charles ferraroApril 05, 2020 at 22:331350 views1 comments
Does Sartre's conception of the Pre-Reflective Cogito affect the indubitably certain truth of Descartes' Cogito Sum argument? And, if so, why? Or, how?
Reply to charles ferraro
One way to look at it is that Sartre inserted Kant between your question and Descartes.
Unless there is some text that would underline what you are asking for.
Comments (1)
One way to look at it is that Sartre inserted Kant between your question and Descartes.
Unless there is some text that would underline what you are asking for.