You are right, The Theaetetus, as well as many of the other dialogues, ends in aporia. What is less well known or agreed upon is that there are also aporia in Aristotle. Some recent work addresses this.
In my opinion, and I am not alone, Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle were all zetetic skeptics - driven by the knowledge that they did not know to inquire.
Another thing worth pointing out in the Theaetetus is that there is no mention of recollection. It would be here, in a dialogue devoted to knowledge, that one would expect to find it if it was something he accepted.
Quoting Banno
It was an enjoyable challenge trying to make sense of the dialogue and putting all the pieces together. No doubt, there are pieces I left out. Perhaps only those who have a fondness for Plato would find my commentary of interest, but in my opinions the details matter. I know that there are some here who admire Plato who did not appreciate what I had to say because it runs counter to their own assumptions. But running counter to assumptions is fundamental to Socrates and Plato.
I do not know if anyone read it but chose to remain silent. I hope so.
I learned a lot.
The absence of Plato in the discussion is very strange set against the work to make the dialogues a report of what Socrates said. There is something about the distance from what happened that frames the dialogues.
I am glad to hear that.
I've been following along, and thanks for your patient explication. This thread has taught me to pay more attention to the detail - particularly the objections from the various interlocutors, and the subtlety of some of the distinctions made in the arguments. Also one thing I do commend is your emphasis on interpreting the texts on their own terms and being aware of hidden interpretive agendas. (Although I think I'm probably one of those you have in mind when you say that you challenge my own assumptions, but I'm also confident that if I concentrate hard enough, I wouldn't have too much trouble defending them. )
I wonder if you're familiar with Katja Vogt. She is a contemporary professor of philosophy at Columbia. She's the author of the SEP article on ancient skepticism.
I bought her book, Belief and Truth, on the basis of the [url=https://katjavogt.github.io/belief-and-truth/]abstact on her website -
although I found it a very hard book to read, in part because it's one of those academic texts where the footnotes seem to make up about two thirds of every other page, and I didn't make a lot of headway with it at the time. I will go back to it.
However, I think there's an underlying tension between scepticism ancient and modern. I think that it's because modern sceptics tend to be scientific sceptics - for many, scepticism implicitly pertains to non-scientific claims, the natural target of which is religion, which is invariably depicted in terms of unjustified belief, whereas those claims that can be tested against empirical evidence can be regarded as justified. That seems the natural faultline in today's culture.
But I think the ancient sceptics were sceptical in a completely different way, that is, they were sceptical of the testimony of the senses. Which means that, in some sense, they are sceptical of the reality of the empirical world. insofar as this is something only ever known by the senses. For instance, Vogt says in the SEP article:
So that might be a form of scepticism, but it's nothing like today's scientific scepticism, I would contend. Likewise, as is well-known, it is thought that Pyrrho of Elis, an important source of ancient scepticism, was influenced by the Buddhist philosophers of Gandhara who taught the 'doctrine of cessation' which was very similar to his 'doctrine of ataraxia' (see Everard Flintoff, Pyrrho and india). But because in today's culture, we identify Buddhism with religion, then it is naturally assumed that it must be a form of belief, and so, must be incompatible with scepticism.
Also, there's another couple of passages in the Phaedo that I would like to revisit, (although I'm finding it difficult to concentrate on it, as I have many other balls in the air right at the moment.) But I will certainly be appending some more questions and comments on the text.
Quoting Fooloso4
I have no particular fondness for Plato - he gives me such a hard time !
You are right, the details matter and, of course, you have left pieces out (otherwise it would be a book !). They possibly contain some less important details...but then again...
I can't help thinking about the issue of 'suicide' which we quickly passed over, here:
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/534770
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/534835
Perhaps it was discussed later and I missed it ?
All in all, it helped me gain a far greater understanding than I had before.
Admittedly, not difficult given my beginner's starting point.
Quoting Banno
Quoting Fooloso4
As noted, I have struggled on a few levels: To read the text, analyse and understand it. At the same time as keeping up with the commentary and comments. Also, discovering the whole spectrum of interpretations...
For me, the pace was about as twice as fast as I would have liked.
I will still keep on...and hope this thread does too...
Quoting Wayfarer
Likewise. Also, this:
Quoting Wayfarer
I have been following the text and audio files as recommended:
Quoting Fooloso4
https://librivox.app/book/4421
Different translations.
So, after audio 2 of the 8 files, I decided to list a rough correspondence to the text :
2. ends at 70b-d > ( c. 20 mins)
3. 70d - 78b > pp 16-26 ( 24m)
4. 78b - 84b > 26-34 ( 21m)
5. 84c - 95a > 34-46 (33m)
6. 95a - 102a > 46-54 (17m)
7. 102b - 108c > 54-63 (21m)
8. > final segment (27m)
I hope this encourages any other beginner trying to read or follow/participate in the discussion.
Quoting Fooloso4
I am sure that, given the view count (1.3K) there could well be a few...
Also, as linked to earlier:
Quoting IEP article Plato: Phaedo
* the audio files are great and help identify the tones, especially those of humour...
Best not to read in bed - unless suffering from insomnia - they have a hypnotic quality :yawn:
I don't know the context but this seems to be overstating the problem. Belief should be critically examined but where it cannot be replaced by knowledge it is all we have to work with. In the quest for knowledge saying that it is shameful might be a rallying cry but Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle all begin with the examination of opinion and end it aporia; thereby providing knowledge that we do not know.
You are right about their zetetic skepticism being something different from modern skepticism. Modern skepticism, as I understand it, occurs as the result of representational theories of perception. What we see are representations in the mind. We cannot step outside these representations to determine whether things are as we represent them. It also differs from Pyrrhonian skepticism. The goal of zetetic skeptic is not the suspension of judgment. It is an inquiry into what seems best or most likely to be true, while fully aware that what seems to be may not be what is.
The issue arises because of Socrates' choice to stay in Athens and drink the poison rather than flee. To some this seems like suicide, but it is questionable whether not doing everything you can to save your life amounts to suicide. In the Crito Socrates gives his reasons for his decision to stay.
At the end he does not simply calmly drink the poison, he:
I don't think this is an indication of suicide but rather his eagerness to find out what happens next, if anything. And, of course, if death is nothingness then he won't find out.
There is also another issue: if being dead is so much better than the prison of life why not escape. Socrates appeals to the gods and our being their servants, but I do not know if there is a better argument to be found in the dialogue.
Quoting Amity
I am thinking of following up with something more diagrammatic, an overview.
Quoting Fooloso4
Quoting Amity
Yes, that might be helpful. As you know, I am not a complete 'beginner'. However, every time there's a book discussion I certainly feel like one as I try to navigate the path to understanding.
Would be great to have a World Wide Map. The Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy starring Plato and friends.
If you take this path, then this is where you end up. Great scenery but tough hill to climb.
There's a short cut here...for those less able.
Isn't that what Plato did - catering for 2 types of audience - Arguments v Myths ?
What is the final destination - why - what motivation is there to set out in the first place ?
All types of travellers...
So, any cartographers out there ?
Can you draw a picture of the highly structured overview: 'The Examined Life: Notes on Plato's Phaedo' by Sean Hannan (free pdf) ?
He writes in sections and subsections.
For example:
1. Background
a. to f.
2. The Final Conversation Begins (57a- 62e )
a. Setting the Stage
i. to vii.
b. The Highest Art
i. to v.
Etc, etc...
A sample from page 1.
Quoting Sean Hannan: Notes on Plato's Phaedo
I think @Fooloso4 you have set yourself another challenge - I look forward to whatever draws people in...or connects the dots :cool:
I think you are using the wrong translation.
Socrates says:
“… when death attacks the human being, the mortal part of him dies, it seems, whereas the immortal part departs intact and undestroyed, and is gone, having retreated from death […] And so, more surely than anything, Cebes, soul is immortal and imperishable, and all our souls really will exist in Hades” 106e -107a
Cebes replies :
“For my part, Socrates, I’ve nothing else to say against this, nor can I doubt the arguments in any way”. 107a
Simmias agrees, but still has some doubts:
“… I’m compelled still to keep some doubt in my mind about what has been said” 107b
Socrates has the final word:
“As it is, however, since the soul is evidently immortal, it could have no means of safety or of escaping evils, other than becoming both as good and as wise as possible”
Concerning the myth he tells of Hades, Socrates says:
“… since the soul turns out to be immortal, I think that for someone who believes this to be so it is both fitting and worth the risk – for fair is the risk – to insist that either what I have said or something like it is true concerning our souls and their dwelling places” 114d
For some strange reason you keep leaving out "However, since the soul turns out to be immortal".
Conclusion: Socrates does not doubt the immortality of the soul or its journey to Hades.
“Now it would not be fitting for a man of sense to maintain that all this is just as I have described it, but that this or something like it is true concerning our souls and their abodes, since the soul is shown to be immortal, I think he may properly and worthily venture to believe; for the venture is well worth while"
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=plat.+phaedo+114d
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You neglect to include the following from this translation:
Whether or not the soul has been shown to be immortal is a basic question of my essay. I show how and why each of the arguments fail. It is because the arguments fail that he used myths to persuade, charms and incantations.
Note how many of the translations you cite include the idea that it is worth the risk to believe. If something has been proven to be true there is no reason to risk believing it is true.
I followed the text, and only your commentary on it, for which I offer respect. Silently.
Thank you. I am familiar with some of the secondary literature but chose to read the dialogue itself by itself without recourse to it. My intention was in part to demonstrate how a Platonic dialogue can be read; or at least one way it can be read.
That's precisely why it doesn't seem right to leave out statements like "since the soul is shown to be immortal" from the translation unless you have a good reason or explanation for it, which you don't seem to have.
Why does the statement "the soul is shown to be immortal" bother you so much as to exclude it from the translation? Freudian slip, perhaps? And it isn't for the first time that you "misread" the text.
Socrates has already shown at 72a - 73a why it is logical to believe in the immortality of soul and rebirth.
Socrates says:
"We agree in this way too that living people have come to be from the dead no less than dead people from the living" 72a
Cebes agrees:
"... and in my opinion what you're saying is completely true" 72d
To which Socrates responds:
"I think that is exactly how it is" 72d
Simmias continues to doubt:
"But Cebes, what are the proofs for this?" 73a
etc.
Obviously, Socrates has no hard proof, but he has presented convincing arguments which are accepted by Cebes while Simmias is still doubting. And even Simmias in the end is nearly fully convinced.
On the whole, what the dialogue is showing is that the philosopher should accept a belief only after rationally examining and analyzing it. That's the only way to acquire knowledge instead of relying on opinion or belief. But some will never be totally convinced. That is all. There is absolutely no need to read too much into the text.
Read it in context. The myth is about the soul's immortality. It is followed by the statement above calling the truth of the myth into question. Once again, I do not include it because he did not show the soul's immortality. To repeat that the soul is immortal is to sing the incantation.
Quoting Apollodorus
You have not bothered to read what I said about that argument. It does not show that it is logical, but you have to follow the argument to see that. I did. A statement is not an argument.
Quoting Apollodorus
Yes, Cebes accepts it. He accepts everything Socrates says, even when it should be clear to a thoughtful reader that he should not. In fact, Socrates himself makes it clear that he should not. Both Cebes and Simmias are followers of Pythagoras. They come into the discussion believing in the immortality of the soul. The fact that at the end Simmias is less certain does not show that the arguments convinced him, just the opposite.
Quoting Apollodorus
Then why the need for myth? Again, all of this is discussed.
Quoting Apollodorus
But in the end all they have is opinion and belief. They do not have knowledge of the fate of the soul.
Quoting Apollodorus
It is not reading into the text, which was something you were quite anxious to do. It is carefully reading the text. But clearly you think there is no need to read the text at all.
Your approach is odd. It's normal to bring something personal to interpretation, but it's not normal to edit a work based on your views.
They do have an account of the fate of the soul which Cebes agrees with and even Socrates says that it may not be exactly like that but it's worth insisting that either the described situation or something similar is true.
Nowhere does he reject the account. He concludes with the remark:
"Now as for you, Simmias, Cebes and you others, you will each make the journey [to Hades] some time hereafter" 115a
Why would Socrates conclude with that remark if he didn't believe in his own account?
Read the essay.
Not "discussed", more like misinterpreted.
Plato is using mythos and logos but nowhere does he suggest that one should be reduced to the other.
Socrates’ account of Hades is simply given to complete his interlocutors’ understanding of the issue and to contrast it with Aeschylus’ Telephus:
“So it turns out that the journey is not as Aeschylus’ Telephus says. He says that a straightforward “path” leads to Hades, whereas it seems to me to be neither straightforward nor single …” 108a
Very clear and it requires no reading into whatsoever, unless you want to put a spin on it.
Why do you think this undermines the assertion of the immortality of the soul? Soon afterwards, Socrates says a man ‘should be in good cheer’ about his life, if he ‘has rejected the pleasures and ornaments of the body, thinking they are alien to him and more likely to do him harm than good’ (114e). And then exhorts Crito to follow his instructions carefully, so that he too might enjoy a similar fate.
Could it not be the case that the exhortation to ‘repeat such things to himself’ is so as not to loose sight of the importance of the ‘care of the soul’? (Perhaps even as a mantra.) I find that a much more cohesive explanation, than the idea that Socrates (and Plato) are covertly signalling doubt about the immortality of the soul.
Absolutely. This is also suggested by Simmias' habit of forgetting things.
I can understand that @Fooloso4 is an atheist and all that, but his "interpretation" is simply an unacceptable farce.
I don't. It is the arguments that fail. In the absence of reason he uses myths and charms as a means of persuasion.
Quoting Wayfarer
But it is in life that he exhorts them to care for their soul. No one knows what happens in death.
Quoting Wayfarer
We need to follow the arguments are draw conclusions or be persuaded by charms or incantations.
.
That said, I'm sure Plato is determinedly NOT religious in a Christian, 'God fearing' sense, as 'a person of faith'. I think he would utterly scorn such an attitude. He was, as has been correctly stated, enquiring after knowledge and was contemptuous of mere belief. But the kind of knowledge he sought is demonstrably nearer to a kind of spiritual illumination than to today's scientific naturalism, even though his (and Aristotle's) philosophy were the precursors of it.
Had it ever occurred to you that you may not have understood the arguments?
Of course, but no one has actually shown where I have misunderstood them. I have repeated asked you to do so,
Actually you used this thread to write an essay. You didn't engage other viewpoints.
I did not edit the work, I pointed to a specific point. Whenever we quote from a text we do not include the whole of the work.
Actually, the essay was written over the period of a week. Several times I asked for viewpoints on the section under discussion.
@Apollodorus asked why you ignore the fact that the text has S saying immortality was shown.
You responded that you ignore it because he didn't show it. wtf?
I didn't see those. Sorry.
Socrates did not show that the soul is immortal. I laid out the arguments. Read what Socrates says to Simmias when he expresses his doubts. Read what he says about the limits of arguments. Read what he says about the evaluation of arguments.
He just finished a myth that included the immortality of the soul and followed it with:
As I said, if the immortality of the soul has been demonstrated there would be nothing to risk in believing what has been shown to be true is true.
You ignored other people's views or had their posts deleted.
In their Introduction, Sedley & Long say:
“… in this concluding moment Socrates and his companions are in no doubt as to what it amounts to: soul must leave the body and go to Hades. Thus, at the very close of the defence of immortality, at the point where argument reaches its limit, and is about to give way to eschatological myth, Socrates is seen yet again reaffirming the Hades mythology” p. xxxiii
It looks like you have deliberately chosen another, incomplete translation because it suits your agenda. Sedley & Long’s translation and commentary would have demolished your theory.
You need to consider other scholars' views as well, not only those of atheists and materialists.
Whether this is true or not, you do not ignore a passage where Socrates says it was shown. ???
I am not able to delete other people's posts and had nothing to do with them being deleted.
I asked for comments on what was being read, not what you can find on Wiki or elsewhere. It is my opinion that Plato must be read rather than read about.
Quoting Apollodorus
This is entirely consistent with what I have said. The immortality of the soul has not been shown because to do so would go beyond the limits of argument. Of course he reaffirms the mythology. How could he persuade them otherwise?
This is something he said many times already. He says he repeats it as an incantation.
Emphasis added.
I think the reference to 'our people at home' is clearly a reference to non-philosophers, i.e. those who haven't been trained in philosophy. The fact that they 'know very well' that philosophers 'deserve death' is a mocking reference to the idea that the 'people at home' don't understand at all what the philosopher does about the significance of death, because they do not know in what way the real philosopher desires death, nor in what way they deserve it, nor 'what kind of death it is'.
What does 'what kind of death' mean? How many kinds could there be?
Socrates implies here that the philosopher does 'know very well' the way in which real philosophers desire death. In the next few verses, he describes the fate of the philosopher as joining the 'good men' in a beneficial afterlife, which is distinct from 'the mire' into which the unrighteous fall.
As already stated, Sedley and Long aren't nobodies, they are highly regarded scholars.
David Neil Sedley is a British philosopher and historian of philosophy. He was the seventh Laurence Professor of Ancient Philosophy at Cambridge University.
David Sedley – Wikipedia
Alex Long, of St Andrews is the editor of Immortality in Ancient Philosophy, which brings together original research on immortality from early Greek philosophy, such as the Pythagoreans and Empedocles, to Augustine. The contributors consider not only arguments concerning the soul’s immortality, but also the diverse and often subtle accounts of what immortality is, both in Plato and in less familiar philosophers, such as the early Stoics and Philo of Alexandria.
So, Sedley & Long would have been highly relevant to your “essay” IMHO.
Quoting Wayfarer
Looking at the matter through Timaeus, the identification of oneself as a soul in the sense of being the person you are after death is in tension with the recognition of our mortality. The myth of the Creator working through agents of creation distinguishes mortal man in this way:
That is not the sort of immortality many are hoping for.
I follow. I don't think the eschatology is by any means worked out or finalised. This comes up in the Phaedo in the discussion about 'snow' as being 'a kind' on the one hand, and 'an instance' on the other. So it's a question about the relationship between universals and particulars which was of course to continue being explored for millenia thereafter before petering out in the mangrove deltas of modernity.
But, confining the discussion to what is said and implied in the Phaedo, I think it's still fair to say that the intimation of the immortality of the soul seems more than just a wish.
//ps// Incidentally, check out this title. It's on my to-read list.
Sedley & Long make the following observation:
“And that the souls of the dead exist in Hades was a well-entrenched popular belief too, with its roots in Homer (Odyssey I I). Socrates’ aim in the Phaedo is to establish both the scientific respectability and the real meaning of these traditions [immortality and reincarnation]. The soul’s survival in Hades and its eventual reincarnation start out with the credibility that ancient tradition is assumed to confer on a belief, and Socrates’ central strategy is to establish scientific laws (as we might call them) to which these particular beliefs confirm. Arguments which fail as complete proofs of a thesis may nevertheless have considerable corroborative force when used in this way.”
The relationship between "universals and particulars" is mixed up with different ways we have talked about them over a long time.
What strikes me about the Timaeus passage is the "one who weaves" the immortal and the mortal together must be ourselves. Or if not ourselves, pretty closely related. It is left open as a consideration.
Well, I brought it up because myths were being discussed and there is a dialogue devoted to them.
I read the dialogues as conversations between themselves. They disagree with each other. Some things become more important in one place than in another. But Plato himself puts them side by side. Like they need each other.
In the beginning of the paragraph he says "the multitude" and then toward the end "our people at home". I don't know if he is making a distinction between them. It may be some reference to something related to Thebes.
Quoting Wayfarer
Two ways in which he may have meant this, and possibly both -
The ascetic life, a life without pleasure, is not worth living
There was a distrust of philosophers
I do not know if Socrates says in any of the other dialogues that the philosopher desires death. I think it may have something to do with the theme of both fear of death and their despair over Socrates death. He tells that this is what philosophers want all along.
.
I discuss this. It is important because the same thing occurs with Soul/soul. At the approach of Heat Snow retreats but the stuff melts. Analogously, at the approach of Death Soul retreats but the soul of the man is destroyed.
Quoting Wayfarer
Right. Socrates' soul is of the Kind Soul, but his soul is not the Kind or Form Soul
There are certain continuities that connect them. There are a few passages in the Phaedo that I compare with the Republic. I think the similarities are intentional but the differences are what shed light.
Although I think they are intended to read one against another, I also think they all stand on their own.
Agreed.
It is a difficult matter to explore because who else did/does this sort of thing?
The unique quality is exposing oneself to argument, no matter the consequence.
Thanks, I will look into the original again when I have some time. I think it's one of the crucial issues of metaphysics in this text.
Yes. For me, this exposure to argument is the crux of the matter, no matter what particular religious belief or philosophical stance you take.
Quoting Fooloso4
As @Fooloso4 points out Socrates and his particular mind is unable to give an explanation of the relationship between Forms and things, the unchanging and changing.
Would the Form - 'Mind' be able to ? No. As an abstract concept created by our own minds it can't act.
Only humans can think with their minds and act accordingly to the best of their ability.
Mind as Form is not the same as a particular mind. Does the Form cause the particular or is it the particular that creates the Form ? I think the latter, others will disagree.
Points I find interesting:
1. '...That, I think, is the safest answer I can give myself or anyone else' ( 100c-e).
Why the concern for the 'safest answer' - what did he mean by 'safest' ?
2. What is considered 'the greatest evil'.
Compare (83c-d) - ' the fact that pleasure and pain trick us into thinking that sensory stimuli are to be treated as truest reality. Pleasure and pain seal the soul shut within its bodily cage'.
with (89d) - 'There is not greater evil one can suffer than to hate reasonable discourse'.
Here, we return to the issue of pain/pleasure. Socrates' release from the prison fetters. His body and mind soon to be released from the world, the real troublesome world. The human experience can be nothing other than holistic - mingling and divisions all in the mix.
A philosopher who blames arguments rather than himself must 'spend the rest of his life hating and reviling reasoned discussion and so be deprived of truth and knowledge of reality' (90d).
Socrates assumes the existence of the Forms and asks them to be a given (100b).
They are the true causes of qualities and can keep opposites from mixing with one another (102e-103a)
This basic claim will be crucial for his ultimate defence of the soul's immortality. ( Hannan, p31)
Well, given that I can't accept his alleged assumption...it is unlikely that I will accept the conclusion...
I think accepting such matters is by faith... not by reasoned argument.
Quoting Fooloso4
That sounds good. I am not sure what you mean by 'soul' here, though. His mind, his spirit ?
Why the capitals at 'Kind Soul' ?
Can a mind be Kind ?
Or is it the case that Socrates is one of a kind. With a kind of mind that thinks kindly...and carefully.
And that is the whole point...isn't it ?
Unique. As per @Valentinus quote:
'The unique quality is exposing oneself to argument, no matter the consequence...'
However, the consequences do matter, don't they ?
One that comes to mind is, "How Philosophy Became Socratic: A Study of Plato's Protagoras, Charmades, and Republic" by Laurence Lampert
https://press.uchicago.edu/ucp/books/book/chicago/H/bo8725147.html
He takes the dialogue in their dramatic chronology, how old Socrates was when the dialogue took place.
[Edit] Another is Plato's Trilogy : Theaetetus the Sophist and the Statesman, by Jacob Klein
I skipped over this earlier - not paying attention to the second part.
What did you mean by 'this sort of thing' ?
Stories within a story showing different perspectives ? With the motives of the author(s) in question ?
I think it is Socrates mind ordering things according to kind. It is the kind of thing Mind does. I don't think this is meant to be the intelligible order of the whole. It is a hypothesis by which he makes that order intelligible.
Quoting Amity
Good question. He begins the story of his second sailing by saying how confused he was by looking at things themselves. His hypotheses are his way of bringing order to things. A second sailing means when the wind dies down and you must oar the boat, move it forward under your own power.
Quoting Amity
He begins this statement by saying:
This is important because the arguments for the immortality of the soul may not be true and reliable
arguments. In other words, sometimes the argument is to blame. The philosopher has a responsibility to the argument, and this includes having reasonable expectations about what argument is capable of. If the philosopher comes to hate reasoned discussion because it cannot do what he expects of it it is the philosopher and not the argument that is to blame.
Quoting Amity
After saying he assumes the Form he goes on to say:
The acceptance of the assumption does not come as the result of reasoned argument, it is used as a condition for it.
Quoting Amity
This raises a couple of problems that become clear when he introduces number. In the division between the body and soul where is the activity of thought? If it is in the soul then the soul cannot be one thing because thought is the activity of Mind. Soul would the be composite, a combination of Soul and Mind and the argument that it cannot be destroyed because it is one thing and not composite fails.
Quoting Amity
'Kind' is another English term for 'Form'. The Greek means both. Soul with with a capital indicates the Form rather than a particular soul.
Quoting Amity
This has a double meaning: Socrates is one (a particular) of the the Kind Man, but also unique. Through much of the dialogue no distinction is made between Socrates and his soul. Is he then of the Kind/Form Soul or Man? Is the fate of his soul the same as the fate of the man?
The two uses of 'kind' in English are related. Kind means both the kind of thing something is, that is, its nature or species and something whose nature or disposition is what we describe as kind.
Yes, I did understand that it was the basic assumption and condition of the argument not the conclusion
Quoting Amity
Perhaps I need to clarify.
I meant I can't grant him that basic assumption on which the argument relies or stands.
Shaky ground.
I think any conclusion or belief that the soul is immortal can't be deduced by argument.
Rather it is a matter of faith.
Quoting Fooloso4
Interesting. I had wondered if 'safety' could also mean something 'acceptable' to the status quo - those who had sentenced him.
Perhaps it was necessary to convince his students of the divine, and ideal Form - an afterlife - so that they would be protected from danger.
With Socrates as their mentor, they would have come under suspicion...
This in addition to comforting them that he was absolutely fine with dying. No problem...
Quoting Fooloso4
Yup. Already grasped that, thanks.
Quoting Fooloso4
Really ? How so ?
Like this ?
Quoting Etymology dictionary."
Quoting Fooloso4
Yes, I understand the use of capitals. As in:
Quoting Fooloso4
Emphasis added
and:
Quoting Fooloso4
Emphasis added.
What I don't understand is why you capitalised the words bolded.
1.Why would you say that is the kind of things Mind as Form does ?
How can an abstract concept act ?
2. How are you defining both 'soul' and 'Soul' ?
I think I have suffered enough confusion for today.
I know you did. I was drawing out the point.
Quoting Amity
I agree. I think he himself says as much.
Quoting Amity
Right, and the myths are intended to strengthen that faith.
Quoting Amity
Do you mean the danger of being run out or sentenced to death? Or some other danger? Misologic?
Quoting Amity
I take it you meant danger in the first sense. I think it may also apply in other ways.
Quoting Amity
Also like this:
And this:
Quoting Amity
I think this points to a problem with regard to Forms and what, if anything, Forms do. Does Beauty make things beautiful? Does Justice make things just? Socrates says that Mind arranges or orders things. (97c) Is this 'Mind' a particular mind?
The problem of Forms as causes is incomplete. It is what he refers to as 'ignorant' or 'uneducated'. It is why he later revises this and re-introduces things like 'fire' and not just Heat as a cause.
Quoting Amity
Soul is that which brings life. Here again the distinction is blurred as it was with Snow and snow.
I had been wondering if the Bible could be considered as this type or kind of thing...
There are plenty examples of stories within stories in literature as well as religion and philosophy.
So, it was interesting to see @Fooloso4's examples of:
Quoting Fooloso4
Examples of nested books:
Quoting Wiki: Story within a story
I agree that it can be difficult to explore such works.
It can be frustrating. You keep wondering what the hell is going on and why. Especially if it uses historical characters...is it authentic, does it have to be ? How do you keep track ?
Reading Plato's Phaedo and participating in the discussion is challenging and worthwhile on so many levels. I've mentioned the personal ones before.
The form, structure and language - they make you think about the intention, key themes and different perspectives; the order of events, the presentation of ideas; the very words and their impact, the imagery.
How did Plato do it - in so many different dialogues - why - and what effect did/does it have...
Same with the Bible.
Quoting Fooloso4
Plato used his particular mind to show other minds and perspectives using argument and myth.
His ideas sprang from his mind - but we can usefully ask, from whence came his inspiration?
Quoting Fooloso4
I think I think of soul as spirit which moves you. It needs a force of energy to motivate...and yes, to bring life in a certain kind of way.
Quoting Wiki: Story within a story
So I take it that Plato's literary tricks in the Phaedo and elsewhere, as craftily imitated by the authors of the gospels were intended to make all the tales as a cumulative package more life-like, more credible therefore more convincing to naive un-philosophical people who listen to such stories?
I don't know that they were 'dutifully imitated'. Why would you think so ?
Quoting magritte
Again, I don't know enough about the authors of the gospels. I do seem to remember that Matthew, Mark, Luke and John had different perspectives of Jesus. Perhaps that is what makes it more 'life-like'.
Quoting Wiki: Gospel
Quoting magritte
Hmmm. The stories as listened to at that time - would have reached different types of people. Whether or not they were convinced or persuaded to follow the preachers - would require a way of thinking and believing that could include both the naive and the more experienced. The wise and the not so wise.
As read today - by all ages and types of people, it might not be so much about trying to convince of any truth. Certain nuggets of good ways to act...ideas of how best to live life...can be extracted from the whole Book.
Some people follow it because they see it as the work of God.
I see it as the work of men...
Your thoughts ?
I think that Plato should have been made a saint a very long time ago for what he did for the Church.
First reaction to that was a major laugh-out-loud... :rofl:
I answered this yesterday but I should have made the problem clearer. According to Socrates "safe" answer it is Life that brings life to the body.
According to this the correct answer is the presence of Life makes it living. This gives us the opposites Life and Death.
But after the unnamed man's question and the response Socrates gives above he begins again. According to this new beginning it is not Heat that makes a body hot but fire. (105b-c) We can now see why the new sophisticated answer is not a safe answer. In accord with this new beginning Socrates says:
There are two problems with this. Soul brings life to a body as fire brings heat, but just as the body loses heat when the fire dies, the body loses life when the soul dies. Socrates obscures this problem. He says the fire retreats, or the snow retreats, but these are things not Forms. The snow melts, the fire dies. Second, if there is Soul itself what is its opposite? It can't be body because in the presence of one Form its opposite retreats.
Thought I'd return to this.
The phrase 'man is the measure of all things' was familiar but memory failed me yet again. I thought perhaps Shakespeare.
Think again. And search for information:
Quoting IEP article: Protagorus
So, Plato gets in on the act again. Telling us about Protagorus. Well, well, well...
http://classics.mit.edu/Plato/protagoras.html
and in the Thaetetus:
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/plato-theaetetus/
Oh dear...Plato has by the neck grabbed me again.
If only to see...what he sees...how and why...
Protagorus - I had heard about...but no in-depth knowledge...sounds like a cool customer.
Is there a reason he seldom appears on the scene in TPF discussions ?
Too ancient ?
[Apologies for side-track but...]
Thanks for returning to the question and providing an excellent and thought-provoking follow-up.
Plato's criticism of Protagoras must be carefully read in context in order to see what he is and is not rejecting.
The Forms are presented as if they are transcendent truths, but they are hypotheses.
Man is the measure does not mean that what any man says is thereby true, but it is, after all, man who measures the arguments made by man. A transcendent standard by which to measure is not available to us.
Yes, I was thinking about Protagoras, for example. I was also thinking about the Athenian culture that Plato was unhappy about: the society that put Socrates to death. It was imperious and arrogant, me-centred, politically corrupt, post-truth ('making the better argument appear the worse'), violently opposed to alternative points of view, following the mob wherever the mob leads. It was also producing some of the greatest works of art and philosophy ever made. The Theory of Forms was not (merely) abstract speculation: it came from the gut. In such a world, what are the values and truths that we can trust?
Yes. Good to clarify.
Plato can be interpreted by those who see only what they want to see.
No wonder the guy is so popular and everlasting...
Arousing passions - heated debates - from those who read him as supporting a particular belief system. Perhaps a central pillar of their life.
Quoting Fooloso4
Absolutely true...
You know before this, I could take or leave Plato - mostly leave.
Now, I am reading him with less of a jaundiced eye but still somewhat cross-eyed :nerd:
Glad you returned.
I had kept your post in mind as something I needed to get back to. But you weren't to know that.
Quoting Cuthbert
Good question - for any world.
Quoting Cuthbert
Are you suggesting that is where our values and truths come from ?
Or that what Plato wrote came from his gut ?
What do you mean by that ?
I encourage you to continue the discussion. It is directly related to the text. Perhaps not what you had in mind but one meaning of from the gut is something known without being taught, inborn knowledge or recollection.
I edited my original response but did not know if you saw it. Just thought of another also on Theaetetus the Sophist and the Statesman. "The Being of the Beautiful", by Seth Benardete.
https://press.uchicago.edu/ucp/books/book/chicago/B/bo5971393.html
The question that unifies these three dialogues is: who is the philosopher? The Statesman asks, who is the statesman? The Sophist, who is the Sophist? The Theaetetus, what is knowledge? There is no dialogue The Philosopher. It is up to the reader to ask, who is the philosopher. Perhaps he is discovered somewhere between these three other questions.
It is a difficult matter to explore because who else did/does this sort of thing?
— Valentinus
One that comes to mind is, "How Philosophy Became Socratic: A Study of Plato's Protagoras, Charmades, and Republic" by Laurence Lampert
https://press.uchicago.edu/ucp/books/book/chicago/H/bo8725147.html
He takes the dialogue in their dramatic chronology, how old Socrates was when the dialogue took place.
[Edit] Another is Plato's Trilogy : Theaetetus the Sophist and the Statesman, by Jacob Klein
I was referring to Plato. He is unique in gathering a record of dialogues with different "schools" of thought as actual discussions. The approach of Aristotle of formulating different arguments and comparing them is more like what we are used to.
Thank you for the suggestions. Theaetetus is of great interest to me.
Yes. I knew Plato was unique but didn't really appreciate what it was about the Dialogues that made them so fascinating and rewarding. I have always been confused as to how to get into them, even if I wanted to. I didn't finish reading the Republic - my first attempt more than a few years ago.
Now, it seems I have my foot in the door. I have been inspired not only by @Fooloso4 but other participants. People who have read and know Plato well and who are willing to discuss their thoughts about him and the Phaedo. How it relates to other dialogues. For me, this kind of interaction is exceptional and one of the best reasons for staying with TPF.
For example:
Your: '...gathering a record of dialogues with different "schools" of thought as actual discussions'.'
Together with:
Quoting Cuthbert
Quoting Cuthbert
Quoting Cuthbert
I now really want to read Plato's Protagorus and Theaetetus.
Quoting Fooloso4
As a result, I downloaded the Librivox audio recordings of both.
Last night I listened to audio 1 of Protagorus, trans. Jowett.
Unlike his Phaedo, this has a clear Introduction which helps with orientation.
However, I am not in any rush to discuss them...just yet. Still digesting Phaedo...
'...biography, psychology (see another thread about that)'
Where ? Plato's bio and psych or generally speaking ?
Again, I hadn't realised that Plato wrote ALL of his Dialogues after the death of Socrates.
So much I don't know.
Re: application of wisdom and thought - yes. How much of the gut is involved ?
Quoting Fooloso4
Interesting. I think of it as some kind of a feeling or intuition. Something telling you what feels right or wrong. Not quite the same as Socrates' daimonion but close...
Quoting Cuthbert
Quoting Amity
Can you trust your gut ? I think not but it is a useful starting point.
And sometimes I wish I had listened to it...
I keep missing the second part of your posts.
I think this is why I struggle with Plato. My preference is usually for the practical not the abstract.
Quoting Britannica: How Plato and Aristotle differ
1. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/10914/platos-phaedo/p1
2. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/534860
3. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535343
4. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/535924
5. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/536573
6. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/537114
7. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/537698
8. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/538481
9. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/539501
10. https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/540733
https://dan-shea.medium.com/the-final-argument-for-the-immortality-of-the-soul-in-platos-phaedo-7be1b4d137d6
The problem with the analysis is that it misses the distinction between forms and particulars. It is the form that cannot admit its opposite and so "flees", not the particular. Socrates uses the example of Snow/snow. The form Snow does not perish but the snow on the ground does not " flee" at the approach of heat it perishes. In the same way, the form Soul cannot admit death and flees, but a particular soul perishes.
[quote= "Phaedo 103b-103e; http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0170%3Atext%3DPhaedo%3Asection%3D103b"] “You have spoken up like a man,” he said, “but you do not observe the difference between the present doctrine and what we said before. We said before that in the case of concrete things opposites are generated from opposites; whereas now we say that the abstract concept of an opposite can never become its own opposite, either in us or in the world about us. Then we were talking about things which possess opposite qualities and are called after them, but now about those very opposites the immanence of which gives the things their names. We say that these latter can never be generated from each other.”
At the same time he looked at Cebes and said: “And you—are you troubled by any of our friends' objections?”
“No,” said Cebes, “not this time; though I confess that objections often do trouble me.”
“Well, we are quite agreed,” said Socrates, “upon this, that an opposite can never be its own opposite.”
“Entirely agreed,” said Cebes.
“Now,” said he, “see if you agree with me in what follows: Is there something that you call heat and something you call cold?”
“Yes.”
“Are they the same as snow and fire?”
[103d] “No, not at all.”
“But heat is a different thing from fire and cold differs from snow?”
“Yes.”
“Yet I fancy you believe that snow, if (to employ the form of phrase we used before) it admits heat, will no longer be what it was, namely snow, and also warm, but will either withdraw when heat approaches it or will cease to exist.”
“Certainly.”
“And similarly fire, when cold approaches it, will either withdraw or perish. It will never succeed in admitting cold and being still fire, [103e] as it was before, and also cold.”
“That is true,” said he.
“The fact is,” said he, “in some such cases, that not only the abstract idea itself has a right to the same name through all time, but also something else, which is not the idea, but which always, whenever it exists, has the form of the idea."[/quote]
My gloss on this, is that 'concrete things', or individual particulars, are always a mixture, whereas the forms, or the ideas of things, are not. The form cannot admit opposites because it's not compounded, whereas individual particulars are compounded from essence and accidental properties. But
'On some such cases, that not only the abstract idea itself has a right to the same name through all time, but also something else, which is not the idea, but which always, whenever it exists, has the form of the idea.' So Socrates, whilst not the same as the idea, has or is the form of the soul, which is immortal. This or that instance of snow will melt (perish) but the idea of cold cannot perish.
//ps//And besides, if any names in Western culture live on, surely Socrates is among them. In that sense he’s certainly immortal, even if the person of Socrates is no longer.//
“So the soul will never admit the opposite of that which it brings along, as we agree from what has been said?” (105d)
The soul brings along Life. The opposite of what the soul brings along is Death. In accord with what has been said, snow brings Cold and three Odd. Snow cannot admit Hot without being destroyed. Three cannot admit Even and remain three. In the same way, soul cannot admit Death and remain soul.
Just as Cold and Odd retreat but not the snow or three, Life retreats but not the soul. Death comes and the soul perishes or is destroyed.
So, are you saying that Plato's argument for the immortality of the soul, as explained by Socrates, fails, or that he is not actually arguing for the immortality of the soul?
Isn't it just as plausible to say that the soul, which is immortal, is withdrawn from the body at death, meaning that, the body is what perishes?
I don't agree with F's interpretation, but I don't think this sort of attitude is called for. There's no reason we can't just exchange perspectives in a civil manner, Wayfarer.
You actually directly disagreed, that's more than just "putting another view."
In my opinion, Plato does not want the reader to just accept the arguments, but to examine and evaluate them. Why would he give the examples of three/Odd, snow/Cold, fire/Hot, if not to draw a parallel with soul/Life?
At 106a Socrates asks whether three things would be imperishable if Odd is imperishable and whether snow would slip away unmelted rather than admit Hot. Cebes agrees that the three things and the snow would be imperishable. Should we? We know that snow melts and having three of something does not mean I will always have these three things.
He is trying to convince Cebes and Simmias of the immortality of the soul. Cebes is convinced. Simmias is not so sure. Argument has its limits. It cannot determine what happens to us when we die. This raises the problem misologic, the hatred of argument, which can occur when someone expects too much from argument. (89d)
Agree. Thanks for the clarification!
Excellent. Keep up the good work.
Departure is all that is real. And nothing remains. In logical parlance, inference from a premise is an "extension". But this only means it, reason, is no real term. That is, the terms of reason are only real in the discipline that ultimately undoes them. If realness is departure then the only possible recognition of the departed is the terms rigorously effaced in the rigor of their extension.
Those engaged in the dialectic evince who they really are in the quality of their discipline dedicated to the eventuation of departure, of being departed and only known from the character of that discipline eventuating it. We talk. And we show our worth by proving how wrong every premise is that would preserve our convictions. Becoming unconvinced, through a most rigorous exercise, is who we are. The point is, then, to keep the discussion alive even as the end is most near.
One thing should be clear, to take Socrates as making certain assertions is a mug's game.
Quoting Apollodorus
And, as explained on the other thread, given that Socrates used his account of immortality and afterlife to comfort his friends, it makes no sense to interpret his expression "one must chant this to oneself" to mean that everything is just a myth. On the contrary, its only logical meaning is "keep saying it to yourself", i.e., "believe it and take comfort in it". This was Socrates' last instruction to his followers.
But, like everyone else here, I do my best to understand and I am, of course, willing to be corrected and instructed in the actual truth.
I am not going to go over the same things with you again and again without end. You have stated your position, why repeat it? Why quote yourself repeating it yet again?
And what I've learned from your comments is that Straussian esotericism isn't always the best approach to reading Plato.
There is a limit to how much you can reasonably read into a passage or text without running the risk of leaving evidence and reason behind and going down an endless rabbit hole from where it may be difficult to retrieve a sense of reality.
Sometimes it seems more prudent to just adhere to a prima facie reading than insisting on evidence-free interpretation and wild speculation that doesn't lead anywhere.
What you say and what you do are obviously not the same. Or do you think learning involves repeated deliberate misrepresentation? Or is it the incessant attempt to push forward your own interpretation? Or is it the belligerent attempt to discredit someone you have not read and do not know anything about? You know nothing about what you misleadingly call "Straussian esotericism" and yet in your desire to learn you simply dismiss it.
Or perhaps when you say you are here to learn you mean ignoring Plato as well. Your prima facie is at odds with what Socrates says:
Several times I have traced the arguments in the text, connecting one statement with the next, but in your interest to learn you have simply ignored them. Preferring to take statements out of context as if the whole of the problem is contained in an isolated statement.
Wayfarer says it's better to just respect one another's viewpoints. You can show respect for Apo's views.
But you are quoting that out of context, aren't you? Socrates was obviously talking about rational, evidence-based argument, not evidence-free speculation.
To say "Socrates says 'one must chant such things to oneself' (Phaedo 114d), therefore he indicates that he is telling myths or lies" is not really rational, evidence-based argument. It is evidence-free speculation just like your other claims about the immortality of soul, etc.
As you can see, your speculation is blatantly contradicted by Socrates' own statement to the effect that "this is the reason why a man should be confident about his own soul".
That line of argument is wholly of your own creation. This is not the first time you have done this. You falsely accuse me of saying something then argue against it. It is dishonest and intended only to win arguments. It is antithetical to your claim that you are here to learn.
More than once you have done this and each time I challenge you to point out where I said what you claimed I said you go silent and move on to something else.
There are two ways of reading the dialogues that move in opposite directions. The first attempts to limit them, to close them off, to put an end to inquiry and discussion. The first was is dogmatic, and sees the dialogues as conforming to and confirming the reader's beliefs. The second allows the dialogues to open up, to give a view of a complex terrain of interrelated questions and problems, or in some cases leading the reader into a labyrinth, and in all cases aporia.
Well, that's exactly where the problem lies. You are not "allowing the dialogue to open up" at all. You are reading things into it that are simply not there. You are building a Straussian labyrinth (or rabbit hole) and jump right into it and expect others to follow you.
These are your own statements from page 12, are they not?
Quoting Fooloso4
From what I see, your statement suggests that (1) Socrates is "telling them myths" and (2) has "persuaded himself and wants to persuade others".
But what he actually says is:
"... this or something like it is true concerning our souls and their abodes, since the soul is shown to be immortal..."
Besides, if Socrates' intention is to comfort his friends, why would he tell them at the very end "actually, all this is just a myth"?
It makes no sense whatsoever. And he does not say so.
The text simply says "There is a need to sing such things to oneself (as to soothe oneself)".
This clearly indicates Socrates' intention to soothe or comfort his friends, not to tell them myths or lies.
I have already discussed Plato's use of myths. As to whether the soul has been shown to be immortal see my responses above to Wayfarer.
I think that's a reference to 'mantrayana', repetition of a sacred word of phrase.
Yes,socrates use of mantras shows how a lot of the worlds spiritual and mystical traditions use similiar techniques to obtain union with the divine.
The verb is ??????? epaeido “sing to someone as to soothe him” which is the same verb used at 77e in the sense of “sing someone’s fear away”:
https://lsj.gr/wiki/%E1%BC%90%CF%80%CE%B1%CE%B5%CE%AF%CE%B4%CF%89
If it is a "mantra", what exactly would the "sacred word or phrase" be at 114d, 77e, etc?
Socrates says:
This isn't about Plato's use of myths. It is about your claim that Socrates at 114d is telling his friends that "one should “sing incantations to himself, over and over again”, which is not true.
And you can't infer from it that he is telling them myths, i.e., lies.
It definitely isn't a reference to mantrams. It is a Greek expression similar to singing a lullaby to a child to soothe them and is perfectly consistent with 77e where it expressly refers to singing away a child's fear.
Nothing to do with "incantations" or "Socrates convincing himself" of something he believes to be a myth.
If he does believe it to be a myth, why would he try to convince himself? And why would he say "since the soul turns out to be immortal", etc.?
Rather, the fact is that Socrates simply tells the story - mythos can perfectly well mean "story" or "account" - to comfort his friends (and perhaps to overcome his own fear) as would be entirely normal in the situation. After all, he was only human.
It is a direct quote. Here's another translation:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0170%3Atext%3DPhaedo%3Apage%3D114
Quoting Apollodorus
Right. You are catching on now. It was your own incorrect assumption that for the Greeks myths meant lies.
The quote continues:
Right. So "again and again" is not in the Greek text!
And neither is "as if they were magic charms".
The text simply says "sing to oneself". And the verb used is ??????? epaeido "sing to" which is the same verb used at 77e in the sense of “sing someone’s fear away”.
But, obviously, you can't read Greek and you always use translations that suit your Straussian agenda.
In any case, the story about "chanting incantations again and again" is your own invention.
It isn’t “just as plausible” but far more plausible (and logical) if we read the text carefully. I think that point was already settled at page 13:
Quoting Apollodorus
- D. Sedley & A. Long, Meno and Phaedo
Bearing in mind that Socrates and his companions were Greeks living in 4th-century BC Athens, it follows that ‘retreat from death’ means leave the body and go to Hades as explained at 106e - 107a.
If you want to quibble over the difference between 'again and again' and 'repeat' then go ahead.
Quoting Apollodorus
According to Liddell and Scott:
Your compulsive obsession with finding some point, however insignificant, to argue against, is, if not pathological, small minded.
Socrates argues that the soul cannot be an attunement if the tuning existed prior to what is tuned. But there is an argument that Socrates neglects to pursue. 'Tuned and Untuned'. The tuning of a lyre exists apart from any particular lyre. It is the same relationship between the Equal and things that are equal, and the Beautiful or Just and things that are beautiful or just. In accord with that argument the Tuning of the Lyre still exists, but the tuning of a particular lyre does not endure once that lyre is destroyed. Why does he neglect this? The consequence would be the death of the soul along with the body.
The Tuning of the Lyre exists apart from any particular lyre. The Tuning is the relationship between frequencies of the strings. It is this relationship of frequencies that is used to tune a particular lyre. Analogously, the Tuning of the body exists apart from any particular body, it is the relationship of bodily parts, but the tuning of any particular body suffers the same fate as the tuning of any particular lyre.
The claim that the soul is "special" and therefore what applies to other things he gives examples of as snow and three does not apply to it weak. It does not become a "dead soul" any more that snow becomes hot or three things becomes even. Neither the snow nor the three things retreats, they perish. If the soul is not like those examples then the argument still fails because the cases used in the argument are not comparable.
If you want to invent things that are not in the original text and believe in your own inventions, then go ahead. But in that case don't expect anyone to take you seriously. :grin:
Quoting Fooloso4
Yes, "sing to one so as to soothe him". Exactly as at 77e where Socrates says:
Socrates' intention is to soothe or comfort his friends with a narrative that he believes in, not to tell them lies and also them them that he is telling them lies.
Your claims are illogical and absurd and stand refuted.
You are confused.
Of course the soul is special, being unlike anything else. The comparison is made with certain qualifications. Otherwise no comparison can be made.
However, as Sedley and Long point out, the proof is already provided at 105c - e:
What it says is:
Quoting Fooloso4
There is no doubt the charms and incantations were used to soothe their fear of death. Your objection was to the terms 'incantations' and 'charms'.
Quoting Apollodorus
Whether Socrates believed these stories is an open question. See what he says in the Apology about what death may have in store for us. Of course no one tells you lies and at the same time tells you that they are lies! You really are having a hard time sorting this all out.
This is question begging. The question is whether or not the soul is immortal.
Quoting Apollodorus
This is not a proof it is an assertion. The fact that Cebes is satisfied does not mean that we should be. Cebes agrees with everything Socrates says. That is something that should be taken note of.
Socrates answers that question in the affirmative:
And:
Socrates clearly states that the soul is immortal and urges his companions to have confidence in their own souls.
Quoting Fooloso4
It is an assertion that is accepted by Socrates and Cebes as proof. What atheists and sophists believe is not the issue.
Quoting Fooloso4
Correct. "Incantations" and "charms" are not in the Greek text, and the same applies to your "over and over again". Hence you made them up for the purpose of Straussian esotericism and sophistry.
Quoting Fooloso4
Exactly. And no one tells himself lies. Therefore Socrates is not lying either to himself or to his companions!
Once again you refuse to follow the argument. Claiming it is a special case is special pleading.
Quoting Apollodorus
Are you claiming that Liddell and Scott is wrong? Were they influenced by Strauss?
Quoting Apollodorus
Quoting two different translations is not making stuff up
From the IEP:
https://iep.utm.edu/phaedo/
And Gallop:
and Grube:
Quoting Apollodorus
It is your assumption that incantations and charms are lies.
Does Socrates offer arguments in believing and asserting Soul is immortal? What are they?
Well, I don't think this is really true. There are principles to be followed in tuning the instrument, but the tuning itself is dependent on hearing the particular notes and judging the relation between them as the desired ones. So the tuning does not exist apart from the instrument, as it is dependent on the instrument making those tones so that they may be judged.
Quoting Fooloso4
See, it is necessary to have those tones, in order to have tones with that the relationship between them. Just having the principle does not constitute "the tuning of a lyre" To state the principle, or relationships between frequency, or lengths of similar strings, in mathematical terms, or however you state it, does not give you "the tuning of a lyre". It gives you 'how to tune a lyre'.
Quoting Fooloso4
The argument against the soul as a harmony, is not intended to say anything about the existence of the soul after death. That's why Socrates goes to the other dialectical argument (argument from the meaning of words) afterwards. The harmony argument shows that 'how to tune a lyre', the principle concerning the relationship between tones, is prior to 'the tuning of a lyre'. So the soul is prior to the body, by having that principle of how to create harmony within the parts of the body. So at 95 c-d he explains how the proof that the soul is prior to the man, does not prove that the soul is immortal. It may be the case that entering the body of a man is the decline of the soul, that this is the beginning of the end.
The tuning does not tune the lyre or body, the lyre or body is tuned according to the tuning. It must exist in order to be tuned.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
But if the argument is accepted then the soul is not immortal. The destruction of the lyre means the destruction of its tuning, and analogously the destruction of the body would mean the destruction of its tuning. How a lyre or body is tuned according to the relationship of its part is not affected, but the tuning of this particular lyre or body certainly is when the lyre or body is destroyed,
But the harmonies, which are ratios, don't come into existence when the lyre is tuned. They are the same whether there is any lyre or not. It's those that represent 'the immortal'. (The discovery that harmonies are ratios was, I believe, one of the principle discoveries of the Pythagoreans.)
This is strangely worded. If it is true that the act of tuning is what causes the lyre to be tuned, then it contradicts this to say "The tuning does not tune the lyre or body", as you do say. I think we must admit that it is the act of tuning which causes the lyre to be tuned, so we can't accept what you say here, "the tuning does not tune the lyre or body".
Quoting Fooloso4
Socrates argues against the position that the soul is like being tuned, ( a harmony in my translation) for the reason I described, the soul is more like the cause of being tuned, which is the act of tuning. When a particular lyre is no longer tuned, the cause of it being tuned, the act of tuning, is no longer tuning that particular lyre, but it is still tuning other instruments..
I really don't think you understand universals.
This is what you are implying. Here is your statement from page 12 to refresh your memory:
Quoting Fooloso4
1. Socrates’ arguments for the immortality of the soul do not fail in the dialogue. He and Cebes agree that the immortality of the soul has been proved at 105e:
See also Phaedrus 245c.
2. You are using weasel words to imply that Socrates has failed to demonstrate the immortality of the soul and is resorting to “charms and incantations” to persuade his companions.
3. However, the Greek text does not say “charms and incantations” or “over and over again”.
The text simply says:
Obviously, the verb “sing” does not refer to “incantations”. It refers to “such things”, i.e. what has been said during the dialogue concerning the soul’s immortality and afterlife.
4. It follows that Socrates is not using “charms and incantations” to persuade his companions of the immortality of the soul. He has already persuaded them and is now telling them to “sing it to themselves” as in a soothing song sung to a child to drive away fear, i.e. to take courage and comfort in what he has told them and what has been agreed on.
IMHO there is a very big difference between what the text actually says and what you imply that it says.
You need to show more respect for people and not constantly try to take us for a ride with unwarranted Straussianist sophistry.
The instrument is tuned in accord with the ratios. The particular lyre, however, is in tune only when the strings of that instrument are at the proper tension.
Quoting Wayfarer
The ratio of frequencies, say 4ths or 5ths is always the same, but the question is whether that ratio exists in any particular instrument. It can only exist when the strings are at proper tension and the string cannot exist at proper tension if the lyre is destroyed.
I do not know the tuning of the lyre, but let's say the strings are tuned in 4ths or 5ths. The standard is independent of any particular lyre, but whether this particular lyre is in tune cannot be independent of the tension of the strings of this lyre, and that tension cannot be achieved when this lyre is destroyed.
What is at issue is the fate of Socrates' soul. It is a question of the distinction between the particular and the universal. The immortality of universal Soul does not tell us what happens to Socrates' soul. The myths in the Phaedo are about particular souls not universal Soul.
The failure of the argument is the result of the limits of argument. No argument can determine the fate of the soul. This does not mean that myths are lies.
Quoting Apollodorus
These are not my words. I gave several translations with those words. In addition, you seem to be unaware that mention of charms and incantation occurs several times throughout the dialogue.
Quoting Apollodorus
The translations I cited were not translated by Strauss. Strauss is not the author of Liddell and Scott lexicon. Did you just ignore all of it? Perhaps you missed it:
According to Liddell and Scott:
Quoting Fooloso4
What if Nurse Ratched had been moved by just one word or gesture to recognize that the main character of the play was as sane as she was? All of a sudden everything he said or did would make sense to her, and not only from then on, but all that he had said or done previously. That is, the space of time and rational extension of it would not limit the transformation of meaning the moment of that recognition is. The act of the moment of that recognition is timeless, not because it extends rationally or temporally from that event, but because the navigation of that extension does not limit or determine the meaning its worth is.
The event of Socrates' death does not set any landmarks upon who he is. No, it is not eternity, but it is more unlimited, and complete, than the full extension of time can contain.
This is not said in the dialogue. On the contrary, Socrates and Cebes agree that the immortality of soul has been proved:
This conclusion is reaffirmed at 107c:
And reaffirmed again at 114d:
No one is asking for your opinion on the validity of Socrates' argument. What matters is that the argument is accepted as conclusive by the characters in the dialogue.
Quoting Fooloso4
Where exactly? And what translation are you using?
Meantime, let me refresh your memory one more time:
Quoting Fooloso4
But you have not demonstrated this to be the case. As already stated, 114d does not say "charms and incantations".
The verb used is ??????? epaeido “sing to someone as to soothe him” which is the same verb used at 77e in the sense of “sing someone’s fear away”.
This is your own definition: "sing to one so as to charm or soothe him". Not "charm" but "charm OR soothe" depending on the situation.
And in the situation under discussion it is "soothe" as Socrates' intention is to soothe or comfort his companions in the face of his imminent death.
Therefore, the literal translation is:
So NO "CHARMS" AND NO "INCANTATIONS".
You could if you really wanted to, substitute "chant" for "sing", as Sedley and Long have done:
But even then it must be borne in mind (1) that the action described by the verb "chant" has the purpose of "soothing" and (2) that it very obviously refers to "such things" viz. the immortality of soul and afterlife which were discussed up to that point.
As the issues relating to soul such as immortality have already been settled and agreed on, it is not and cannot be about "persuading" but about soothing or comforting with thoughts of the things agreed on.
So, basically, you are mistaking a very free English translation for the Greek original and are reading far too much into it because it serves your Straussian agenda. And that is where you problem comes from. You (deliberately) see things that are not there!
Here is your own statement from page 15:
Quoting Fooloso4
Your Straussianist methodology causes you to construct a labyrinth from things that are not in the text and become lost in it. Which is why you can't expect people to take you seriously.
Perhaps the division is not hard and fast.
Quoting Phaedo 103e
The characters accept the argument? Maybe, but Socrates merely uses that assent as grist for his mill. All he really has proven is that they should continue the discipline of dialectic. Challenging each other's convictions doesn't necessarily change minds, but it does change terms, and that dynamic is the whole ball of wax. Meaning is always as retrospective as prospective. And that is where the logical positivists fall on their tokus.
As the examples show snow has the right to the name Cold and three to the name Odd.
At the risk of providing grist for your mill, I agree.
Therein the lie and truth of the charm.
But not only did Socrates offer Charmides a charm that was said to be a cure, we must also consider Charmides own charm and how Socrates sublimated it. The problem of the inner and the outer, beginning with seeing inside his cloak. And related to this the question of the beautiful and the good.
I doubt that anyone would object to dialectic.
However, there is no logical or philosophical prohibition against drawing conclusions, however temporary or provisional, from dialectic.
Unless, perhaps, by "dialectic" we are to understand radical skepticism, nihilism or something else along those lines ....
Yes, and the belief that the soul is like a particular lyre being in tune (a harmony), is the belief which Socrates dismisses as faulty. So the fact that this particular instance of being in tune (a harmony) is destroyed when the lyre is destroyed, is irrelevant to what Socrates is arguing, because he argues that the soul is not like a particular instance of being in tune (a harmony).
I am suggesting that his argument against the body being a tuning is problematic. And that the real reason he dismisses it is because if it were accepted the soul could not be before the body or outlast the body.
The analogy with the lyre is not with a lyre that needs to be tuned but that is tuned, that is, in harmony.
But a lyre does need to be tuned. It doesn't magically tune itself, and if used, it rapidly goes out of tune. So there is a very clear need to assume that there is something which tunes it. Likewise, there is a very clear need to assume that there is something which causes an organism to be organized. That's the soul.
Correct. The soul is that which imparts life to the body in the first place (105c - d). Without the soul there would be no body.
Things exist by virtue of their participating in their distinctive being or Form (Phaedo 101c).
The soul being that which imparts life to the body (105c), it necessarily participates in the Form of Life.
The soul necessarily participating in the Form of Life, it is necessarily deathless.
Being necessarily deathless, the soul cannot die, it must retreat or be destroyed.
Being necessarily deathless and therefore indestructible, the soul cannot be destroyed, it can only retreat.
Ergo, the soul retreats away from the body and to the other world (Hades).
This is the inescapable conclusion.
Do we need to crib on an issue so fundamental to understanding Plato? Dialectic is (friendly) wrestling with each others' convictions. Those convictions may never really change, but the terms of the competition do. And that change in terms is a growth in the ability of both interlocutors to confront his or her own convictions. It is a community in contrariety that is the engine of language, though contradiction (the binary division of being) may yet be the mechanism of reason. That mechanism is epochal, but the personal dynamic of that community is not contiguous to or within any epochal structure. It is not immortality, but it is a personal impact on all time regardless of where we are in the flow of it. Dialectic is meant to involve us in taking personal responsibility for our convictions, and for the terms of our expressing them, not in building an edifice of laws by which we can abdicate it. Plato and Socrates were humanists.
Right, but a lyre is not a living thing. It is not capable of self-movement or self-attunement.
Wayfarer makes an important point:
Quoting Wayfarer
With all his talk of opposite forms Socrates neglects to consider Harmonious /Unharmonious or
Quoting Fooloso4
The question is why Socrates neglected this argument? First, they had already agreed that:
but that does not mean that in evaluating the argument that we too must accept it. As was correctly pointed out:
Quoting Gary M Washburn
The reader of a Platonic dialogue should not be a passive observer simply accepting what has been said.
Second, the argument that the soul is a harmony means that the fate of a particular soul is tied to the fate of a particular body.
All of the arguments have the same problem. The distinction between Soul itself, that is, the Form Soul and the individual soul means that even if Socrates is able to show that Soul continues to exist after death, he has not shown that the individual soul does.
I think dialectic is a strange and elusive thing that can mean different things to different people. Sometimes it may be difficult to agree on a definition of it, let alone on the terms on which it is to be conducted. Participants may or may not play a straight bat, etc.
What ought to be certain, though, is that as a minimum requirement when considering the dialogues two rules should be observed, viz. (1) to keep as close to the original text as possible (and in this case it is possible if there is a will to do so) and not insert things that are not there, and (2) to read Plato within his own framework.
For example, if we say, “Yes, the immortality of the soul has been proved and accepted as fact in the dialogue but we don’t need to accept that,” then we abandon Plato’s work and construct our own. In which case we might as well write a dialogue from scratch and not concern ourselves with Plato.
So, I think it all depends on what the "dialectic" is supposed to achieve. Are we discussing what a dialogue is saying, or what we would like it to say?
Here's a cherry: at the end of Lysis, does Socrates say "..., we still don't know what friendship is?" or "..., we still don't know which one the friend is?" Your answer will determine what kind of Platonist you are.
The question of who the friend is cannot be answered apart from the question of what friendship is. But what is at issue in practical not theoretical, the goal is not to find the definition of friendship but the ability to identify a friend in distinction from someone we may call a friend.
David Bolotin gives an alternative "perhaps more literal" translation of the closing words in the footnotes to his translation:
The dialogue ends in aporia. It is up to us to determine who, if anyone, is our friend.
Have you determined that I am any kind of Platonist?
Determining "what kind of Platonist you are" seems to be part of the problem.
According to some, Socrates had his own "philosophy" that is to be carefully distinguished from that of Plato who, apparently, somehow "distorted" Socrates' teachings and whose own teachings were in turn "distorted" by later Platonists, etc.
At the same time, we cannot know for certain what Socrates taught aside from the patent fact that he asked questions and that, apparently, "he knew that he knew nothing" - which, admittedly, isn't much help.
Even the question as to whether Plato himself was a Platonist has been raised in some quarters.
This being so, it seems advisable to read the dialogues not as "Platonists" or "anti-Platonists" but as impartial and objective observers after which, each reader can draw out his own conclusions or construct his own dialogue as the case may be. And at that point, the dialectic ends and monologue takes over ....
It is worth noting that the dialogue is named after a person, Lysis, rather than the topic, friendship. In short, what is at issue here as in other dialogues is the question of self and other selves.
This ties in nicely with the question of the self in the Phaedo, specifically with the problem of the self as a whole and the analysis of the self as divided or doubled, that is, the place or topos of self in relationship to the separation of body and soul.
This is why the immaterial soul is prior to the material body.
Quoting Fooloso4
Wayfarer's point explains why we must conclude that the immaterial soul is prior to the material body.
And when we proceed further down this route, we see that to account for the real order which inheres within inanimate things, we need to assume an immaterial existence (God) , as prior to the material things of the world.
Quoting Fooloso4
I don't think Socrates neglects this at all. In fact, it is focused on in many dialogues. When the mind succumbs to the desires of the body, and is overwhelmed by these desires, to the point of irrationality, then the mind no longer rules, and the person gets into an unharmonious, or disordered state.
Quoting Fooloso4
I don't see that you have a point. As I already pointed out to you, what is referred to by "the tuning of a lyre" does not exist independently of a particular lyre. The tuning of a lyre is always carried out, and must be carried out on a particular lyre. What is independent of the particular lyre is the principles by which a lyre is tuned, or as I said earlier "how to tune a lyre".
Quoting Fooloso4
But Socrates demonstrates, by the argument we've been discussing, that this idea, "that the soul is a harmony" is false.
This is made crystal clear by the text and ought to be beyond dispute.
Unfortunately, Fooloso4 has a long history of making claims for which either (1) he presents no evidence or (2) which are positively contradicted by the evidence. Which is not surprising as he is a self-declared follower of Leo Strauss whose musings about Plato are pseudo-scientific gobbledygook.
When pressed, he offers two kinds of answer, either (1) that the evidence is there but only “careful” readers like himself can see it or (2) that the issue “has already been discussed or addressed” and there is nothing further to say.
I think we have seen where his theories lead to. He fails to understand that to say (a) “the sirens sing or chant to Odysseus in order to charm, spellbind or put a spell on him” as in Xenophon (Mem. 2.6.11), is totally different from saying (b) “the mother sings or chants to her child in order to soothe it” or, as in the Phaedo, “one must sing or chant to oneself in order to soothe or comfort oneself (with knowledge of the immortality of soul and afterlife).”
The same applies to statements like "the argument that the soul is a harmony means that the fate of a particular soul is tied to the fate of a particular body."
Among other things, this totally ignores the fact that the soul is "tied to the fate of a particular body" only so long as the soul inhabits the body, after which it returns to the world of the Forms with which the soul has much more in common than with physical bodies.
The dialogue clearly states, and scholars have long acknowledged, that the soul here is a special case for the simple reason that it is a life-imparting thing that necessarily participates in the Form of Life (cf. 79b) and that therefore any analogy with snow or anything else apart from soul itself is necessarily an imperfect analogy.
But, of course, when people latch on to irrelevant or imagined details to which they accord disproportionate importance, then we enter the realm of never-ending labyrinths from where there is no easy way out ... :smile:
His argument is that Harmony is a universal. What is at issue is the difference between the universal and particular. Harmony itself is prior to any particular thing that is in harmony.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Elsewhere he accepts that there is a harmony of the soul, that the soul can either be in harmony or out of harmony, but here he rejects it. We need to take a step or two back to see what is going on.
Prior to Socrates examination of the idea that the soul is a tuning Socrates says:
The truth of the matter has not been established. Socrates points to the fact that it may still be that in death there is nothing at all, it is the end.
The argument proceeds on the assumption that:
Socrates argues that the soul cannot be an attunement if the tuning existed prior to what is tuned. But it is only an assumption that the soul exists prior to the body. The alternative, that the soul is not some separate immaterial thing, undercuts the argument that the soul cannot be an attunement of the body.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
In the tripartite soul of the Republic, desire is located in the soul.
This assumption, that the soul exists prior to the body, is based on a more fundamental assumption, that body and soul are two different things. That assumption needs to be examined.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
But as you pointed out, elsewhere he says that it is a harmony.
"Death is the most complete act of being". That could have be written by Sartre himself
It was meant thusly. Sartre writes of being and nothing spread like ripples to compose the universe. The Ideas of Plato are in the world and in us. They are transcendental. There is nothing transcendent
Correct. Simmias himself acknowledges that his theory, though "held by many", has not been demonstrated and he discards it in favor of recollection and immortality:
Plus, as already stated, the soul being a special case, no comparison is perfect. And, when making comparisons, we must consider not only similarities but differences:
Quoting Fooloso4
And it should be obvious to everyone that there are more differences than similarities between the soul and the harmony of a musical instrument.
The worth of time is highly important in more than one sense. In Ancient Greek tradition, the souls of the departed go to the other world which is ruled by Cronus, the God of Time. Whilst ordinary souls are reborn after some time, the perfected ones are divine and enjoy eternal life in paradise.
Quoting Gary M Washburn
That is an interesting point of comparison. I will think about it.
By the way, if you mean to respond to a particular post, there is a swoopy reply button that appears next to the time of post text.
The argument is not about universals. It is a question of whether the activity required to produce, or create, an organized system of parts (the harmony), is necessarily prior to that organized system of parts. Read 93-95.
It definitely is not about universals at all. And another question (at 93b) is the fact that a harmony can be greater or lesser, whereas a soul cannot be any more or less soul than other souls. Which conclusively demolishes the harmony theory. But maybe Fooloso4 is reading a different translation.
Simmias' argument begins here:
All of Socrates' arguments are about Forms or Kinds, which Wayfarer calls universals:
Let's look at the arguments at 93-95.
Socrates asks:
Socrates does not make the proper distinction between a tuning and what is tuned. It is not more or less a tuning, it is more or less in tune.
Note the shift from ‘soul’ to ‘one soul’ and 'a soul'. If death is the “perishing of soul” then a soul, the one that perishes, is to the greatest degree "less fully a soul". In addition Socrates earlier raised the problem of the adulterated condition of a soul. (81c) Such a soul is not "less fully a soul". In both cases it is a matter of the condition of the soul, not whether it is a soul.
Next he asks:
The proper analogy to good and bad souls would be good and bad tunings. Good and bad, virtue and vice, are not things in the soul, they are conditions of the soul, just as sharp and flat are conditions of an attunement. A good soul would be a well tuned soul and a bad soul a poorly tuned one.
Socrates has intentionally jumbled terms and Simmias is unable to disentangle them. Attunement itself cannot be non-attunement just as Equal itself cannot be unequal, but just as equal things are more or less equal, attuned things are more or less in tune.
The argument is as follows: soul is an attunement, vice is lack of attunement, and so the soul cannot be bad and still be a soul because it would no longer be an attunement. What is missing from the argument is that being in or out of tune is a matter of degree. Vice is not the absence of tuning but bad tuning.
Socrates closes this discussion by citing the authority of Homer, the “Divine Poet” (95a). Socrates appeals to Homer’s divine authority or less gloriously, to the authority of the poet rather than the strength of argument. He uses Homer’s authority in support of his argument against attunement on the grounds of the separation of body and soul, and the rule of the soul over the body. But the passage cited (Odyssey XX 17-18) is not a case of the soul ruling the bodily desire, but of the soul controlling its own anger. In an earlier post I discussed the problem of soul’s desire. In both cases the divide between body and soul cannot be maintained.
In Lesser Hippias Hippias contrasts Achilles and Odysseus as opposites, and each as the paradigm of the character they embody. Socrates keeps thwarting this strict contrast, even showing how one idea embodies its opposite. Achilles, far from being what courage is, the very form of the idea, is himself a coward. In order to become the idea of courage he has to die. The definition of the idea by the extreme that is so perfect it is not within the real range of its examples. Odysseus would be, not the extreme, but the typical. His great ambition is to be one of the guys. But to achieve this his men have to die. Between the typical, so embedded in the category it says nothing about it, and the extreme, so outside the category that nothing within the category says anything about it, the idea strains to be anything at all. Between cup and lip, many's the slip. But perhaps the slippage is everything, before after all.
What they disagree on is the nature of soul and whether Simmias' theory of harmony that compares the soul with a harmony is correct.
Socrates and Simmias agree that the theory is an unexamined one that has not been demonstrated and that the theory of recollection which implies that the soul is immortal, is the correct one.
Simmias says:
The discussion finally ends at 94e -95a:
They are not taking Homer as their authority but Homer AND themselves, i.e. the strength of their own argument.
And 94e does not say "the body's desire or anger" but the body's "conditions" or "affections" ?? ???????? ??? ??????? ta pathimata tou somatos. In other words, the soul is not led or ruled by the conditions undergone by the body.
For this reason, it is agreed (1) that the soul cannot be compared to a harmony, (2) that the theory of recollection is correct, and (3) that the soul is immortal.
The immortality of the soul is reaffirmed at 105e:
And at 114d:
The discussion ends with the conclusion that the soul is immortal, is incapable of death and destruction, and "retreats" to the other world (Hades) at the death of the body.
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0170%3Atext%3DPhaedo%3Asection%3D93b
The obvious point is that a soul cannot be more or less of a soul than another soul. Therefore a soul is not comparable to a harmony.
This is precisely why the harmony theory is rejected.
But Cebes and Simmias are fearful of death. What they imagine might happen makes them fearful. They want more than fearless inquiry and speculation. In other words, they want the truth only in so far as the truth is comforting.
Socrates says that their fears are childish and that they are in need of incantations to sing away their fears. (77e) Earlier Socrates said that philosophy is the greatest music. (61a) The song that Socrates sings about death will address their fears.
In the Apology Socrates says:
And here he says:
The arguments are all in service of the hope that there is life after death. The image of life after death brings with it another fear, the fear of punishment for wrongdoing. The image thus serves to promote virtue and justice and discourage vice.
The arguments do not hold up to rigorous logical examination, and yet for some they are persuasive.
In the center of the dialogue, both literally and figuratively, is the problem of misologic and the question of what one expects from philosophy. (89d) Does one desire an outcome that provides comfort and reassurance, or does the pursuit of truth mean that one fearlessly inquires independently of a hoped for outcome? The genius of Plato is to satisfy both desires.
If the arguments are accepted as valid in the dialogue, it is incorrect to claim that they are not.
Readers should not deliberately select imprecise or incorrect translations for the purpose of reading things into them.
Readers should subject their own claims to the same rigorous logical examination to which they subject the dialogue.
If the reading of a dialogue involves or leads to radical skepticism, nihilism, sophistry, evidence-free assumptions, text manipulation and misconstruction, and irrational speculation, then there must be something wrong with the reader.
It is ironic because this in the opposite of what Cebes does. He simply accepts whatever argument Socrates makes. The following exchange is telling:
Cebes hopefulness amounts to saying that if what Socrates says, that the soul is somewhere herself by herself, is true then is true. Cebes states it in such a way that the latter follows as a conclusion from the former, but both state the same thing.
Socrates responds:
Socrates proposes telling a more thorough story in order to see if the stories he has told are likely or not. He shifts from Cebes ‘true’ to ‘likely’. He proposes to “investigate it in some such way as this”:
But, of course, some other argument is needed. First, the argument assumes the very thing that is in question. It is question begging. Second, the living come from the living. Now perhaps a soul separate from the senses, a priori, might think that the living come from the dead, but our experience informs us that we are born of living parents. Third, the argument plays on an ambiguity. Hades is the place of the dead, but the whole force of Socrates' arguments is to show that the soul does not die. And so, life does not come from death if the soul does not die.
The argument from opposites concludes with the claim that this movement must be circular:
Perhaps Cebes is persuaded by this, but it assumes what is still to be proven, the continuation of the soul in death, and ignores the obvious fact of generation of life from the living.
1. A harmony is by nature a harmony according to the degree to which it is harmonized.
2. If it is harmonized more fully and to a greater extent, it is more completely a harmony and a greater harmony, and if it is harmonized less fully and to a lesser extent, it is less completely a harmony and a lesser harmony.
3. But a soul cannot even in the slightest degree be either more or less completely, or to a greater or lesser extent, a soul than another.
4. It follows that a soul cannot be said to be like a harmony.
The other distinction is that whereas in the case of the harmony, the lyre precedes the harmony, in the case of the soul, the soul precedes the body.
In fact, the body cannot exist without the soul as the soul is said to be that which imparts life to the body:
The harmony theory is refuted whereas the recollection theory implying the pre-existence and immortality of the soul, stands, i.e., it is accepted as valid in the dialogue.
It follows that the soul is immortal.
Every part of that argument is wrong
Organization and matter are simultaneous and reflect each other. A thing is determined (a one) and undetermined (flux) at once
Well, you can always email Plato and suggest he write another dialogue. Ideally in 21st-century English or in Mandarin, as the case may be.
Perhaps he can also explain that there is no "shift from ‘soul’ to ‘one soul’ and 'a soul'" :smile:
It's interesting that you know some Greek. But Plato is part of the Aristotelean and Thomistic tradition which tries to prove there is a God and that souls are transcendent and this is contrary to the modern philosophy I'm into. I'm not saying I can prove my beliefs but Plato never has a strong argument for his positions in our eyes and so we point out the flaws and show the alternatives. If you have an infallible argument the soul is separate from the body, do present it and I'll comment
He is part of that tradition is the sense that he influenced their thinking, but this does not mean he would agree with them, especially not with Aquinas.
Quoting Gregory
This is true, but perhaps this is because he did not hold the beliefs that some ascribe to him. The same may be the case with Aristotle, but that is a discussion for another time.
I don't have an infallible argument at all. In fact, it makes no difference to me either way.
I just think that when reading a dialogue we should try to understand its propositions, arguments, and conclusions within Plato's own framework.
Of course, dialogues may have several layers of meaning in which case it would seem indicated to start with the prima facie meaning and then look into other possibilities.
Presumably, Plato is trying to convey a message. If so, a working hypothesis assuming that everything he writes is just "myths" and "lies," would seem to undermine all efforts to extract anything meaningful from the text.
It's worth while to read Plato but when he says the soul is immaterial and that something immaterial like this doesn't come in more or less, he is talking about something he can't know anything about imo
Sure. That is where opinions diverge.
I agree that Plato's arguments are not particularly strong. However, according to scholars, his dialogues are simply dramatized discussions addressing certain philosophical issues that were addressed within the Academy. In which case, the arguments need not be watertight as their main function is to point to the issues discussed as a basis for further inquiry and discussion. Hence the impression of "aporia" one may get when reading the dialogues.
For example, in the Phaedo, Plato wishes to discuss or test his theories of Forms and Recollection and the arguments (and sub-arguments) and conclusions in the dialogue may not be final if the discussion of those topics within the Academy is intended to be ongoing.
It is for this reason that I believe we should not read too much into the dialogues. But nor should we ignore the Platonist tradition whose interpretation of the corpus does not seem to be entirely unfounded.
The problem for moderns, is that 'prior to' must always be interpreted temporally - in terms of temporal sequence. However, I think for the Ancients, 'prior to' means logically, not temporally prior. 'The soul' is eternal, not in the sense of eternal duration, but of being of an order outside of time, of timeless being, of which the individual is an instance. I think that comes through more clearly in neo-Platonism but the idea is there from the outset.
Quoting Fooloso4
I agree it is a mistake to think of Plato as 'a person of faith'. But I think this reflects on the role of belief in Christianity, in particular. Because of Christianity's constitution as a universal religion, it must provide the hope of salvation to all who believe, and believing is central to it. Whereas, according to Katja Vogt, Plato says that 'in believing something, one accepts some content as true without knowing that it is true; one holds something to be true that could turn out to be false. Since our actions reflect what we hold to be true, holding beliefs is potentially harmful for oneself and others. Accordingly, beliefs are ethically worrisome and even, in the words of Plato’s Socrates, “shameful.”'
This sentiment is also echoed in an essay on Schopenhauer's philosophy of religion:
Quoting Schopenhauer's Philosophy of Religion
Thomas Nagel says of Plato's metaphysics that
[quote=Secular Philosophy and the Religious Temperament]Plato was clearly concerned not only with the state of his soul, but also with his relation to the universe at the deepest level. Plato’s metaphysics was not intended to produce merely a detached understanding of reality. His motivation in philosophy was in part to achieve a kind of understanding that would connect him (and therefore every human being) to the whole of reality – intelligibly and if possible satisfyingly. [/quote]
But because of the massive influence of Christianity on Western culture, the distinction between believing and knowing in respect of metaphysics has been blurred or even obliterated. And post-enlightenment culture will naturally understand Plato's metaphysics through that lens - positively for those favourable to Christian Platonism (e.g, Thomists, often Catholic), negatively to those who are sceptical about anything they deem religious (for example, philosophical naturalists). I think that's a powerful undercurrent in all of these debates, unstated but implicit.
//basically, because belief begets unbelief, as broad and deep as the belief that begat it.//
It is not insignificant that all the arguments for the immortality of the soul fail.The reason is simple. No one knows what happens when we die.
But that is not the end of it. Not knowing and positing an immortal soul are two very different things. Of course, myths of the soul were well known and Socrates borrows from them to tell his own. The myths take over where the arguments fail.
In the Republic he says that:
“there is an old quarrel between philosophy and poetry” (607b)
He says the poets are inspired and therefore do not speak from knowledge. Myths can be persuasive in a way that arguments, especially weak arguments, cannot.
There are two reasons why I think Socrates wants to persuade people that the soul is immortal. First, to charm away childish fears of death. Second, through images of death he can improve souls. If one believes that there are rewards and punishment one might lead his life accordingly. In addition, he secures the belief in notions of truth, knowledge, and wisdom. Even if they cannot be found in life they will be found in Hades, and, with the myth of recollection, these are things we already know and so can be found in life.
The philosopher sees the myths for what they are. Her life is guided not by myths and promises but by phronesis.
I think that to label all beliefs "shameful" is an unwarranted exaggeration. Surely, not all beliefs are equal in terms of objective validity, moral and practical value, etc.
Also, there is a very large number of things about which we know very little and about which we hold beliefs or opinions until we learn more about them.
In other words, holding beliefs is an unavoidable fact of life. Unexamined, irrational or morally questionable beliefs may indeed be "shameful", but certainly not beliefs in general?
She says, further to that quote:
This rings true to me.
Katja Vogt is Professor of Classics at Colombia, and the author of the SEP article on ancient skepticism. (I bought the book that the quotes are an abstract from, Belief and Truth, although haven't made a lot of headway with it.)
But to get to the point, here I think she's talking about 'doxai', about the whole mechanism of belief as a cognitive mode. I think 'ancient scepticism' comes from an very different background culture to our own - not only a different culture, but a different period of history, and a different way of being.
I think it is natural to assume many beliefs, and we bring them to everything we look at, whether consciously or not. But I also think this is precisely what is being questioned in these dialogues. However I don't necessarily think this entails unbelief, which is different to scepticism (even though modern scepticism usually means unbelief). It is closer to 'suspension of judgement', epoché - a real sense of not knowing and of not coming to a conclusion based on belief. I think it is based on contemplative insight.
Well, that's right. Belief or doxa can certainly have different meanings. To begin with, there is ordinary belief or opinion and right belief or opinion. The latter is what we hold to be true or is true on the basis of what we know from others, for example. What we know through reason is episteme and what we know through personal experience is gnosis. Higher forms of knowledge include noesis and sophia, intuitive knowledge and wisdom.
Contemplative insight is an interesting concept. Some accounts of Socrates in the dialogue seem to lend themselves to the interpretation that Socrates was something of a contemplative. Unfortunately, there is no way of knowing what exactly it was that he was contemplating. Perhaps the Forms or some other metaphysical realities? In any case it does not sound as if he was simply pondering something, though he must have done quite a bit of thinking to come up with all those ideas of his.
I think Vogt is right in saying that there is a difference between true belief and knowledge. I don't know the context in which belief is said to be shameful, but I suspect it has something to do with the philosopher, one who desires knowledge and wisdom. To be content with belief or opinion would be shameful. But the importance of belief in the dialogues should not be overlooked.
The problem is brought into focus by Simmias:
It is not just in the dialogue that arguments are to be exhaustively tested, and in the timeframe of a dialogue it cannot be done. We too much test the arguments. We should never accept what is agreed on as the final word or truth of the matter. To not do so "shows a very feeble spirit".
In addition to finding the best accounts Socrates calculates the risk of holding a belief:
“ For I am calculating - behold how self-servingly!- that if what I’m saying happens to be true, I’m well off believing it; and if there’s nothing at all for one who’s met his end, well then, I’ll make myself so much less unpleasant with lamenting to those who are present during this time, the time before my death.” (91b)
But it is not only his own beliefs he is concerned with. To the extent that myths are persuasive they are so without an argument or account. With regard to accounts he gives some odd advice:
At the same time as he exhorts the would be philosopher to not settle for opinions he is an opinion maker and leads some to believe that his mythologies are truths of the world outside the cave, that is, a world freed of opinion.
Well, if things exist by virtue of their participating in their distinctive being or Form (Phaedo 101c), then the soul becomes more real after death than in life by virtue of departing the world of sensibles and returning to the world of intelligibles where it is closer to its own being which is the Form of Life and thus more real than ever before.
This is why philosophical life according to Socrates is a preparation for death and the philosopher must aim to detach his soul from the body as far as possible in anticipation of his departure to the realm of higher realities which is the only place where true knowledge and wisdom may be attained (66e - 67a).
The human body is composed of a plethora of autonomic systems, but each of these is more finely attuned to the individual differences and condition of each cell. Every heart beat is slightly adjusted to the current needs of the body in ways that makes the term rhythm or pulse a dangerous misunderstanding. The subtle adjustments that regulate and supersede all theses autonomic systems are the clues and the area in which we need to look for agency and consciousness. But this is a phenomenon very much immanent to the cruder workings of the physical body. Without it,,,, well, meat.
I see the interaction of terms playing a part in the way we talk about things but it seems to me that the remark: "The personal character each of us brings to the recognition of terms separates subject and predicate from each other in the person of that discipline" is a psychological observation that translates all arguments into another register.
That does not help me.
It appears to me, like you're totally missing Socrates' argument. There is no such thing as "more or less in tune". Either the waves are in sync or they are not. Either it's in tune or not, this is not a matter of degrees. The point Socrates makes,93d- 94a, is that a group of notes is either in harmony or not, and there is not a matter of degrees here. But a soul has degrees of wickedness and goodness. So that is one reason why the soul is not a harmony. Either the parts are in harmony or not, and there is no matter of degrees in this situation. But, there is a matter of degrees of goodness with the way that the soul rules the body. That is why the soul is not a harmony.
The main point though, is made at 93a, "One must therefore suppose that a harmony does not direct its components, but is directed by them". This point is built upon at 94b: "Further, of all the parts of a man, can you mention any other part that rules him than his soul, especially if it is a wise soul?" He then explains how the soul rules by opposing what the body wants, and if the soul were a harmony of parts such an opposition would not be possible.
[quote=94c-d]Well, does it now appear to do quite the opposite, ruling over all the elements of which one says it is composed, opposing nearly all of them throughout life, directing all their ways, inflicting harsh and painful punishment on them, at times in physical culture and medicine, at other times more gently by threats and exhortations, holding converse with desires and passion and fears as if it were one thing talking to a different one...[/quote]
Quoting Fooloso4
The point is that there is no such thing as good or bad tunings. Being in tune is an objective fact of the wave synchronization, and if it is out of tune, it is simply not in tune, not a matter of a bad tuning, but not in tune at all. But the soul is not like this, it has degrees of goodness and badness.
Quoting Wayfarer
Yes, I believe this understanding of the two distinct senses of "eternal" is very important in metaphysics. What we have now, in our modern conception of "eternal", is a notion of infinite time, time extended eternally. This is because with materialism and physicalism, the idea of anything outside of time, (which is the classical theological conception of "eternal"), is incomprehensible.
I believe Aristotle's cosmological argument actually demonstrates that the idea of infinite time is what is incomprehensible, and this forces the need for something outside of time ("eternal" in the theological sense). So it's a matter of how one apprehends the boundaries. Is all of reality bounded by time (physicalism), or is time itself bounded?
I don't want to get too far off topic but there is 'just temperament or intonation', 'equal temperament or intonation'. With fretted instruments such as the guitar all tunings are a compromise so that most chords with sound good wherever they are played on the neck. Some electronic guitar tuners allow for 'sweetened tunings'. There is an old joke when tuning: "close enough for rock and roll".
See this article on ancient tuning methods: https://ancientlyre.com/blogs/blogs1-f324d18b-4152-49e5-aa3c-6539ac974916/posts/ancient-tuning-methods
The problem is that while the intervals of perfect 4th and perfect 5th sound in tune other intervals such as the major 3rd do not. The Wiki article on Pythagorean tuning:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
The first is true independent of any instrument. The second is true of a particular instrument. The first is about the ratio of frequencies. The second about whether those relations are achieved on a particular instrument.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
In the Republic the problem is not between the parts of the body and the soul but which part of the soul. The answer is reason. In addition, appetites are treated as a part of the soul and not the body. The conflict is within the soul, not between soul and body. Also the soul in the Republic has parts but in the Phaedo it is denied that it has parts.
The term psyche or "soul" was initially used by Homer in the sense of “departed soul, ghost. But it was also used with reference to “conscious self”, “various aspects of the self”, “moral and intellectual self”, “primary substance and source of life”, “spirit of the universe”, etc.:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0058:entry=yuxh/
The soul may have been a "shade" at the time of Homer. However, this changed with the development of the concept of paradise-like locations like the Elysian Fields and the Isles of the Blessed whose inhabitants engage in leisure activities such as playing games, holding friendly contests, and playing music. Of course, this was reserved for the select few, the vast majority would be destined for a shadowy existence in the underworld.
What Socrates describes certainly sounds like much more than a "shade".
See also:
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/ancient-soul/
Convincing, on the face of it. But seems to confuse two significations. Life, animus, can hardly be rigorously meant as the paradigm of spirit. Soul, surely, is in-animate! I admit to lacking patience with the clerical side. But according to my Liddell and Scott, psyche is breath. Seeing spirit in it seems 'vaporous'. But Plato and Socrates both were not above exploiting such ambiguities, so it seems a bit vapid to insist on the singular sense that suits. In any case, taking psyche to mean soul, as opposed to 'life-force', as eternal as opposed to caught-up in its time, seems question-begging. It is, before after all, the issue Socrates is moderating. And it is not really settled, though only Socrates' equanimity is.
I did check the quote cited above at 94 B, and it is indeed 'psyche' that appears there, though I am not about to reread the whole dialogue to check all other appearances of the notion. Socrates, though, was a fan of Homer, and other oral traditions, and is far more likely to use a term in the archaic sense than as, say, to speak as Aristotle would.
And in response:
The dialogue is about what happens to oneself, or, more narrowly, Socrates himself. The question “what counts as oneself?” is never asked. Rather than Socrates being treated as ‘one’ he is immediately divided into two, body and soul. Socrates is neither a body or a soul, but it would be wrong to regard him as some third thing. By division one becomes two, and by addition two becomes three. Either 1 (body) + 1 (soul) = 1 (self) or 1 +1 = 3 (some third thing which is a combination). There is something wrong with this arithmetic (arithmos). There can be no proper count or account without identification of the unit of the count.
The concern is that the unity that is Socrates will be destroyed. In order to address this Socrates divides his unity into a duality, body and soul. It is by this division of one into two that he attempts to demonstrate his unity in death, but in doing so Socrates can no longer be found.
That Socrates should be identified with the soul alone rather than the whole of him is shown to be problematic.
The supposedly immutable human soul can become the soul of donkeys and other animals of this sort, or wolves and falcons and hawks, or bees or wasps or ants. (82a -b)
The problem is obvious. What happens to the human soul? The soul of these animals is not a human soul. Such transformation is contrary to the claim of an immutable human soul. But Socrates does not stop there. The soul of the philosopher may enter the class of the gods (82c)
Either the soul of ants and donkeys are immortal and so it is not Socrates’ soul but a soul that is now Socrates’ and previously and latter not Socrates’ that endures; or Socrates is at various times an ant or donkey or some other animal. Or a god. Only in that case it is no longer immortality that distinguishes mortals from the immortals.
The consequence of the attempt to save Socrates by dividing him into soul and body is the destruction of the unity that is Socrates. No coherent account can be given because of the failure to properly identify the unit of the count, that is, Socrates himself.
I'd like to make it helpful, but I'm afraid of what commitments you might have to convention that might interfere with the effort. What is a proposition, really? Feed it into set theory and there is no room for modification. But what if a predicate is is a modifier, rather than a fixed designation? In fact, it's a modified modifier. Achilles may be courageous, but his courage is problematical. He wants to the paradigm of courage, but he's a pretty sorry-ass 'courage'. But this only means we need to recognize how he is not 'courage' to understand the idea, at least from how he embodies it. Such personalities became less of a religion than a language of ideas for the Greeks. Personal character was the engine of ideas, and Socrates found in this participation the engine of reality itself. But if each proposition is a modifier, not a rigid designation, if 'A' is recognizable in its way of being 'B', and being 'B' is recognizable in the way 'a' is being it, then 'B' is 'C' in a way that may not be similar at all. And even if the variation is slight, if we try to make a machine out of it that machine will ultimately grind to a halt. We can try to redesign and manipulate the machine so it runs smoothly, but at the expense of losing the meaning of the whole system. It is not how we speak or think or understand each other.
Autos (alpha, mu, tau, omicron, sigma) does indeed open the dialogue, but only to permit the list of persons present, and to note Plato's absence. Claiming this to suggest self-hood as the theme of the dialogue hangs on a pretty slender thread.
Was Soc. a Hindu? He does bring up reincarnation, in the myth of Er, isn't it? But that story has an explicit moral: ambition is dangerous to its owner. It is a dangerous matter, too, to assume Socrates is ever serious about drawing conclusions, other than to discourage them.
I am not sure if this is intended as a criticism of what I said or if what I said is being pointed to in support of your claim about how we speak or think or understand each other. There is an irony here.
How we speak includes those who say that we are a soul, and those who say we are physical bodies, and those who say the self is a social construct, and so on.
All of which is fraught with often hidden baggage. I'm afraid I do worry I might be up against something of the sort. But convention has it that holding firm to convictions, or ultimately achieving convictions resistant to critique is a virtue and goal. The notion that the characterology of changing convictions is the engine of meaning and language feels like it's a hard sell in such a milieu. I suppose it may seem an irony that I may seem convinced of this.
It is not that "self-hood" is the theme. In the specific sense what is at issue is what will happen to Socrates, and more broadly what happens to us when we die, what will happen to me myself and you yourself. It is addressed in terms of the soul rather than the self, of a part rather than the whole. Comparing the analysis of the soul in the Republic and Phaedo points to the problem.
Quoting Gary M Washburn
I think that Socrates was a zetetic skeptic. I also think that he was aware that this could be a dangerous attitude for most people.
All of what? 1) I pointed to an ambiguity that as far as I can tell you did not address. 2) I said this ambiguity was ironic. 3) I mentioned a few ways in which we talk and think about the soul and the self. But your statement was in the singular:
Quoting Gary M Washburn
Do you include your response as being fraught with hidden baggage? Is that comment applicable to language as a whole or to specific unidentified statements in this thread?
Quoting Gary M Washburn
That may be, but what is true by convention is not the same as what may be true for all participants in this thread.
Quoting Gary M Washburn
The irony that I saw was that you talked of understanding each other, but I have not understood much of what you have said and you have done little to clarify. In addition, although you are fond of speaking in generalities, if any of your comments were directed specifically at me, I suspect you have not understood me either.
Well, I think my LSJ shows very clearly that the primary meaning of ???? psyche is “life” and, by extension, “soul” exactly as Socrates says.
In addition:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=yuxh%5Cn&la=greek&can=yuxh%5Cn0&prior=th\n&d=Perseus:text:1999.01.0169:text=Phaedo:section=64c&i=1#Perseus:text:1999.04.0057:entry=yuxh/-contents
But here are some examples from the Phaedo:
1. “Then,” said he, “when does the soul attain to truth?” 65b
2. “if we are ever to know anything absolutely, we must be free from the body and must behold the actual realities with the eye of the soul alone” 66d – e
3. “But perhaps no little argument and proof is required to show that when a man is dead the soul still exists and has any power and intelligence.” 70b
4. “And such a soul is weighed down by this and is dragged back into the visible world, through fear of the invisible and of the other world” 81c
5. “philosophy, taking possession of the soul when it is in this state, encourages it gently and tries to set it free … and exhorting it to collect and concentrate itself within itself, and to trust nothing except itself and its own abstract thought of abstract existence; and to believe that there is no truth in that which it sees by other means” 83b
So, in your opinion, "breath" attains to truth; we behold with the eye of "breath"; "breath" has power and intelligence; "breath" fears the invisible and the other world; philosophy takes hold of the "breath", etc, etc.?
In the Greek original ???? psyche “soul” occurs about 80 times:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/searchresults?q=yu%2Fxw&target=greek&doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0169&expand=lemma&sort=docorder
IMHO even if it were used in the sense of “soul” just in the five examples above, this would still indicate that it was used by Socrates in the sense of “soul”.
Beginning your reply with "I'd like to make it helpful, but I'm afraid of what commitments you might have to convention that might interfere with the effort." is a pompous observation that does not advance your point of view.
Quoting Gary M Washburn
Perhaps you could assemble the texts that encourage this point of view. I suppose the view is a part of you saying: "The personal character each of us brings to the recognition of terms separates subject and predicate from each other in the person of that discipline. Reason is personal, not an impersonal mechanics."
The "predicate" in the Dialogues is constantly being challenged as something given on the basis of matters far from the personal. In Cratylus, Parmenides, and the Philebus, overconfidence in what a thing "is" becomes the fulcrum for arguing for something else. And the interlocutors are treating Socrates as the unconventional one. It kind of sounds like the opposite of what you are arguing.
The second is always true regardless of the instrument. That's what I've been explaining to you, the temporal aspect of Socrates' argument. The harmony is the effect of, therefore caused by, the appropriate tuning. It does not direct the tuning. That's what Socrates is saying, a harmony does not direct the parts which it is composed of, to create itself. This is the key point, what directs the tuning is the mind with some mathematical principles, and harmony is the result, or effect of that direction. The soul is more like the thing which does the directing, therefore the cause of the tuning, rather than the result of the tuning, the result being the harmony itself, which is produced.
Quoting Fooloso4
We are discussing the Phaedo here. Do you agree that Socrates' argument is that the soul is more like the thing which directs the parts, as the cause of harmony, rather than like the harmony which is the result, or effect of being so directed. If you agree that this is Socrates' argument, do you also agree with this principle in general?
I think that the soul can be interpreted as 'the principle of unity' which manifests as the 'subjective unity of perception'. This is the fact that, even though the body is obviously manifold, comprising billions of cellular systems in interaction with each other, the self or soul appears as a simple unity. The subjective unity of perception is a topic in its own right, which also appears in neuroscience as an aspect of the neural binding problem: 'enough is known about the structure and function of the visual system to rule out any detailed neural representation that embodies the subjective experience.'
(This is also comparable with Kant's and Husserl's conception of the 'transcendental ego'.)
The epistemological issue is that this principle of unity is not something that exists on the objective plane; it is not an object of perception; it can't be discerned objectively. It is conceptually nearer to 'harmony', as has been discussed in relation to the analogy of the lyre, in the sense that it is a consequence of the dynamic balance of a number of otherwise discrete factors to generate a (transcendent) whole, allegorically like the sounding of a chord (hence the allegory.)
That is not a silly question. No, not a Hindu, but part of an ancient Indo-European culture that had spread across the ancient world into both India and Europe in pre-history, giving rise to those disparate but connected societies. For example, the gods of the Greek pantheon have counterparts in the Hindu pantheon. This is the subject of a very interesting book, The Shape of Ancient Thought, by Thomas MacEvilly, an art historian, which details many such commonalities. Orphism, which was familiar to both Plato and Socrates, is arguably representative of the Indo-European ‘ur-religion’ which also gave rise to the Vedas. Belief in re-incarnation is intrinsic to those religions, and was arguably a source of the ‘myths’ concerning the afterlife that Socrates refers to.
MacEvilly’s views are not mainstream, but he provides abundant scholarly evidence for them.
The harmony is the tuning. The analogy with the lyre is with a lyre that is tuned (86a), not a lyre that needs to be tuned. The organic body is an arrangement of parts. They do not first exist in an untuned condition and subsequently become tuned. A living thing exists as an arrangement of parts. An organism is organized.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
The assumption is that the mind or soul exists independently of the body. That is what is in question. All of the arguments for that have failed.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
The argument proposed by Simmias is that it is neither what tunes or is tuned. It is the condition of a self-organized body.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Yes, that is the argument, but it assumes the very thing in question, the existence of the soul independent of the body, that they are two separate things. (86c) The attunement argument is that they are not. But Simmias had already agreed that the soul existed before the body. It is on that basis that Socrates attacks that argument. In evaluating the argument we do not have to assume the pre-existence of the soul.
Not so much by inquiry as by interrogation. I'm sorry if I peg anyone with views they do not really hold, but responses to my views often put me on the defensive. But, if I take your meaning correctly, the implication is that Socrates is promoting an individuality that only develops later, during the Christian era, to ensnare people into faith by isolating them from social life and from this 'vale of tears' with only the Christian god(s) to find succor in. Remember, he was a dialectician.
Don't forget Egypt. Hindus, of course, believed in Karma, but the Egyptian concept of a soul living after death was closer to home for Athenians, and explicitly referenced in at least one dialogue of Plato (Timeus). In my callow youth I had the luck of finding a place across the street from the MFA in Boston, which has an extensive collection of Egyptian artifacts. This may well be a misreading on my part, but it seems to me that much of the art from tombs was crude, as if made by the working people represented in it. If this is right, then it's reasonable to suggest they did this not as an offering only, but also to get a place among the Pharaoh's household, to be elevated into the next life as a necessary entourage. If so, then the great monuments of Egypt were a kind of supplication to win acceptance by the gods as deserving of a place amongst them, and therefore as a sort of social contract to win a place in the afterlife for all who participated in their construction. In any case, elevation to divinity for humans of special note was very much part of the Greek pantheon.
In Gorgias, Socrates explains how a predicate is a similarity in difference. Taking a predication to signify a sameness from which we can infer further sameness is missing the foundational difference. Wherever Socrates feels his interlocutor is expressing a view derived from elsewhere or merely a mechanical or formal inference he insists upon a more honestly personal view. He gets impatient when others refer to texts or sources not present and participating. Why, if meaning is fixed outside its personal context?
You don't. On the one hand, by dividing Socrates into two, body and soul, Socrates himself cannot be found. On the other hand, the arguments for an immortal soul all fail, but further, the idea of an independent soul is incoherent.
From this it could be inferred that you do not want me addressing you. Perhaps I shouldn't, but I'm prone to social malapropisms. Thing is, the whole issue, really, is how do we suppose we understand each other at all? It's really bogus to suppose there is some lexical field that supports this. There is always some slippage of meaning between us, and our talking extensively grinds against this difference, subtly altering every term of our exchange and whatever understanding we share. Subterranean to the lexicon true believers in objectivity would insist upon, it is a problematic matter to bring it to light.
Exactly, but reason only works by division. There is no valid induction. And so, it is only by extending that division toward the moment it becomes impossible to ignore the difference meant to be excluded from it that we recognize the missing participation of that difference. It is how we help each other come to that recognition that is the engine of terms we do share.
Quite the opposite! It would be helpful if you would be more specific regarding who you are addressing what you are commenting on.
As I said above:
Quoting Fooloso4
Quoting Gary M Washburn
This is a problem. It is for this reason that I attempt to write simply and clearly, but, of course, misunderstanding still happens.
Quoting Gary M Washburn
Right, but the possibility of being misunderstood is the condition within which we communicate. I don't think anyone here assumes anything different.
Quoting Gary M Washburn
That is only half the story (pun intended). Reason does not work only by division.
Quoting Gary M Washburn
What is it that you think is meant to be excluded here?
Your point is well taken that Socrates demands direct engagement with ideas from his interlocutors and eschews arguments based upon authority.
It is also true the conversations between say, Socrates and Cebes in the Phaedo and Socrates and Theodorus in the Theaetatus, are shaped by the degrees of mutual understanding possible between one and the other.
On the other hand, so much of the work of Socrates was to question what "personal" expressions of experience might mean seen against the background of our world.
There is the drubbing of Protagoras in Theaetatus claiming "man is the measure of all things."
In the Philebus, Socrates influences the views of Protarchus concerning the centrality of pleasure in human experience by prefacing his argument thusly:
"Well then, Protarchus, don't let us shut our eyes to the variety that attaches to your good as to mine. Let us have the varieties fairly before us and make a bold venture in the hope that they may, on inspection, reveal whether we ought to give the title of the good to pleasure or to intelligence or to some third thing. For I imagine we are not striving merely to secure a victory for my suggestions or for yours; rather we ought both of us fight in support of the truth and the whole truth."
-translated by R. Hackworth, section: 14 b
In the Cratylus, Socrates moves Hermogenes to accept that the meaning of names is neither completely arbitrary or necessary. In the latter part of the dialogue, Socrates argues with Cratylus about the importance of the original "namers', saying:
"Socrates: Well, but do you not see, Cratylus, that he who follows names in the search after things, and analyzes their meaning, is in great danger of being deceived?
Cratylus: How so?
Socrates: Why clearly he who first gave names gave them according to his conception of the things which they signified?
Cratylus: True
Socrates: And if his conception was erroneous, and he gave names according to his conception, in what position shall we who are his followers find themselves? Shall we not be deceived by him?
-translated by Benjamin Jowett, section 436a
There are many other ways to portray the demand for a universal truth over other kinds but I will stop here to see what you say in response.
The stranger. And not just the stranger you may think I am to your terms, or terms you take to be common enough to us all to be relied upon as a rough coordination of discourse, but the stranger you are, as we all are, in that reliance. Socrates is succeeded by the stranger. In Laws his effort to normalize normativity fails in the end, and something all too human undoes the whole project. Normativity, familiarity, just isn't as real as the stranger we all are to it. Not that law is corrupting or untruth, but that what becomes known unduly excluded from it through a diligent adherence to it is more real still.
So, you don’t accept the idea of ‘the soul as the principle of unity’?
Sure. However, the allegory does not refer to the sound. Harmonia here does not have the sense of sound but of state or condition (of being joined together), that renders the instrument capable of producing sound, i.e. a harmony of the component parts of the lyre.
Simmias' mistake is to hold that the soul is a harmony of the constituent parts of the body. It is this that leads him to make the analogy.
That this is how harmonia is intended is clear from Socrates’ statement at 92a - b:
The soul pre-existing the body, it cannot be compared to the harmony of the lyre that only comes into being after its components have been assembled.
The soul being non-composite, it cannot be compared to a harmony that is composite.
The soul being devoid of degrees, it cannot be compared to a harmony that has degrees, etc., etc.
Simmias’ theory fails from the start. That’s why Socrates mocks the idea at 86d.
It’s an allegory or metaphor. I take it that ‘the harmonious soul’ is one purged of impurity.
Well, the difficulty is that if the soul is non-composite as Socrates says, then it cannot be a harmony.
Discovering the stranger we more truly are to the means of our enduring life, and to the disciplined engagement of ideas through which we urge each other to reexamine our convictions, is only possible through that disciplined interaction. Yes, Socrates has no patience with those who would obviate it. But amongst these are those who are so convinced of their discipline that the stranger at the beginning and the end of it is completely excluded. That stranger is moment, as Socrates suggests in Parmenides, where the suggestion is dismissed.
There is no valid inductive term. Induction, such as it is, is but the momentary disarray of all ideas before and at the end of our straining to sustain our conviction that logical terms are constants, that motivates us, because the moment of bewilderment or wonder (recognition of the stranger we are to that constancy) is unendurable, to grasp any straw of normativity by which we can imagine enduring life and the terms of rational constancy. But that moment is the differing of all terms, in the character of the discipline that brought us to that change. And insofar as we inspire that discipline in each other that change in that character, the strangest of all because complete character of change each is to it, cannot exclude us from each other, as the conviction in the constancy of rational terms always does. There is no moment reason ever is. Wonder so complete only the stranger is present to it cannot be fodder for rational extension or even epistemic observation. but if we help bring each other to the moment in the personal terms of the discipline we each bring to that moment we recognize each other more intimately and urgently there than we can ever obviate. And if that intimacy grows as we interact in the life of ideas, that intimacy is always becoming more real than our conviction in the constancy of the terms of reason. And this even if we continually differ.
I see what you mean.
Given your concern with division I would think you would make a distinction between the different strangers in the dialogues, terminology that is in one way or another strange, and being strange to ourselves and others. Instead you run them all together.
It is through diaeresis that the Stranger in the Statesman arrives at man as a featherless biped, or, as Diogenes of Sinope would have it, a plucked chicken.
The Stranger does not "succeed" Socrates, he is shown to be inferior. In addition, the Eleatic Stranger of the Statesman is not identified as the same stranger, the Athenian Stranger of the Laws. The Laws is about nomos, laws and customs. The whole project is not undone by something all to human, it is fundamentally about what is all too human.
No, I don't think it is a principle of unity but a physical unity (86c). This answer is rejected, as Simmias points out, because it means that the destruction of the body is death, that there is no separate soul that endures.
From an encyclopedia article on the Phaedo:
So, it's your view that none of the arguments succeed?
Yes, you're correct, I read the whole passage again. The argument about harmony being an analogy for the soul is dismissed.
Yup. Note that in the middle of the dialogue is the problem of misologic. At 107b Socrates tells them to keep investigating, to not be content with the arguments as they stand.
I don't know. It seems like you take the "discipline" needed for granted. Socrates does not seem to take efforts of those kind for granted. It is a rare moment when he simply concedes a point of view.
In any case, I don't recognize my comment in your reply. It does not appear worthy of effort from your point of view.
Correct:
But in connection to other comments that have been made here, I think it is important to note that at 70a Cebes requests “reassurance (paramythia) and proof (pistis)” and this is exactly what Socrates provides throughout the dialogue: he successfully uses both reasoned arguments and myths to make his point. In addition to reasoned argument, he uses exhortation (????????? paramythia from ???? para + ????? mythos), i.e. speech or narrative for the purpose of persuading.
The arguments (1) from opposites, (2) from recollection, (3) from affinity, and (4) from the Form of Life are all accepted in the dialogue.
Immortality or existence of the souls of the dead, the cycle of death and rebirth or reincarnation, the souls’ existence in Hades, are accepted as facts as early as 72d:
But he seems, in the end, to believe, himself, in the immortality of the soul, even if it cannot be proven.
[quote=106d] “All, I think,” said Socrates, “would agree that God and the Principle of life, and anything else that is immortal, can never perish.”[/quote]
Cebes [107a] “I have nothing more to say against that, and I cannot doubt your conclusions."
I don't think this admits any doubt.
Simmias expresses reservations, to which in part the reply is:
An essay says 'Commentators commonly refer to this story as a “myth,” and Socrates himself describes it this way (using the Greek word muthos at 110b, which earlier on in the dialogue (61b) he has contrasted with logos, or “argument.”). Readers should be aware that for the Greeks myth did not have the negative connotations it often carries today, as when we say, for instance, that something is “just a myth” or when we distinguish myth from fact.'
So, I find it implausible that the dialogue fails to establish Socrates' belief in the immortality of the soul, although I do agree that Socrates might accept that he can't prove it. But I wonder if you think that 'the arguments must fail' because you yourself can't see how the soul can exist - that It seems an anachronistic or archaic idea, or wishful thinking. My views are different - I will acknowledge that I am probably more on the religious side of the ledger - but at the same time, I want to try and understand the metaphysics in such a way that it is credible in the modern context, which is what I sought to do in the post on the soul as the 'principle of unity'.
Not all statements being made here are correct. For example, the statement "At 107b Socrates tells them to keep investigating, to not be content with the arguments as they stand" is a Straussian straw man.
What Socrates actually says, is that they should consider the hypotheses more clearly and if they do this well enough they will follow the argument and when the argument becomes clear they will have nothing further to seek:
And just a few lines down, at 107c, Socrates says :
True. Some time ago, I visited a Theravada Buddhist monastery. The Abbott there gave a talk on his belief that the Indian wisdom schools originated in Egypt (which I was surprised to hear.)
I think the Phaedo is a very interesting and very important dialogue if one wants to correctly understand Plato. As long as one avoids reading it through the eyes of anti-Platonists like Leo Strauss, that is .... :smile:
I fully agree. It's just that when people take for their model the likes of Strauss who wrote:
- L Strauss, On Plato's Symposium, p. 199
then the whole project of attempting to understand Plato goes out of the window.
See the following:
He goes on tho say:
Quoting Fooloso4
Saying that he would be well of believing it is true in case it happens to be true is quite different than saying he believes it to be true.
Simmias says he has some lingering distrust:
Socrates responds:
Socrates is telling them that they should not be so ready to accept what is said as the truth. There seems to be a play on a double sense of human weakness, the limits of human argument and Simmias’ ongoing concern that death means our destruction, that we are too weak to endure. There is a limit we human beings cannot go beyond. That limit occurs at death. The search ends only with surety, but surety cannot be found in life.
And regarding the final myth:
To risk the belief is not the same as simply believing.
The one thing that seems certain is that he is not afraid to die.
For you which you think that the text offers no real explanation?
Quoting Fooloso4
There is certainly nothing of what we would accept as empirical proof, but that says as much about our beliefs and standards as it does about Socrates'. But he thinks it is 'fitting' - suitable, reasonable - even if it can't be proven to a 'sensible' man.
The question as to why Socrates is not afraid of dying arises early in the dialogue.
Socrates provides several reasons for his calm attitude in the face of imminent death:
The soul is different from the body and death is nothing but the separation of soul from body. (64c)
A virtuous soul will enjoy a happy life in the other world (Hades), which is a much better place, ruled by better and wiser Gods and inhabited by more noble souls. (63c)
Socrates also makes some important statements regarding philosophy:
The philosophical life is a preparation for death. (64a, 67e)
Philosophy encourages the separation of soul from body through the acquisition of wisdom and direct access to non-physical realities represented by the Forms. (65a -d)
Now true philosophers (those who truly love wisdom) practice dying. They are at odds with the body and desire to have the soul alone by itself. It would be extremely irrational for them not to cheerfully go to that place where they hope to attain the object of their life-long love, namely, wisdom (phronesis). (67e – 68a), etc., etc.
Quoting Wayfarer
Unfortunately, this would seem to be the case ....
A harmony is a group of notes played together, like a chord, which are judged as sounding good. This is why I do not like your interpretation of the work. The tuning is what creates or produces the harmony as cause of it. It is not the harmony.
Quoting Fooloso4
Right. Now do you see that this "arrangement of parts", which constitutes "the organic body", is analogous to a harmony. The organic body is an harmonic arrangement of parts. Now, Socrates' argument is that the soul is what directs the parts in such a way as to be an harmonic arrangement of parts. This thing "the soul", which directs the arrangement of parts, is temporally prior to the arrangement of parts, as the cause of it. Since the arrangement of parts is the organic body, then the soul is prior to the body.
Quoting Fooloso4
Since the body only exists as an organized arrangement of parts, and the soul is the cause of that organized arrangement, then it is necessarily prior in time to it, therefore independent of the body, at that prior time.
Quoting Fooloso4
The argument is that a harmony, or "attunement", whatever you want to call it, requires a cause. The cause is prior to the harmony, in time, and therefore existed independently of it at that prior time. The body is analogous to the harmony, as an organized arrangement of parts. The soul is the cause of that organized arrangement of parts. Therefore the soul was independent of the body at that prior time.
Quoting Apollodorus
It's a very subtle question. My interepretation of the idea of the Forms is that they're not existent - they're like the ideal archetypes of existence. But that doesn't mean they're simply unreal. Consider the 'form of the wing' - that has evolved many times, in ancient pterosaurs, now in birds, bats, and flying lizards. All of the evolutionary pathways are completely different, but if a wing is to fly, then it has to have certain characteristics. But I think, as nominalsm carried the day back in later medieval times, understanding of the idea of 'the ideas' has been so thoroughly extinguised that even famous exegetes misinterpret it.
[quote=Joshua Hochschild, What's Wrong with Ockham?; https://www.academia.edu/36162636/What_s_Wrong_with_Ockham_Reassessing_the_Role_of_Nominalism_in_the_Dissolution_of_the_West]among all the kinds of forms which can be signified by terms, according to Aquinas, there is no one uniform way in which they exist. The existence of the form “sight,” by which the eye sees, may be some positive presence in the nature of things (which biologists can describe in terms of the qualities of a healthy eye that gives it the power to see), but the existence of the form 'blindness' in the blind eye need be nothing more than the nonexistence of sight?the form of blindness is a privation of the form of sight and so not really an additional form at all.
In general, distinguishing and qualifying the different ways there can “be” a form present in a thing goes a long way toward alleviating the apparent profligacy of the (Aristotelian) realist account of words signifying forms. ...
Aquinas’s famous thesis of the unicity of substantial forms is an example of another strategy: linguistically I may posit diverse forms (humanity, animality, bodiliness) to account for Socrates being a man, an animal, and a body, but according to Aquinas there is, in reality, just one substantial form (Socrates’ soul) which is responsible for causing Socrates to be a man, an animal, and a body. In this and other cases, ontological commitment can be reduced by identifying in reality what, on the semantic level, are treated as diverse forms. [/quote]
A snippet from later in this essay, which is a defense of scholastic realism
:clap:
Socrates advances several arguments against Simmias’ harmony analogy.
One of them is that the soul pre-existing the body, it cannot be compared to the harmony of the lyre that only comes into being after its components have been assembled. (92c)
But there are others, for example:
The soul being devoid of degrees, it cannot be compared to a harmony that has degrees. (93b)
The soul leading the body, it cannot be compared to a harmony that depends on the body of the instrument. (94d)
And, of course, the soul being non-composite, it cannot be compared to a harmony that is composite in the first place.
Socrates’ argument does not depend on the pre-existence of soul. Even if the soul's pre-existence is not assumed, Simmias’ analogy still fails.
This is precisely why Socrates smiles at the analogy (86d) and Cebes points out that it failed to withstand Socrates’ first attack of it (95b)
Yes, Hochschild makes a good point.
However, authors like Strauss are a different matter. Strauss is not a trained classicist. He studied al-Farabi and Maimonides who lived in Muslim-occupied Spain - when philosophers had to be very careful about what they said - and developed the theory that all ancient philosophers had “secret teachings”. As a political philosopher and atheist, he believes that Plato’s dialogues have a hidden political message and he makes no effort to see anything metaphysical in the dialogues. In fact, he positively resists the idea just as he ridicules Plato’s theory of Forms.
Strauss does make a valid observation, though:
The Forms, of course, do not seem to be a myth in the dialogues. On the contrary, they represent a logical attempt to reduce the number of fundamental principles to the absolute minimum. Whether they actually exist as such, is an open question. Plato, in any case, does not think that they are a figment of imagination.
It does. Once again
Quoting Fooloso4
This is the same thing he said in the Apology:
The problem that must be faced in the Phaedo is fear of death. One has it within their power to live in such a way as to avoid fear of punishment for wrongdoing in death. What about the fear of nothingness? Here the practice may involve meditation along the lines of Epictetus:
It is entirely consistent with the text to think that Socrates' self-persuasion may be, in whole or in part, along these lines.
Quoting Wayfarer
First, empirical evidence is not a modern invention. Second, my response said nothing about empirical proof. What I said is that the arguments fail. I also said that this is a matter of the limits of argument. The limits of argument is the central theme of the text, literally occuring at the center.
That is not Simmias' argument. Note the following:
By "we take" he means the Pythagoreans.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
That is not what Simmias' argument says. And according to Socrates' argument, the soul does not cause the body that is strung and held together by warm and cold and dry and wet and the like
1) Simmias' argument
2) Socrates' refutation
3) An argument consistent with the Forms.
Simmias' argument was presented in my last post. The argument consistent with the Forms is neglected:
Things that are beautiful are so, according to the hypothesis of Forms, they are so because of Beauty itself. In the same way, things that are harmonious are so because of Harmony itself. Beauty and Harmony are the cause of things that are beautiful and harmonious. This extends to the human body. It is not the soul that causes the body to be harmonious, it is Harmony.
There is nothing in Simmias' Pythagorean argument about a separate pre-existing soul. Socrates introduces it into Simmias' argument when he reminds Simmias that they had previously agreed that the soul was something pre-existing. But there was no one there to remind Socrates of his own hypothesis of Forms.
He will, however, call the hypothesis of Forms an "ignorant" answer and propose a new sophisticated answer that is much like the sophisticated answer he rejected in favor of Forms. (105b-c)
I think that it's the fact of death that is at issue. Immediately prior the first passage quoted is:
Bolds added. It's a sentiment very like Pascal's Wager, I'd wager. Nothingness is nothing to fear, but it's only one of the possibilities, no more certain than the alternative.
I quoted this same passage in response to your question about what Socrates believes:
https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/569248
I think it likely that Pascal's wager is derived from this.
Quoting Wayfarer
Right, none of the possibilities are certain, but as far as Socrates is concerned, none are to be feared if one has led a just life. He thinks he lived a just life and so if death means rewards and punishments he is confident he will be rewarded rather than punished. Early on in this thread I tied that to what it might mean for philosophy to be preparation for death. Live in such a way that you will be rewarded rather than punished for what you did in life if, in fact, that is what happens in death.
I bolded the passages in order to dispel the notion that Socrates believes that the soul is immortal.
It is like Pascal's wager but there are differences.
Pascal presumed you had some days to live before the end so changing your relationship to it could kick in before one's death. The offer only being viable for a limited time.
Socrates doesn't have a lot of time left. He does not seem interested in making some last minute deals.
Well, I don't think you have succeeded in doing that. The conventional view was that Phaedo presents four arguments for the soul's immortality, and I see no reason to doubt that Socrates believes them to be true. The passage about misologic is simply a warning not to be too easily convinced by false arguments, so as to become cynical. So I think in this regard, we will have to agree to disagree, but as said before, I have benefitted a lot from this thread, as it has made me pay much more attention the text.
Quoting Valentinus
Some, but the point remains.
I agree. It does not seem likely that any of these things are occurring to him for the first time. I think the whole thing is rhetorical. Persuading himself of anything is antithetical not only to a life spent in pursuit of truth, it is contrary to the advice given in the dialogue not to accept any argument about which one cannot be sure.
But Cebes and Simmias are not Socrates. They need something to believe. Socrates' attitude seems to me to be, wait and see. The final irony is that if death is nothing then he will not see.
For Socrates it is not a matter of belief but of trust, that is, not something to be taken as true, but of an attitude toward life, that he will not be harmed.
Socrates himself is never persuaded by conventional views. If you have followed the arguments yourself and found them convincing and do not think my arguments showing them to be problematic to be convincing then we are at an impasse.
Quoting Wayfarer
The problem is deeper than that. Of course one should not be convinced by false argument, but how do we know which arguments are false?
From the first part of the last quote one might conclude that having the art of argument is the solution, but the second part indicates that it can be part of the problem.
Quoting Wayfarer
Glad to hear that. In my opinion, no interpretation is final or definitive.
Socrates' argument is that the soul is not like a harmony, it is more like the cause of the harmony.
Quoting Apollodorus
That's right, Socrates' argument doesn't depend on the pre-existence of the soul, but he uses the proposed harmony analogy to demonstrate that the pre-existence of the soul is a necessary conclusion. That's why he proceeds at 95 to say that proving that the soul existed before we were born does not prove that it is immortal, (because he believes to have proven the soul's pre-existence) only that it has existed for a very long time. He says that entering the human body might be the beginning of its destruction, and it might perish with the death of the human body.
Quoting Fooloso4
That's right, it's not Simmias' argument, it's Socrates' argument I am talking about. That is Socrates' way, to take another's argument, put it in his own words, and turn it around to produce the opposite conclusion as the one produced by the person who proposes the argument. This is how he demonstrates the faults in the arguments of others, and shows what the real conclusion ought to be.
Quoting Fooloso4
Yes, Socrates does argue this. The soul directs the parts, which creates a harmony. I gave you the quotes 94 c-e.
In this case he did more than just turn it around. Simmias' argument did not include a separate soul. Socrates does not deal with Simmias' argument because the result would be that the soul does not endure.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Directing the parts does not mean creating the parts. The soul does not cause the body.
Before doing so we need to look at how Socrates defines death:
Simmias agrees. But of course death can be something other than that! Death may simply be, as Socrates said in the Apology, annihilation. The question of the soul is the very thing that will be the focus of the discussion, but argument is made that at death the soul is alone by itself. It is simply accepted from the start as a given.
Cebes will soon raise an objection:
Cebes' hope is that what Socrates says is true. Socrates responds:
Cebes' hope is based on the truth of what Socrates is saying, But Socrates lowers the standard from truth to what is likely.
The first argument is the Cycle of Opposites:
But, of course, some other argument is needed. A reborn soul is one that has previously died. It exists in Hades as a dead soul. This is incompatible with the next argument, recollection. The other problem with the cycle of opposites argument is that obviously the living come from the living.
Recollection:
His example of recollection surprisingly has nothing to do with life in Hades or a previous life. There seems to be no distinction here between recollection and being reminded of something. In the example given recollection is independent of stories of death. It is about what we are reminded of here and now.
Socrates shifts from things perceived to “the equal itself”.
It is through the combination of sense and thought that we perceive that things are equal. That this is either based on or leads to recollection of “the equal itself” is dubious. All that is necessary to see how implausible this is is to consider how we learned what it means for things to be equal.
But they are, as he says in the second sailing, hypotheses, not things recollected while dead.
Forms:
Obviously, not everything that is unseen is unchanging. More to the point, Socrates talks about such things as the corruption of the soul "polluted and impure" (81b) and the soul of a human being becoming the soul of an ass or some other animal or insect. (82a-b) So, the claim that the soul is unchanging is questionable at the least.
Most important is the distinction between a Form and some thing of that Kind. Beauty is unchanging but beautiful things are not. The Form Soul may be unchanging but it does not follow that Socrates' soul is not.
Sophisticated Cause:
The final argument alters the hypothesis of Forms "safe but ignorant" (105b-c)
But it is not true. The snow does not retreat, it melts. Cold itself may be indestructible but something that is cold is not. Socrates is deliberately conflating Form and thing. The same holds for all other things. It is not the Form Life that causes something to be alive, it is the soul that brings life with it that causes body to be alive. At the approach of Death the soul, being a thing rather than an indestructible Form, does not retreat. Like the snow it perishes.
The failure of the arguments does not mean that the soul is not immortal, it simply means that Socrates has not shown that it is. He says it is worth the risk of believing that it is, but if the philosopher seeks truth she does not settle for a belief. What the soul is and what its fate may be remains unknown.
Correct. And nor must we forget that the dialogue's author is Plato who uses his Theory of Recollection to establish the validity of his Theory of Forms.
The basic argument from recollection is as follows:
(A). On seeing something that reminds us of something else, there is a case of recollection (anamnesis) (Phaedo 73c – 74a).
(B). On seeing things that are equal, e.g., sticks, and thinking “these sticks are equal”, we intuitively think of Equality, i.e., the Form of Equal (Phaedo 74a – c).
(C). This cognitive act corresponds to the one described in (A), hence it is a case of recollection (74c – d).
(D.) As we can recollect only things that were previously known to us (73c), the Form of Equal was previously known to us (74d - 75a).
(E). But the knowledge of it was not acquired at any time between birth and the present act of recollection (75a - 76c).
(F). Nor was it acquired at birth (76c - d).
(G). Therefore it was acquired before birth (76c).
(H). Therefore our soul existed before birth, and possessed knowledge or wisdom, including knowledge of the Forms (76c).
It may of course be argued that what Socrates calls “recollection of Forms” is simply the result of pattern recognition produced by neural activity in the brain. However, research has shown that humans are capable of pattern recognition within days of being born and, to some extent, even whilst in the womb, which brings us very close to the concept of knowledge as a result of previous existence (see Ian Stevenson and others).
In any case, the existence of Forms remains a possibility, quite independently of pre-existence. Certainly, we know from Diotima’s teachings in the Symposium that the Form of the Beautiful does appear to the philosopher who has learned how to look at it.
In connection with learning how to see, Socrates in the Phaedo makes some important observations.
Through the use of our senses, we start regaining our lost knowledge of the Forms (75e).
In normal circumstances, the soul is dragged down into the world of material particulars whose ever-changing nature leaves it disturbed and giddy as if drunk (79c).
But when the soul is detached from the body and the material world, and is alone by itself, it perceives immaterial things that are pure, eternal, and immortal like itself (79d).
Therefore the true philosopher distances himself from the body and turns toward the soul (64e).
The philosopher releases his soul as much as possible from its association with the body (65a).
The Forms cannot be grasped through the bodily senses. Only those who train themselves most and with the greatest precision to think about each thing investigated as an object in its own right, will come closest to knowing each of them (65e).
The man who will hit upon reality is he who attempts to hunt down each real thing alone by itself and unalloyed, by using thought alone by itself and unalloyed, and separated as far as possible from eyes and ears and virtually from his entire body (66a).
To have pure knowledge of something we must be separated from the body and view things by themselves with the soul by itself (66e).
Full wisdom can only be acquired when we are dead because that is the only time when the soul will be alone by itself apart from the body (67a).
However (as philosophy is the practice of being dead, i.e., being detached from the body), we will be closest to knowledge even whilst living if we do not associate with the body except to the extent absolutely necessary, and we retain that state of purity until the God himself releases us (67b).
It can be seen that in order to acquire knowledge of the Forms, in addition to living a pure life, we need to detach ourselves from the body and sensory perception, and try to grasp reality first with our reason and then with our soul (nous).
Detachment from the body, and focus on the soul and on a higher reality by means of our thought alone, and without the assistance of sensory perception, can only refer to a contemplative or meditative state.
So, without going into details, my feeling is that a Buddhist or Hindu may be in a better position to understand Plato than a Straussian atheist.
In any case, some key lessons to draw from the Phaedo are:
Philosophy = Separation from Body
Separation from Body = Death
Death = "Retreating" to or Rejoining the Intelligible World
The Intelligible World = The Realm of Eternal Realities like Soul and Forms
Knowledge of the Realm of Eternal Realities = Knowledge of Reality, including Forms
As already stated, additional pointers occur in other dialogues, such as Symposium:
The Beautiful here stands for the Good or Truth itself and seeing the Good is identical with being with the Good and part of the Good. (As later Platonists would say, being one with the Good.)
Similarly, in the Republic we find the Analogy of the Sun where the Good is compared with the Sun (508a ff.).
Here again, we can learn something from Strauss himself:
- On Plato’s Symposium, pp. 201, 277
The analogy can only mean that the Good is a divine being like the Sun. We know that Plato’s theology has a hierarchy of divine beings proceeding from (1) the Gods of the City of Athens to (2) the Cosmic Gods like the Sun to (3) the Supreme God (the Good, the Creator of the Universe, the Universal Intelligence/Consciousness) who is the Ultimate Reality.
Where the Republic describes the hierarchy of sensible realities ascending from sensible objects to sight, light, and the source of light (the Sun) itself, and of intelligible realities ascending from intelligible objects to knowledge, truth, and their source (the Good), the Phaedo and the Symposium explain how the true philosopher may learn to obtain the vision of the highest.
In sum, quite aside from the arguments' ultimate validity, and considering that all Platonic logoi can only be pointers, the dialogue certainly presents valuable advice for the philosophical and spiritual life.
Saying that the soul is like a harmony, or attunement, is to assume that there is such a thing as "the soul" which is being talked about. .Socrates simply demonstrates that if there is such a thing, it is not like a harmony, and separate. Simmias could have insisted that there is no such thing as the soul, and it makes no sense to talk about the soul, but of course Plato, as the author of the dialogue, is dictating what the characters are saying.
Quoting Fooloso4
You don't seem to be grasping the issue. The body only exists as an arrangement of parts, you said so yourself, above. Therefore the thing which directs the parts is necessarily prior to the body, as the cause of it. Not even modern physics has an understanding of fundamental particles, so we cannot say how a body comes into existence, only that the body has no existence until the parts are arranged properly. We cannot say that the fundamental parts are bodies because we do not understand what these parts are. and if we assume that they are bodies, then they would be composed of an arrangement of parts, which would also be composed of an arrangement of parts, ad infinitum.
The truth of the matter is that there is no interest, desire, or intent to grasp the issue.
Socrates in the dialogue explains how things come to be from their opposites - from cold to hot, from asleep to awake, from being alive to being dead and from being dead to being alive, etc. (71b - d).
If we apply this to this thread, how did it come about?
It came about from its opposite, viz. my thread on Reincarnation.
Someone didn't like my thread because it implied belief in the soul and they commissioned this thread to "demonstrate" - by means of Straussian sophistry and nihilism - that belief in soul is unfounded:
Quoting Fooloso4
In other words, this thread is not about Socrates or Plato but about some people's atheist agenda.
Right and this is what Simmias says:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
He could have said that if he was denying that there is such a thing as a soul, but he does not deny it. The Pythagorean concept of the soul as presented in his argument is that it is not some separate thing. Cebes and Simmias are said to have "spent time with Philolaus.(61d) It is Philolaus who is the "somebody" who might give the account Simmias does. (85e-86a)
From the Wiki article Pythagoreanism:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
According to Simmias' argument there is nothing prior to the body that directs its parts. The body is self-organizing.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Right, and that is the problem with your argument. Not only do you assume that all the parts together must be arranged, but for the same reason each of the parts individually must be arranged. If the soul arranges all of the parts together what arranges each of the individual parts? It can't be the soul because then the soul would be the cause of the body.
Every argument starts with axioms, and as we now accept, not all axioms can be proven. In Socrates' culture, belief in the soul was generally accepted, so was axiomatic, one might say. In secular culture the opposite is the case, but it's still a question of belief, as today's science is created on the assumption that no such powers or entities exist, and then proceeds to frame its approach on the basis of that assumption, such that inside that framework it is impossible to disprove, save by stepping outside it. (c.f. Kuhn's 'paradigms'.)
Quoting Fooloso4
'Dead soul' is an oxymoron. If the soul is immortal then it cannot be dead, although it can dwell in different planes of existence (sometimes for aeons).
Quoting Fooloso4
Stepping outside the framework of strict textual intepretation, consider that the concept of 'equal' represents a fundamental breakthrough in the development of abstract consciousness and reason. Being able to see that one thing equals another, or that two numbers equal a third number, and so on, are easy for us to take for granted, but the discovery of this intellectual skill is fundamental to arithmetic, geometery, language and rational thought generally.
Again from outside the explanatory framework of Platonism, couldn't this idea of 'recollection' be an attempt to fathom such innate abilities as the ability to acquire language, to learn, to make mathematical discoveries, and the many other abilities that reason provides? Consider, at the dawn of civilization, how intoxicating the discovery of the power of reason must have been - how it promised release from creaturely existence and never-ending toil, the discoveries of the mathematical sages, such as Archimedes. This power must have seemed miraculous (whereas us jaded moderns nowadays rationalise it in terms of the pragmatic criteria of 'adaptation').
Perhaps the ancients had an intuitive wonder at the nature of reason which appeared to them as recollection of what must have been previously known. They certainly saw it as an innate power, contra today's empiricist dogma of the mind being a 'blank slate'.
Quoting Fooloso4
Implicit in Platonic dualism is the belief that the soul is 'joined' to the body. So I don't think Plato would seek to deny the role of the reproductive act! But what makes the being alive is the same as what withdraws from the body at death. Other traditional philosophies have an account of this - it is why Christians oppose abortion. Of course that doesn't make it right, but it is characteristic of belief in the soul.
Quoting Fooloso4
One of the things that got me interested in Platonism was the sudden realisation - an epiphany, I like to think - about the nature of number. (This was the subject of the first question I posted on philosophy forums.) Very briefly, everything in the sensable domain is composed of parts and comes into and goes out of existence, so is temporally delimited. Number, on the other hand, is not composed of parts (or any parts other than numbers) and neither goes into or out of existence (hence, 'imperishable'.) That, in my opinion, is why Platonic epistemology believes that 'dianoia' is of a higher order than 'opinion concerning visible things' - because it provides apodictic certainty that is not obtainable from knowledge gained by the mediation of sense. (See Augustine on Intelligible Objects.)
The 'impurity' of the soul is owed to its attachment to sense-impressions and sensual pleasures. It causes a sense of false identification with the sensory realm, with the domain of perishable things and transient pleasures. You will find exact analogies for this attitude in Hindu and Buddhist philosophy, in fact, it is universal in pre-modern philosophy, although of course is profoundly at odds with much modern philosophy.
Quoting Fooloso4
However this is followed by the qualification:
[quote=103e]"The fact is,” said he, “in some such cases, that not only the abstract idea itself has a right to the same name through all time, but also something else, which is not the idea, but which always, whenever it exists, has the form of the idea."[/quote]
I take this to mean that although snow melts, wherever snow exists, it instantiates 'the idea of cold', because it has the form of the idea of cold.
Quoting Fooloso4
I accept that many people will find the idea of the soul archaic and anachronistic and that these arguments will fail to persuade them otherwise. Indeed there's a lot of people who think Plato has been superseded, that it's all ancient history. But I don't accept that the texts show that Plato himself doesn't believe them. I think the difficulty is that while Plato is recognised as one of the foundational figures of Western culture, this aspect of his thought is impossible to reconcile with this secular age. That's what I think is the underlying motivation in many modern intepretations.
There's also another factor which I have to state, which invariably gets a lot of pushback. It is the idea of the 'ascent to truth'. This example is from a Catholic philosopher, but I could find similar passages from other traditions:
A philosopher, practising for death.
The body here is thought of as consisting of the four elements:
The elements and their properties were represented by a diagram with one square inscribed in the other, with the corners of the main one being the elements air, fire, earth, water, and the corners of the inscribed one being the properties hot, dry, cold, wet. When the properties are read diagonally across the inscribed square, they are “hot?–?cold” and “dry?–?wet”.
Four Classical Elements – Wikipedia
Being non-composite, the soul of course cannot be made of any elements. Therefore it cannot be a harmony of elements or parts. Therefore Simmias' analogy fails.
Cebes later calls this assumption into question. (70a)
Quoting Wayfarer
It is, that's the point. Based on the argument that the living come from the dead. He skirts around the problem:
. If the soul was alive then it would not be true that living things come from dead things.
Quoting Wayfarer
Does it? If so then more and less and same also represents a fundamental breakthrough in the development of abstract consciousness and reason. Only it may not be so abstract. It is something that can be seen. It is a practical skill. Primates can count.
Quoting Wayfarer
See Jacob Klein's "Greek Mathematical Thought and the Origin of Algebra". Number for the Greeks was always an amount of something. It is the count. It tells us how many.
Quoting Wayfarer
Right, not only the Form Cold has that name, snow too has the name cold. The question is, what happens to the snow? As it melts it becomes less and less cold.
Quoting Wayfarer
I still remember my intro to philosophy class as a freshman. The professor told us the week before that next time we were reading Plato's Phaedo and that it proves the immortality of the soul. I was very much looking forward to the class because this was something that interested me and that I thought was important. I was receptive to the idea but not convinced. When reading the dialogue I thought I might have missed something that would be brought out in class. The next week I was disappointed to find that the dialogue did not do what was promised. When we later read the Republic I was for several years convinced the Forms existed and that through transcendent experience could be found.
I have related all of this in order to show that my reading of Plato was not based on pre-existing opinions. If anything, I was far more inclined toward the discovery of mystical truths.
I am nonplussed when people are inclined to equate h. sapiens reasoning ability with other animals. Crows and monkeys can count insofar as if they see 3 people going into a banana grove and two coming out, they know one is left. But anything more and they can't tell. You can call that counting if you like, but they will never understand the concept of prime.
When h. sapiens evolved to the point of being able to count, reason, speak, tell stories, paint, and so on, then it opens up horizons of being that are not perceptible to other animals. That's why I agree with the Aristotelian designation of man as the rational animal. I see an ontological distinction between humans and animals - not on account of 'special creation', as I fully accept the evolutionary account of human origins, but because of the ability of the human to see beyond the sensable. I think this is deprecated in modern philosophy because it is hard to reconcile with Darwinian materialism. (This is the subject of Nagel's book Mind and Cosmos.)
Quoting Fooloso4
I have started on that, courtesy of your previous recommendation. I will have a lot more reading time on my hands soon.
The reference to the living being born from the dead is a clear reference to the indo-european myth of reincarnation in my view. As already discussed this was characteristic of Orphism.
My remarks about Plato and 'this secular age' were not directed at you in particular, it's a general observation. I understand that our interpretations are at odds, but I have appreciated the opportunity of explaining my approach.
These two ideas, that there is such a thing as the soul, and that each part of the body is itself a "self-organizing" entity, is what Socrates demonstrates are incompatible. If there is such a thing as "the soul", it is what directs the parts, to make a unity, a whole, the body, therefore the parts are not self-organizing.
Quoting Fooloso4
Huh? This makes no sense. The argument leads to the conclusion that the soul must be prior to the body, then you conclude "It can't be the soul because then the soul would be the cause of the body." When the logic tells you that the soul must be the cause of the body, what premise tells you that the soul can't be the cause of the body, so you may conclude that the logic is flawed? When the logic gives you a conclusion which you do not like, due to some prejudice, that is not reason to reject the logic, it's reason to reject your prejudice.
I see it first as a matter of degree rather than a difference in kind, and second as a difference that grew considerably due to the power of conceptual thinking, which is not simply a matter of difference in capability but of cultural history, In other words, the difference expands not simply because humans are different but because of the power of conceptual thought which develops as a second nature.
Quoting Wayfarer
Not an easy book but one well worth the effort.
Quoting Wayfarer
Understood. I agree with you that we always bring our own assumptions to our reading of the text. I also think that the Platonic dialogues allow us to examine our assumptions.
Quoting Wayfarer
I appreciate that our differences can be discussed respectfully.
It is what he argues against. He does this by changing the terms of the argument. His argument is based on a pre-existing soul, something that is not part of Simmias' argument.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Just the opposite. Immediately prior to Socrates' refutation, Simmias says that he has been persuaded that:
Socrates points out that the two premises are incompatible:
He then asks:
Simmias chooses recollection and a pre-existing soul. All of Socrates' arguments follow this premise.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Nowhere does Socrates claim that the soul is the cause of the body. He says that the soul is the cause of life in the body. An arrangement of parts is not the cause of those parts that are arranged.
I think that the question as to what or who causes the body is an interesting one.
As related in the Timaeus, in the beginning God created the World as a living being endowed with a soul and reason. He next created the Cosmic Gods, i.e., the Earth, Sun, Moon, Stars and other heavenly bodies as living creatures (38e), from whom were born Cronos and Rhea, Zeus and Hera, and the other Gods (41a). After this, he commanded the Gods to fashion men and other living creatures and endow them with souls he himself created from the same substance he had used to make the soul of the world and the Gods.
He placed a number of souls on each Star and, after the Gods fashioned the bodies of mortal creatures, they implanted the immortal souls in them. And God ordained that those who have lived their appointed time well shall return to their native Star and gain a life that is blessed and congenial but those who have failed to do so shall be reborn into inferior shapes after the similitude of their own nature until they once again become as pure and good as before (42c).
On this account, the human body is created by the Gods from some material substance (e.g. the four elements, air, fire, earth, water, to which may be added ether). So, the Gods would seem to be the efficient cause of the body.
The soul simply imparts life and motion to the body.
However, Plato’s intention in the Phaedo seems to be to present his own theory of soul as more consistent than that of the Pythagoreans who apparently held contradictory views concerning the soul, one view stating that the soul is imprisoned in the body, another that the soul transmigrates and another stating that the soul is the harmony or attunement of the four elements constituting the body.
Simmias’ own conflicting views may be a reflection of those of the Pythagoreans. If so, Plato (via Socrates) successfully rebuts inconsistent Pythagorean doctrines.
No, Socrates argument is not based on a pre-existing soul, as I explained. First he demonstrates the faults of Simmias' position. Then he demonstrates that if there is such a thing as the soul, it must be pre-existing, as that which orders the parts to create the harmony. So the argument supports the notion of the pre-existing soul, with reference to the directing and ordering of the parts. Therefore the argument is based in the idea that a harmony requires the directing and ordering of parts, to cause the existence of the harmony, and concludes that what is commonly called "the soul" is what directs and orders the parts.
The conclusion is a pre-existing soul. It does not matter that the conclusion (a pre-existing soul) is presented first, as the thing to be proven. This does not make the argument based in the presumption of a pre-existing soul. What matters is the logical procedure. We can proceed from the premise of "harmony" to a need for something which directs and orders the parts, to the conclusion that the thing which directs and orders the parts (commonly called the soul) pre-exists the harmony. A pre-existing soul is not the base of the argument, but the conclusion.
First, there is no need for something to order the parts. If you assume that the parts together need to be ordered, then each part would also need to be ordered because each part of the body has an order.
Second, in accord with Socrates' notion of Forms something is beautiful because of Beauty itself. Something is just because of the Just itself. Something is harmonious because of Harmony itself. Beauty itself is prior to some thing that is beautiful. The Just itself is prior to some thing being just. Harmony itself is prior to some thing being harmonious. In each case there is an arrangement of parts.
The question is, why did Socrates avoid his standard argument for Forms? It is an important question, one that we should not avoid.
Right, each part needs to be ordered, towards one end, purpose, function, or whatever you want to call it. Each particular has a specific role within that one unity.
How do you proceed toward the conclusion that there is no need for something which orders the parts toward that unity? Do you think that the parts just happen to meet up, and decide amongst themselves, to join together in a unity? The evidence we have, and there is much of it with the existence of artificial things, and things created by other living beings, is that in these situations where parts are ordered together toward making one united thing, there is something which orders the parts.
There is no evidence of any parts just meeting up, and deciding amongst themselves to create an organized, structure, though there are instances, such as the existence of life itself, where the thing which is doing the ordering is not immediately evident. So your claim that "there is no need for something to order the parts" is not supported by any empirical evidence, while "there is a need for something to order the parts" is supported by empirical evidence and solid inductive reasoning.
Quoting Fooloso4
I don't see the point here. What you are referring to is the theory of participation, which I believe comes from the Pythagoreans. There is a problem with this theory which Plato exposed, and Aristotle attacked with the so-called cosmological argument. The problem is with the active/passive relation. When beautiful things are portrayed as partaking in the Idea of Beauty, then the thing which partakes is active, and the Idea is passive. Then we have the problem that the Idea is needed to be prior to the particular thing which partakes, to account for the multitudes of thing being generated which partake. But there is no principle of activity within the Idea, which could cause participation, because the Idea is portrayed as passively being partaken of.
So Aristotle associates "form" with "actual". And, by the cosmological argument, he determines that there must be a Form which is prior to any particular material thing, as cause of its existence, being the unique and particular thing which it is. This type of Form is associated with final cause.
So, we have the Form which is prior to the particular thing, and responsible for its existence, but we cannot represent this relationship between the particular, and the Form, with the Pythagorean theory of participation, because "participation" does not provide the required source of activity (cause). The source, or cause of activity must come from the Idea, or Form, rather than from the particular thing, which by the theory of participation is said to be doing the partaking. .
Good point. There is a very obvious agenda behind straw men like "Form of Harmony".
1. To being with, the Ancient Greek word harmonia is not the same as modern “harmony”. The primary meaning of harmonia was “arrangement” or “joining together” of separate things, for example, a linear succession of musical notes or scale.
A “harmony” would at the most be a good and/or beautiful arrangement or order as opposed to a bad one, not a separate class of things requiring an universal.
Even the Pythagorean harmony of the heavenly spheres was based on the concordant intervals between astronomical bodies.
For Plato, “harmony” is simply a form of Justice (or Proper Order). What we call “harmonious” city is a just city in Plato. “Harmonious” man is a just man, i.e., a man in whom the virtues such as temperance, courage, and wisdom, function properly and in the right proportion, etc.
2. Therefore there is no need for a “Form of Harmony” when there is a Form of Justice, i.e., Right Order and Proportion.
3. The theory of harmony is a Pythagorean one, here represented by Simmias.
4. Socrates rebuts the Pythagorean theory of soul as harmony by showing that the soul is not like the harmony of a musical instrument.
Socrates does not claim that the soul orders [each part of] the body [to be as it is]. [The soul does not cause the parts of the body. The soul does not take an undifferentiated mass and make fingers and hands and the other parts of the body]* The soul, according to his argument, brings life to the body.
*Bracketed statements are edits.
[His response to Simmias' argument is that you can't have it both ways. You can't have both the soul existing before the body and the soul being a harmony of the parts of the body.]
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Your version of the clock makers argument is not found in the dialogue.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
The hypothesis is problematic. As he says:
He does not, however, reject the Forms hypothesis, he affirms it. Beautiful things are beautiful by the Beautiful. It follows from the hypothesis that harmonious things are harmonious by the Harmonious.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Right. In this case the Form would be Harmony. Just as a beautiful body is beautiful by the Beautiful, the harmonious body is harmonious by the Harmonious.
I think you are being taken for a ride. There is no "Form of Harmony".
The terms “harmonious body” or “harmonious” anything do not occur in the dialogue. There is harmonia, “attunement”, but that is Simmias’ Pythagorean theory that has nothing to do with Socrates’ or Plato’s Theory of Forms.
There is no “Form of Harmony” in Plato for the simple reason that what we call “harmonious” in Modern English, is “rightly-ordered” or “just” (depending on the context) in Plato. So, the corresponding Form would be Justice, not “Harmony” which does not exist.
In Plato, the proper functioning of a whole, be it a city or a human, is not harmony but justice or righteousness (dikaiosyne). Dikaiosyne is the state of the whole in which each part fulfills its function:
Justice as a Virtue - Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy
Plato's dialogues are not about harmony but about justice or righteousness, i.e. proper or right order as a reflection of the cosmic order which in turn is a manifestation of the Good.
I don't think this is quite what he is saying. In fact, this is the problematic perspective which Plato believed needs to be clarified. Think about what you're saying, that there is a body, and the soul brings life into it. This is not right. The body does not come into existence without life in it, as if life is then brought into the body. That is the problematic perspective further analyzed to a great extent in the Timaeus. To say that there is a body first, and then life is put into it is not consistent with our observations of living things. The living body comes into existence with life already in it. So it's not a matter of the soul putting life into an already existing body. This is why Plato posited a passive receptacle, "matter". The form is put into matter, which is the passive potential for a body, and then there is a body. But matter is not by itself a body, as Aristotle expounds, it is simply potency which does not exist as a body, because it requires a form to have actual existence.
So we are lead toward the conclusion that life creates the very body which it exists within. And this is why Aristotle defined soul as the first actuality of a body having life potentially in it, to emphasize that the soul is the very first actuality of such a body. The body doesn't first exist, and then receive a soul, the soul is the first actuality of that body. For him, the soul couldn't exist without a body, so he assigned "soul" to the very first actuality of such a body, as a sort of form, which provides for the actual existence of that body. For Plato and the Neo-Platonists, it is necessary that the soul is prior to the body to account for the reason why the body is the type of body which it is. Therefore the soul doesn't only provide the general "actuality" of the living body, but also the more specific type.
Quoting Fooloso4
He demonstrates that the soul cannot be a harmony, but allows that the body might still be a harmony created by the soul.
Quoting Fooloso4
Quoting Apollodorus
Right, I think Fooloso4 is reaching for straws here, going outside the argument. and I don't see the point.
Quoting Apollodorus
I think that's right. In The Republic, justice is described as a type of order, in which each person minds one's own business and does one's own part, fulfills one's own function without hindering others from fulfilling their functions.
The question of whether there is an Idea of Justice is similar to the question of whether there is an Idea of Good. These questions cast doubt on the theory of participation. It can be argued that Plato rejects the theory of participation in the Timaeus, when he introduces "matter" as the medium between the Form and the material object.
Absolutely. It is imperative to understand that there is no point using English words like “harmonious” to analyze a dialogue when they make no sense whatsoever in Greek.
If we want to understand Plato, we need to be able to put what we believe to be a “Platonic concept” into Greek. If we were to literally put English “harmonious” into Ancient Greek, we would end up with harmonikos.
Where does Plato use harmonikos? Certainly not in the Phaedo. In the Phaedrus, he writes:
A harmonikos is someone who has an understanding of musical scales (or music in general), not a “harmonious person”!
So, depending on the context, and whether it is an object or person, you would need to use “well-fitted” or “arranged”, “well-ordered”, “just”, etc., and in the Platonic framework this would come under the category or universal of order, justice, beauty, and ultimately, good.
For example, you could translate English “harmonious” back into Greek as tetagmenos, arranged in orderly manner from tasso, to arrange or place in order, for which the universal would be taxis, order. Even if you were to use euarmostos, well-joined, from harmozo, join together, it would still have the sense of order.
It follows that “Form of Harmony” is complete and utter nonsense and is just part of Fooloso4's usual repertoire of Straussian diversion and evasion tactics.
In any case, the bottom line is that people need to choose between reading Plato’s dialogues or their own dialogues. They can’t do both.
You are of course right about justice as a type of order. We need to bear in mind that God created the world by establishing order out of disorder (chaos) in order to manifest the Good. So Order as a manifestation of the Good is certainly fundamental in the Platonic framework.
The question of the soul imparting life to the body is a complex one but Socrates definitely rebuts Simmias' Pythagorean theory and this clearly is Plato's intention here.
This is what he says:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Whether or not the perspective is problematic is not at issue in the Phaedo.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
And yet, that is what is said. You are trying to do two different things at the same time. On the one hand, you argue about what the text says, and on the other reject what the text says without distinguishing between the two.
To deny that there is a Form Harmony is arbitrary. The term is used in different ways with regard to different things. Here, given Simmias' analogy, musical harmony must not be ignored. Harmony itself is not the harmony of a particular lyre. The ratio of frequencies exists independently of any instrument. The octave is 1:2, the 4th is 4:3, the 5th is 3:2. It is not just the sounds that are harmonious. In the Republic he says that these numbers are harmonious. (531c) These are things known to the intellect, not to the senses. There are of a Kind distinct from their opposite, Dissonance.
2. Simmias does not use the word harmonia in the sense of musical harmony but in the sense of “a joining together”:
Here is Simmias’ argument black on white:
“The soul, being a mixture of the elements of the body, is the first to perish in death”
[b]Ergo harmonia = “mixture” or “joining together” in an orderly fashion = ordered arrangement = order.
Therefore the universal is Order.[/b]
The numbers in the heard accords are the ratios of the octave, fourth, and fifth. Knowledge of harmonic movement is not auditory, in is intelligible, it is knowledge of the ratios. What all harmony, whether it is music or parts of the soul or body or city, has in common is proper proportions of the parts or elements. It is not just a mixture or an ordered arrangement, it is a properly proportioned arrangement, one with the correct ratio of parts.
Simmias says:
The tuning is not the thing that is tuned. The tuning is the octave, 4th, and 5th, the ratios according to which the strings of a lyre are tuned. Analogously, the tuning of the parts of the body too is in accord with the proper ratios. Again, the tuning should not be confused with the body that is tuned.
And:
2. Socrates reminds Simmias of his argument:
3. Socrates points out to Simmias that his argument is flawed and that he must choose between “soul as harmony” and “knowledge as recollection”:
4. The primary meaning of Greek harmonia is “a joining together”. Harmonia here does not mean a harmony in the sense of melodious sound, but the state of the lyre, brought about by a combination of things, that enables it to produce a certain sound:
- D. Gallop, Phaedo, p. 91
5.. Socrates dismisses Simmias’s harmony argument.
6. Simmias’ acknowledges that his argument was based on mere probability and was deceptive and flawed.
7. No “Form of Harmony” is mentioned anywhere in the dialogue.
8. Harmony being a composite thing (syntheto pragma), i.e., a thing made of parts joined together in an orderly fashion, it reflects the properties of order. Therefore the corresponding universal would be Order.
9. Either way, Socrates’ arguments for the immortality of the soul are indisputably accepted in the dialogue.
10. There is no evidence whatsoever that Socrates, or Plato, teaches atheism.
I already explained how this interpretation is faulty. "The tuning" is the act which tunes. It is not visible in the tuned instrument because it is prior to it, in time. But the act of tuning is logically implied by the existence of a tuned instrument. This is clearly what Socrates is talking about, because he describes how the soul is active in directing the parts. You continually ignore Socrates' reference to the activity of the soul, which is the way toward understanding that the soul is necessarily prior to the body. Appolodorus gets it:
Quoting Apollodorus
.
Absolutely correct.
I think that it is imperative not to make things up or insert things into the dialogue that are not there.
The fact is that Simmias’ argument is based on his comparison of soul with harmony or attunement (harmonia).
Comparison of soul with attunement means that if the soul is like the attunement, then the attunement is like the soul.
For the attunement to be comparable to the soul, it must have the same features F as the soul.
The soul according to Simmias has F1 viz., “being composite like the body” and F2 viz., “being a blend of the things in the body (86d) when these are held taut (92b)”.
Similarly, the attunement has F1 viz., “being a composite thing (syntheton pragma) (92b)” and F2 viz., “being a blend of the things in the lyre, body of the lyre, strings, and notes when these are tuned (86a, 92c).
Therefore, the “harmony” is simply the attunement or compound of its material constituents.
As observed by scholars and ancient authors, Greek harmonia comes from harmozo, “to fit together”. Therefore harmony or attunement here means “being in tune”, hermosthai. This is precisely why Simmias speaks of a “blend” or krasis (86d) and Socrates calls attunement “composite thing”.
Greek harmonia is closer to Greek krasis than to English “harmony”. Modern Greek for "wine" is krasi, literally "mixture" because wine already at the time of Socrates was mixed or tempered with water. And krasis is used here by Simmias himself to describe the soul and, by analogy, the attunement, hence a "mixture" or "blend".
The tuning is not the act of tuning, it is the ratio of frequencies according to which something is tuned.
The soul accordingly is the attunement, the harmony, the condition of the body, not the act of tuning or something that does the tuning.
The cause of the lyre being in tune is not the activity of tightened and slackens the strings. If I give you a lyre you cannot tune it unless you know the tuning, unless you know the ratio of frequencies. It is in accord with those ratios that the lyre is in tune. The cause of the lyre being in tune is Harmony.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Whether the body requires something else acting on it is never discussed. Simmias says:
The soul is embodied. It exists when the body is in a harmonious condition. This is never pursued because he has accepted that the soul is prior to the body based on the story of recollection.
That is correct. That is the point of the quote from the Republic in my last post:
These numbers are the ratios identified by the Pythagoreans. As I said above:
Quoting Fooloso4
There is no mention of proportions in Simmias' argument in the Phaedo.
Pythagoras does not say that harmony is not mixture or ordered arrangement.
A mixture or ordered arrangement is a mixture or ordered arrangement irrespective of "proportions".
If the text says "mixture", "blend", "composite thing", then it is totally wrong to claim that it does not say that.
Ditto, if the text defines "attunement" as "composite thing composed of the features of the lyre as the soul is composed of the features of the body when these are held taut" (92a - b), then it is unacceptable to say that this is not the case.
On Simmias' account the attunement is not separate from the lyre, in the same way the soul is not separate from the body but is made of bodily elements, air, fire, earth, water, and their properties (86b).
If the attunement is like the soul which Simmias says is composed of bodily elements, then the attunement is composed of the elements of the lyre, i.e. body of the lyre, strings, etc.
Were this not the case, the comparison would be invalid from the start and would not stand for even a second.
Plus, Simmias eventually dismisses his own argument and chooses recollection and immortality of the soul as the correct argument (92d - e).
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/philolaus/#Har
A harmony is not simply the combination of elements or any arrangement of elements, it is a particular order. There is no need for a separate soul to order the parts of the body. It is harmony that bonds together the elements.
Simmias makes no mention of proportions in his argument in this dialogue.
Simmias' argument is that the soul is like the attunement of a lyre.
The formula he uses is:
(A) x has F1 and F2
(B) y has F3 and F4
(C) F1 = F3
(D) F2 = F4
(E) Therefore x = y.
The soul (x) has F1 (“being composite like the body”) and F2 ("being a blend of the things in the body (86d) when these are held taut (92b))”.
The attunement (y ) has F3 (“being a composite thing (syntheton pragma) (92b)”) and F4 (“being a blend of the things in the lyre, body of the lyre, strings, and notes when these are tuned (86a, 92c)).
Therefore x (the soul) is like y (the attunement).
If y (the attunement) does not have features F3 and F4, then Simmias is unable to make his argument.
If y (the attunement) does have features F3 and F4, then y (the attunement) has the same features as x (the soul), viz., F1 (being a compound) and F2 (being a blend of the elements of the lyre when these are tuned), exactly as stated in the dialogue.
If "proportions" were the core of his argument, we can be certain that Simmias would have mentioned them in the discussion. After all, he was an educated person. The fact that he does not mention proportions but both he and Socrates mention "blend" and "composite thing" indicates that attunement here means "ordered arrangement" or "ordered compound".
"Harmony" can mean many things to many people and it may well be the case that Pythagoras or Philolaus would have presented the argument differently. But here we are dealing with the argument as presented by Simmias and it is unacceptable to put words in his mouth that he is not saying.
In any case, if a harmony is a "particular order", then a harmony is an order. And orders participate in the universal or Form of Order.
If Pythagoras has a "Form of Harmony," that is his problem. Plato does not need one, it does not occur in the dialogue, and it is nonsense to claim that it does. And even if it did occur, it would change absolutely nothing about the fact that in the dialogue Socrates proves the immortality of soul and that his conclusion is accepted by Simmias, Cebes, and Socrates himself.
Do you not grasp the "ing" suffix on "tuning"? The ratio of frequencies, according to which something is tuned is the principle, or rules, applied in the act of tuning. But these principles do not magically apply themselves to the instrument, an agent is required. The agent is "the cause" in common usage. That is what you are consistently leaving out, the requirement of an agent, and this is what Socrates says is traditionally called "the soul", the thing which directs the individual elements, the agent.
Quoting Fooloso4
This is utter nonsense, and you should know better than to say such a thing Fooloso4. Clearly, "the cause" in common usage of this term, is the activity which results in the instrument being tuned, which is the tightening of the strings. Yes, knowing the principles (ratios), is a necessary condition for the agent which acts as the cause, but the ratios do not constitute the cause of the instrument being tuned, as "cause" is used in common language.
If we refer to Aristotelian terminology, and his effort to disambiguate the use of "cause", we'd see that the ratios would constitute the "formal cause". However, there is still a need for an "efficient cause", as the source of activity. Efficient cause is "cause" as we generally use it. We do not, in our common language use, refer to principles like ratios as causes. Would you see a circle drawn on a paper, and say that pi is the cause of existence of that circle? Or if you saw a right angle would you say that the Pythagorean theorem is the cause of existence of that right angle? Normally, we would say that the person who produced the figure, as the agent, is the cause of the figure's existence, and the principles are static tools which the person employs
Quoting Fooloso4
Yes, the requirement of something else acting on it is discussed, throughout 94, and I provided the quotes. The body requires something which rules over the parts, and this is the soul. Ruling over, directing the elements, and inflicting punishment on them, clearly constitutes "acting on".
When he says:
he is not talking about some invisible act. The tuning of what is tuned is not the act of tuning, but rather the result. When a musician asks "what is the tuning" she is asking what the pitches are. [Edit: Examples: open E tuning, E flat or half-step down tuning, drop D tuning]
https://dictionary.cambridge.org/us/dictionary/english/tuning
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
From the Stanford article quoted above:
There is in this theory no outside agent or principle acting:
Philolaus begins his book:
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I was referring to Philolaus' argument. There is not discussion of Philolaus' argument. No discussion of a self- contained, self-sufficient system of limiters and unlimiteds, tied together by harmony.
I am not sure how the observation relates to your dispute with Fooloso4 but Aristotle did wrestle with distinguishing "cause" from essence in a use of language sort of way:
I'm afraid it looks like Fooloso4 is totally unaware of the fact that the discussion is not about Pythagoras or Philolaus but about Simmias. In the Phaedo. Not in some other book, world or universe.
Admittedly, the confusion sometimes arises from the fact that Ancient Greek harmonia is not the same as English "harmony".
In English, the primary meaning of "harmony" is "combination of simultaneously sounded musical notes, especially as creating a pleasing effect".
In Greek, the primary meaning of harmonia is "a joining or fitting together". It does not even need to be a particularly good or "harmonious" one.
In musical terms, harmonia can mean the stringing of an instrument, a scale, mode or harmony, or music in general.
There is no doubt that various theories comparing the soul with a "harmony" were in circulation and that Simmias uses one version of these in his own argument.
However, it is clear from the context that in Simmias' argument, harmonia refers to the combination of the various parts of the lyre, viz., body, strings, pegs, notes, etc. that together make up the state of the instrument that enables it to produce the desired sound.
It is precisely for this reason that harmonia in better translations like the one by Sedley and Long (that I am using), is rendered as "attunement", not "harmony".
As Sedley and Long point out, "no reliable source explicitly attributes to him [Philolaus] the thesis that soul is an attunement" (p. 78).
In fact, there is no evidence that would link Simmias' argument with any theory of soul other than the one he himself describes in the dialogue, period. And what that theory is, I think has been more than sufficiently demonstrated.
As already stated, had "ratio", "proportion", or anything of that kind been central to Simmias' argument, he would have made this very clear. Instead, both he and Socrates keep talking about component parts of the body (elements and their properties) and of the lyre (lyre, strings, notes), and of both soul and attunement as being a "blend" or "compound" of those parts.
IMHO instead of making up his own dialogue, Fooloso4 should concede that he is mistaken and that he has lost the argument. Unfortunately, when people have taken the path of Straussian esotericism and sophistry, they are in constant danger of becoming lost in a fantasy world where every word, sentence or paragraph has a "secret meaning" that they alone can know and interpret for the rest of us ....
At 86 is how Simmias describes what you translate as "tuning". At 94 is where Socrates corrects Simmias,.with a more true description of "tuning", as an action consisting of the ordering or directing of the parts .
This is the Socratic method, he allows participants to offer their own representations of what is referred to by a term; "beauty" in The Symposium; "just" in The Republic; etc., and he demonstrates how each one is deficient. Then he moves toward a more true representation.
You are refusing to accept Socrates' correction, that the true representation of "tuning" must include the act which directs the parts, causing them to be in tune. So you're still insisting that Simmias' representation is the true description of "tuning", despite the deficiency demonstrated by Socrates, and the obvious absence of agency, which is an essential aspect of "tuning".
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Quoting Fooloso4
Yes, that's the whole point, in that theory, the one offered by Simmias, there is no outside agency. This description, offered by Simmias, requires no agency for "a tuning" to come into being. But Socrates demonstrates that Simmias' position is untenable, as has been thoroughly explained by Apollodorus. Then, Socrates offers a more realistic description of "tuning", a description which includes the agency which is obviously involved in any instance of tuning.
It is not a correction. It is a series of weak arguments.
The argument is as follows: soul is an attunement, vice is lack of attunement, and so the soul cannot be bad and still be a soul because it would no longer be an attunement. What is missing from the argument is that being in or out of tune is a matter of degree. Vice is not the absence of tuning but bad tuning.
You previously denied that something can be more or less in tune, but, as any musician or car mechanic can tell you, that is simply not true.
At 94b Socrates locates the passions in the body. This is questionable. In fact, so questionable that in the Republic he locates the passions in the soul.
The problem with 94c is that there is such a thing as singing out of tune, internal conflict, acting contrary to your own interests, and so on.
Socrates closes this discussion by citing the authority of Homer, the “Divine Poet” (94e-95a). He uses Homer’s authority in support of his argument against attunement on the grounds of the separation of body and soul, and the rule of the soul over the body. But the passage cited (Odyssey XX 17-18) is not a case of the soul ruling the bodily desire, but of the soul controlling its own anger, not the soul controlling the body. But according to Socrates' claim that the soul is without parts and so he cannot account for the soul controlling itself.
In the Republic passions and desires are in the soul. It is a matter of one part of the soul ruling over the other parts of the soul. Why does Socrates give two very different accounts of the soul? Does the soul have parts or not? Are desires and anger in the soul or in the body? Why would he reject attunement in the Phaedo and make it central to the soul in the Republic?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
It is not a correction, it is a different concept of the soul. It is a soul that is completely separate from the body. This raises a host of problems. In addition to those above there is the problem of the identity of Socrates himself. He is neither his soul or his body. And if he is some combination then Socrates does not survive death.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
There is no need for outside agency. This view is much closer to our scientific understanding of physiology and homeostasis.
Quoting Fooloso4
You might place the agency within, as immanent, but the main point is the lack of agency in Simmias' argument. And, when agency is accounted for the agent must be prior to the body, because the body only exists as an organization of parts. Therefore a separate soul, prior to the body is a necessary conclusion.
Quoting Fooloso4
It is a correction, a move toward a more realistic conception of the soul. It's more realistic because agency is a very real part of life (look at Aristotle's potencies of the soul, self-nourishment, self-movement, sensation, intellection), and therefore must be accounted for. And when it is accounted for, the agent which causes the parts to be ordered is necessarily prior to the ordered parts, which is the body. Therefore it is necessary to conclude the existence of a soul which was prior to, and independent from the body.
Quoting Fooloso4
We went through this already, bad tuning cannot be called tuning. If I go to an instrument and start adjusting it to put it out of tune, I am not tuning the instrument. One can change the tuning, by altering adjustments, but if you move toward being out of tune, this cannot be called "tuning".
You continually refuse to recognize that tuning is an act, so you refer to "the tuning", as a static state, But if you would recognize the true nature of tuning, as an act which cause the instrument to be in tune, you would see that if you change the instrument in the wrong direction it cannot be called "tuning".
This is why at 92, the soul as a harmony (static thing), is contrasted with learning (an activity) as recollection The two are incompatible because one is described as a static thing while the other is an activity. What Socrates demonstrates is that "the soul" is better described as an activity "tuning", which causes the harmony, rather than the static thing which you all "the tuning". But since "the body" is understood as a thing, this produces the necessary separation between soul and body.
Quoting Fooloso4
The point is that the activity, which will affect "the tuning", which we call "tuning" when we respect the "ing" suffix, will alter the instrument in one way or the other, and if it is the other, it cannot be called "tuning". You continually deny the reality that "tuning" properly refers to an activity, insisting that it means "in tune".
Quoting Fooloso4
Right, this is acting in a way which is contrary to the direction of the soul, and the reason why the soul needs to inflict harsh punishment to break bad habits, as described. It is not a problem to Socrates' argument, but the first step to you acknowledging the difference between a static state, and an activity. You think there is a problem, but it only appears as a problem because you haven't moved toward recognizing "the soul" as an activity, and breaking away from that static state you call "the tuning". That's why the soul is a "form" for Aristotle, and forms are actualities.
Quoting Fooloso4
I do not see that this is a "different account". The soul, as an activity which rules over all the parts of the body must be present to all parts. So passions and desires, as emotions, are movements of the soul, and there is no inconsistency.
Quoting Fooloso4
I don't see any problems above, except your failure to recognize the distinction between an activity and a state. I agree that "identity" is an issue when we assign personality to an activity, but that's why Aristotle formulated the law of identity, in an explicit way, to resolve this problem. Aristotle's law of identity allows that a thing which is changing may maintain its identity as the same thing, despite changing.
We are at an impasse.
Correct. Not "different account" but different perspective.
In the Phaedo, Socrates' objection is that the soul is non-composite in the sense of "not made of separate elements like the body" as implied by Simmias.
In the Republic, where Socrates is concerned with moral theory, the three "parts" of the soul are really psychological functions of the same one soul, in particular, as determinants of choice and voluntary action.
In addition, they are all governed by justice, dikaiosyne, which is the cardinal virtue of the soul and a manifestation of the Form of Justice that is responsible for order in all things including among Forms. (Which, incidentally, is why in Plato there is no need for a "Form of Harmony".)
Though the three functions of the soul (thought, emotion, desire) are often misconstrued as "parts", they were correctly seen as aspects of the same one soul.
For example, Aristotle in discussing the faculties of the soul, states that the soul is part rational and part irrational, adding that these may be seen "like the convex and concave aspects of the circumference of a circle and distinguishable as two only in definition and thought, and by nature inseparable".
By analogy, the soul's three psychological functions may be seen as the three sides (or corners) of one triangle or whichever way one chooses to illustrate it.
In any case, it is quite obvious that they can be understood only as pertaining to one inseparable whole.
It appears to me, like you refuse to accept that agency is an essential part of harmony, and that Socrates' description of harmony, as something produced by agency, is a much better description than Simmias' which neglects the role of agency.
There is a similar issue with modern physicalism and the physicalist's conception of emergence. Order, and organization, by the conception of emergence, is said to simply emerge from disorder. Of course this is contrary to empirical evidence, as it totally neglects the observed role of agency in the creation of orderly structures. I believe that this type of conception is promoted by atheists who approach this issue with a bias which encourages them to unreasonably reject the requirement of agency.
Good point. Simmias’ theory of the soul as harmony is just a materialist proposition with a “Pythagorean” twist. It seemingly resembles the view attributed to some Pythagoreans, but there is no evidence to link it with an actual theory that makes exactly the same claims.
As observed by Sedley and Long, “no reliable source explicitly attributes to Philolaus the thesis that soul is an attunement”.
According to H. B. Gottschalk, the theory is actually Plato’s own creation. We need to recall that Plato’s main object here is to test his theories of Forms and Recollection and Simmias’ thesis presents a convenient opportunity to refute the views held by the materialists of the time.
H. B. Gottschalk, Soul as Harmonia – JSTOR
Socrates refers to it ironically at 77d-e and Cebes himself laughs at it just as Socrates smiles when Simmias presents his argument:
As shown by Lloyd Gerson, the whole Platonic project is based on an anti-materialist position. Plato believes in non-material intelligence and assumes an intelligent agency as ultimate cause.
So I think the issue of agency is an interesting one especially as at 86c Simmias generalizes his theory to include all the harmoniai found “in all the products of craftsmen.”
This reminds the careful reader of Plato’s Craftsman or Maker of the Cosmos ....
I like the way that Plato introduces the idea of agency in relation to harmony, at 92c, where he has Socrates say: "How will you harmonize this statement with your former one?" Then by the middle of 93, he's right into the need for agency: "Does not the nature of each harmony depend on the way it has been harmonized?"
I understand Pythagorean cosmology to have been very scientifically advanced for the time. I think they promoted the idea that the entire cosmos consisted of waves or vibrations in an ether, and the various existents were harmonies in the vibrations. Anyway, the cosmos was understood to be highly ordered, as consisting of harmonies. I believe Plato has done a very good job arguing that such an ordered system of harmonies requires agency for its creation. The fact that agency was implied, but not accounted for, was a serious flaw in the Pythagorean cosmology So it had to be dismissed, and the Neo-Platonists produced a replacement cosmology which allowed for the reality of agency.
Correct. At 92c Socrates makes fun of Simmias by pointing out that his previous statement to the effect that soul pre-exists the body does not work in harmony with his statement that harmony in the lyre comes after the lyre has been put together from its component parts. Socrates then stresses that if any argument should work in harmony it is an argument about harmony.
This can be seen again at 97c – 99d where Socrates mocks Anaxagoras for failing to use his intelligence. Anaxagoras held that intelligence both orders things and is cause of everything, a view that Socrates was delighted to learn. But to Socrates’ great disappointment Anaxagoras failed to use his intelligence in that he assigned the ordering of things not to some intelligent cause but to the four elements.
I think it is pretty obvious that this is, in fact, Plato’s position. He does not mock the belief in the immortality of the soul, afterlife, God, etc. but materialist views that lead to atheism.
The same views leading to atheism, according to which the four elements are primary and soul posterior to them, are criticized in Laws:
As shown by A. E. Taylor:
- A. E. Taylor, Plato: The Man And His Work
This is not to say that people are not allowed to be atheists if they so choose, only that Plato in his dialogues does not teach atheism. On the contrary, he is committed to showing that intelligence is the ultimate cause of everything and that belief in this intelligence is the right belief for philosophers. Otherwise they would not be philosophers in a Platonic sense but materialist scientists.
And so it seems that Socrates, on the false premise that philosophy is the greatest music, went about to produce a philosophy completely devoid and stripped of music, totally amusical. But just to be on the safe side, he sloppily put together some words and fables from here and there, and got it over with. Ah, how amusing!
Well, as they used to say on American Bandstand, "Its got a good beat and you can dance to it". So I think this Plato guy just might have a hit or two in him.
Don't know whether Plato had any hits, but he was definitely a hitman! :smile:
As for Socrates:
However, there are quite a lot of certainties.
And besides, Socrates own doubt is the case here, and not whether Socratic philosophy has elements of doubt.
I find that the painting of Socrates as a man devoid of doubt, with no fear of death, no regrets (presumably no guilt either) and looking forward to the afterlife (if any), very foreign to me, it actually reminds me of messianic figures, mystics, or madmen, but maybe they are all the same. Rather dogmatic, won't you think?
Unlike modern skepticism, Socratic skepticism is the condition that gives rise to and guides his inquiry. The Greek term skepsis means both doubt and inquiry.
Quoting Pussycat
Some of his friends felt the same way.
Quoting Pussycat
No. To the contrary skepsis informs his attitude to death. Philosophy as preparation for death is about what we do in life. We do not know what happens when we die. Our time here and now may be all we have. So how best to live it?
Moreover, I forgot what I was going to say...
Anyway, here goes.
I don't doubt that in the text Socrates is depicted as one fearless to death and remorseless about the live he has lived, having lived it as best as is humanly possible. What I do doubt though, is if there can ever be such a man. The belief in his existence is what I call dogmatic, which, as it seems, follows necessarily from the whole of socratic/platonic philosophy. Have we been misled into believing that there is even a slightest chance that all this is possible and true, with Socrates as the main perpertator of this misleading? Is Socrates, in our eyes - and not in his, deified, having reached a status of apotheosis? In Socrates' own eyes, isn't his own deification a hubris?
Socrates, suddenly plagued by the thought that he might’ve misunderstood the daimonion, the divine whisper. That he may have mistranslated the music-dream. What if his whole life's pursuit of dialectic, of reason, was a grand detour? What if the divine meant not logos, but lyre? Not reason, but rhythm?
[quote=Socrates]
Aargh, what a terrible thing has befallen me in my last hours, to have me doubt my life's work!
Did I misinterpret the music-dream?
“Make music, Socrates. Make music.”
I thought the search for truth was song enough.
But what if it wasn’t?
What if the gods spoke plainly, and I—clever fool that I am—interpreted instead of listening?
What if they asked for song, and I gave them syllogisms?
What if they meant laughter, and I gave them logos?
I persuaded so many…
Turned the youths from the poets to the philosophers, from the myths to the arguments.
Did I lead them away from the chorus, from the dance?
But no! I won't drag myself into self-doubt, not now, at the very end.
The daimon never told me what to do—only what not to do.
And he was silent all through this path.
That must mean something. Doesn’t it?
And thank the gods I left no writings.
So that my truth may live as rumor, echo, myth.
Living inquiry is better than dead scripture, anyway.
[/quote]
SHADE:
Hello, Socrates. Long have we awaited your return.
SOCRATES:
...
SHADE:
I am sent here to inform you that you are to stand trial for your crimes. I hope that you have fully recovered from your earthly trial, regain your strength my friend, you 're going to need it.
SOCRATES:
Why? What are the charges?
SHADE:
The charges are numerous, but they all stem from this:
That you gave philosophy a bad name—for all time.
And as you yourself once said, it’s better to pull out one’s eye than to lose one's name.
SOCRATES:
What! You can’t possibly pin that on me!
Just because I talked to a few blokes in the Agora, doesn't mean—
SHADE:
I’m afraid we can.
And we have ample evidence.
Tell me—do you remember a man named Plato?
SOCRATES:
Plato? Of course. Nice fellow. Didn’t talk much.
A bit of a recluse, if you ask me. Always lurking in the back. No friends around.
He hardly even looked at me.
SHADE:
Yes, well… that may be because he was recording you.
He developed a system of stenography. Quite advanced.
He recovered, wrote, and distributed most of your talks.
SOCRATES:
Wait, he did what?
That sneaky basterd!