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The linguistic turn and pragmatism.

Shawn March 06, 2021 at 23:23 1050 views 3 comments
@Banno says (see) that the linguistic turn is in fact only something we take granted nowadays as a method of doing philosophy, with the unstated goal of linguistic philosophy being clarity of thought and lesser confusion between participants of a conversation or discussion.

Now, I see no reason to think otherwise; but, if this is in fact true, and having already read some of Richard Rorty's thought, I feel compelled to claim that the linguistic turn contributed to old pragmatic thought.

Does this make sense to you?

Because pragmatism never really stood out in philosophy after William James and Dewey; but, if the above is true, then isn't credit due to pragmatism more than already presumed nowadays?

Comments (3)

Dharmi March 06, 2021 at 23:37 #506874
I said elsewhere that where philosophy is traditionally about the nature of truth, reality and good, Postmodern philosophy is the abolition of philosophy.

Take that how you will.
Banno March 06, 2021 at 23:57 #506893
Why a new thread?

https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/comment/506899
Shawn March 06, 2021 at 23:59 #506895
Quoting Banno
Why a new thread?


That really couldn't really be answered, instead of this one, Banno.

Like, who's going to verify such a statement that the linguistic turn is indeed dead?

If you prefer here then all the better?