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Trying to Better understand Intuitionistic Logic, to argue against it

BB100 April 25, 2020 at 03:25 8000 views 22 comments
As far As I been researching Intuitionistic logic does not use True or false values, Denies Law of excluded middle, and Has the True and not provable system. From these I got that it does not accept proof by contradiction, pierce law, -(-p)=p, and such. Seems so far, this axiomatic system conflates ability to actively prove and Truth together. Anyone able to inform me more, for I intend to have a discussion about how The Three Classical laws are true, therefore anything others that conflict is not true.

Comments (22)

I like sushi April 25, 2020 at 05:54 #405399
For those interested there is more information here:

https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-intuitionistic/
BB100 April 25, 2020 at 14:46 #405528
I have a question, since intuitionistic logic stems from a mathematical. Axiom, does it not mean from Godel's Incompleteness Theorem that it cannot prove everything itself?
Deleted User April 25, 2020 at 15:51 #405550
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Heracloitus April 25, 2020 at 15:54 #405551
Dissappear?
Deleted User April 25, 2020 at 18:09 #405602
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BB100 April 25, 2020 at 18:20 #405606
Reply to tim wood What I mean is it says what is true if you can prove it and if not then not priveable. The condition of truth is dependant on provability in a sense.
A Seagull April 25, 2020 at 19:07 #405623
Quoting BB100
90

What I mean is it says what is true if you can prove it and if not then not priveable. The condition of truth is dependant on provability in a sense.


So how come you apply (in the other thread) truth to the 3 laws of logic, which are unproven?
BB100 April 25, 2020 at 19:15 #405628
I mentioned before that The three laws are neccessarily come from meaning of truth, what is.
aletheist April 25, 2020 at 19:18 #405630
Reply to BB100
If you need to understand intuitionistic logic better in order to argue against it effectively, how do you already know that you will want to argue against it once you do better understand it? Perhaps understanding it better will lead you to realize that it makes perfect sense on its own terms, even though it is inconsistent with classical logic--which, by the way, absolutely no one denies. Everything that conforms to intuitionistic logic also conforms to classical logic, but certain results of classical logic do not obtain in intuitionistic logic. In that sense, it is a more modest formal system, like non-Euclidean geometry relative to Euclidean geometry--one fewer axiom.
TheMadFool April 25, 2020 at 19:29 #405633
Is this another Wittgensteinian moment? Language games complicating an already confusing and overcrowded landscape of ideas?
A Seagull April 25, 2020 at 19:41 #405636
Quoting BB100
I mentioned before that The three laws are neccessarily come from meaning of truth, what is.


Well that is entirely illogical.
Eli April 25, 2020 at 19:47 #405639
Hey does anyone have the time to help me out with a simple logic problem really quick???
Deleted User April 25, 2020 at 20:32 #405663
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BB100 April 25, 2020 at 20:48 #405668
Reply to tim wood Yes, that is what I mean.
BB100 April 25, 2020 at 20:58 #405673
Reply to aletheist The simple fact that proof by contradiction is not accepted as valid, even though the result must be true. Inherently the axiomatic system is focused on proof results that specifies an object. I know that the system accepts Law of Excluded Middle over a finite set boundaries, but not over an infinity. Last reason is because the system is based on pire mathematical concepts. The Three Laws are based independant to such and thus between them is the implications of The three laws are more overarching.
Deleted User April 25, 2020 at 20:59 #405675
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Deleted User April 25, 2020 at 21:05 #405679
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BB100 April 25, 2020 at 21:06 #405680
Sorry, Grammar is still not the best.

Truth is defined and I assume is defined as what is, or another way of saying, what exists.

What exists must be in compliance to the three laws. You can extrapolate the three laws from the very concept of the meaning exist.
BB100 April 25, 2020 at 21:10 #405683
Reply to tim wood First I would ask whether that money is tradable in the currency exchange system, then say that question requires emperical evidence to solve.
Deleted User April 25, 2020 at 22:02 #405702
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BB100 April 25, 2020 at 22:36 #405711
Reply to tim wood Sorry, still need to check before posting to see If I wrote something correctly.

But, "The stone in your backyard", I would say needs to be said as There is the stone in your backyard. This would be a truth. Just stone would not provide any distinction of what you are saying.

Infinity is more so a concept, so it would not be strange that something that is true such as in a finite system , to not apply in a non finite system. Infinite Hotel being an example, full but can hold more people.
Deleted User April 26, 2020 at 04:08 #405872
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