Sorry for another off-topic, but could someone clarify the following questions? 1. Is it true that, for Kant, the assertion of the existence of things...
How can they be completely un-Kantian if they adhere to the analytic/synthetic dichotomy? W.V.Quine has even written the article titled Two Dogmas of ...
Yes, simply because in Aristotle, there is no analytic/synthetic dichotomy since Kant has elaborated not only the synthetic a priori/a posteriori part...
I cannot agree with this — it is Kant who introduced the sharp separation, that is, a dichotomy, between the analytical and synthetical truths. It is ...
Before this suggestion can be treated as catastrophically false, the distinction between the noumenal and the phenomenal must itself be justified. How...
I don't fully understand why noumena are not things-in-themselves and would rather say that noumena are things-in-themselves from the point of view of...
I had in mind analytic/synthetic distinction on the one hand and between phenomena and noumena on the other. Well, prima facie, the basics seem quite ...
Well, these are indeed rather separate domains, but both distinctions are very important for Kant, so one could suspect that they are somehow intercon...
Hi. If you permit, I would like to revive this topic. I will be glad if someone clarifies the following. It is not uncommon to assert that Kantian dua...
Thanks, it is useful book indeed. But preliminary it is already clear that McDowell disagrees with it's author. Thus in a direct response to Paul Redd...
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