What are the First Principles of Philosophy?
Of course, all philosophical systems have first principles, but the difference between one system of philosophy and another is that they have differing first principles. What I am asking is, however, is if it is the case that all first principles are presuppositional in the sense that they may or may not be true at this present moment in time, or may or may not be true in some future or past moment of time, or may or may not be true from one perspective and not another; or, if there are eternally true propositions (i.e. eternal truths) that are not presuppositional, but absolutely necessary (i.e. First Principles?) If not, why not? And if so, why, and what are they?
Comments (100)
I thought this thread was going to be about something much more interesting, and in case it actually is and I just don't see it in there, I'll say what I expected: what are the first principles assumed by philosophy as an activity, not by any particular philosophical systems? I.e. what are the principles held in common between people doing philosophy, violation of which means whatever you're doing is no longer philosophy?
I think those principles are:
- There are no unanswerable questions
- There are no unquestionable answers
Violating the first principle, we end up doing nothing, at least nothing even vaguely resembling philosophy. Violating the second principle, we end up doing religion (because we're appealing to faith), not philosophy (which by its nature appeals to reason).
I think that an entire philosophical system can be built out of just those two principles.
It is supposed to be a necessary truth, but are there necessary truths that are not simply believed to be necessary, but necessarily necessary?Quoting Pfhorrest
It could be more interesting, because I've found the First Principles, and could have posted them. but I want to see what others think.
Quoting Pfhorrest
Sure, but these are statements concerning epistemology; what about statements concerning ontology? Is epistemology contingent upon ontology, or is ontology contingent upon epistemology? Which is prior to which? Further, I am looking for necessary truths here, or rather, truths that are eternal, the truths that you posted are presuppositional. How are we supposed to know if there are unanswerable questions or not? Doesn't the truthiness of both this statement and the other (i.e. "there are no unquestionable answers") necessitate other truths and other questions? If they do, they are not general enough to be used as the First Principles of a Perennial Philosophy of Being.
Those aren't just statements concerning epistemology. The "no unanswerable questions" one is more ontological than epistemological: a full half of that principle is just equal to realism, and the other half is moral objectivism. The "no unquestionable answers" one is more epistemological, but it has direct implications that are again more ontological: if every answer must be questionable, then no appeals to things that can't be questioned are acceptable, ruling out the supernatural, i.e. the non-empirical. Between those two things you have a robust ontology of empirical realism. And on the moral side of things, the analogue of that, a kind of hedonic moral objectivism. Conversely, the "no unanswerable questions" principle has direct epistemological and deontological implications as well: justificationism would, through Agrippa's Trilemma, lead either to foundationalism or coherentism (which violate the "no unquestionable answers" principle), or else to rejecting all opinions out of hand, violating the "no unanswerable questions" principle, so contra justificationism we have to have a critical rationalist epistemology, and the moral equivalent of that, a liberal deontology (where you're allowed to do what you like until reason can be shown not to, rather than forbidden from doing anything until you can justify that there is a good reason to).
All of those things then have far-reaching implications on things from philosophy of language, art, and mathematics, mind, will, education, governance, and so on.
Being = existence
Truth = the reality
Goodness = that which answers "Why"
Beauty = ?
(A) the principle of non-contradiction (PNC), or ~[x = ~x]
or
(B) the principle of insufficient reason (PIR), or random (i.e. acausal) events occur and are ineluctable (i.e. unbounded);
thus, by virtue of which, reflective criteria (for judgment) and adaptive methods (of decision-making) have been cultivated / are regulated.
Anyway, just my 2 drachmas.
:death: :flower:
If you mention this one, why not also include the law of identity and the law of the excluded middle? If not, why not?
I think each one presupposes (or, otherwise, supplements) the PNC. Also, 'contradiction' has modal ontological implications (re: 'impossibilty' e.g. impossible objects / worlds) which, to my mind, the others lack.
I wasn't specifically thinking of logical atomism, i was referring to his consciously self-refuting Tractatus, as well the latter Wittgenstein's philosophical investigations, that isn't logically consistent. For example, his apparent reliance on the imagination to refute the idea of private language. This isn't a criticism, it's just a general feature of philosophical arguments. For many other examples see Graham Priest's "Beyond the Limits of Thought".
The Tractatus is consistent, although maybe not with the Investigations. That would be Wittgenstein changing his mind (maybe from the limits he had put himself in). If he used imagination to find out that we can communicate as a species across cultures and languages, I don't see that inconsistent either
Maybe a little too Cartesian. Don't underestimate the "movement of philosophy" (Hegel).
Here is a good start for ye guys:
https://www.bing.com/videos/search?q=days+like+these+hegel+school+of+life&view=detail&mid=7206E3217DBBCB3809417206E3217DBBCB380941&FORM=VIRE
There's a difference between using words to denote objects or relationships between objects in the world, and the objects and relationships between objects in themselves that those words represent. The Law of Non Contradiction is thought to be violated only because it can be shown that a contradiction in terms of the relationships between the symbols (i.e. words) that point the objects, can be true. This results for the false equivalence that the symbols that represent objects and the objects themselves are the same, or rather, have the same logical form which they do not. In an actualized sense, nothing can ever exist and not exist at the same and in the same respect. However, in a state of potentiality, the actualized possibility of x and -x exist at the same time and in the same respect, according to my philosophy anyways.
Take a truth, any truth, and then ask yourself, what must first be true for it to be true, and keep going and going until you find an undeniable truth. When you find it, ask yourself, can this truth change and how? You claim that it can be changing, why? Because the world is changing? But is there not some underlying unchanging aspect that grounds it all? Isn't change contingent upon the lack thereof? Isn't all change for the purpose of that which changes not? Can Existence and Non-Existence both Exist and Not Exist at the same time and in the same respect? Is not the truth that "Existence is" (in the absolute sense), eternal? If not, whence did it come into being?
How is it that you think teleology and acausality can co-exist? Is not all chaos, controlled chaos, and thus bounded by order? Aren't all infinities bounded by some a priori set, or concept? In a world of infinite randomness, how is that things in the world never become anything other than what they have the a priori potential to become? A seed can become a tree, and out of the tree, a fruit, and out of a fruit, another seed, but none of these things, without the interference of a subjective will, can become anything other than that, like for example, a pumpkin, or a home, etc...How is that you reconcile the ap priori orderliness and limitedness of Nature with the notion that all events are "unbounded" and "random?"
What are the First Principles of Philosophy?
Implicit in this question is the assumption that philosophy has first principles.
I think that that assumption needs to be clearly identified so that a philosophy that has first principles is not conflated with general philosophy.
While it may be the case, empirically speaking, that most, if not all, clearly expressed philosophy requires foundations, these may not neccessarily be expressible as principles.
each truth is contingent upon a higher truth, this is pretty much self-evident, for if there were not hydrogen atoms, nor oxygen atoms, there could not be H20, and thus neither water, nor ice, nor, nor water vapor, and of course, if there were no protons and electrons, there could be no atoms as such...the question is whether or not this chain of contingency is infinite or not. To say that there are no first principles is to say that the chain is infinite, and to say that there are first principles is to say that it is not. But of course, the number of truths that are necessary for each descendent truth in the hierarchy of contingency becomes less and less a we ascend upwards in the hierarchy of contingency, and since we dealing with wholes (i.e. all truths are wholes and not irrational numbers), the chain must end.
If PNC is rejected, that can be shown to be wrong by PNC. If it is violated, the perpetrators should be punished.
I don't believe Heraclitus, Kant, Hegel and/or Wittgenstein rejected or violated PNC. You'd have to show this in more detail, Sime, than just stating it as a claim.
I agree that contradictions are properties of sentences rather than of matters-of-fact, for I cannot understand what could be meant by contradictory matters of fact. I would also say the same about truth, for I cannot fathom a false matter-of-fact. The principle of non-contradiction is certainly critical to the practice of science, but I see neither justification nor practice of non-contradiction when it comes to philosophy.
The first principle of philosophy is that philosophy has a first principle.
(That ought to be right.)
"all truths are wholes and not irrational numbers"
Who says?
"Take a truth, any truth, and then ask yourself, what must first be true for it to be true, and keep going and going until you find an undeniable truth. When you find it, ask yourself, can this truth change and how? You claim that it can be changing, why? Because the world is changing? But is there not some underlying unchanging aspect that grounds it all?"
Order is in the eye of the beholder
"Isn't change contingent upon the lack thereof?"
Contingent upon contingency? Maybe
"Isn't all change for the purpose of that which changes not?"
But existentialism!
"Can Existence and Non-Existence both Exist and Not Exist at the same time and in the same respect?"
That's a word game
"Is not the truth that "Existence is" (in the absolute sense), eternal? If not, whence did it come into being?"
From nothing
if there is a partial truth, it is still whole. all parts are wholes, this whole distinguishes them from other wholes, and also from the whole in which it is a part.
Quoting Gregory
order is prior to the brain and thus the eye, and if this were not, it would be impossible for parts to become synthesized into wholes for a purpose. purpose implies reason, reason implies order.
Quoting Gregory
no, the hierarchy of contingency is pyramidal shaped, not cylindrical.
Quoting Gregory
is nonsensical. Quoting Gregory
I'm talking about the ground of being, the non-spatial substratum in which all things exist, persist, originate from, and return to upon their apparent death. That's what the word "Existence," spelled with a capital 'E' denotes. It has nothing to do with semantics.
Quoting Gregory
quite simply the difference between nothing and something is that something possesses the potential to become and nothing does not.
This is convoluted. You deny the reality of irrational numbers, and thus don't believe in imaginary time as Hawking called it? "The spiritual" is nothingness because truth is nowhere. How much truth have you touched?
I deny the existence of numbers in themselves that do not denote either a qualitative or essential aspect of being. in my philosophy, logic denotes being, math necessitates logic, and thus both being and logic precede mathematics. They have a contingent reality in the sense that they are mental abstractions, or rather, objects of memory and present awareness.
I don't know what imaginary time is. but I conceive of time as both relative and absolute.
The spiritual is not "nothingness," but identical to the unchanging structure of absolute being. The absolute makes its presence known at all times within me; never would I say something so blasphemous and ignorant experiencing the truth directly by means of the mystical union.
Why 'ought' it to be right?
You can claim it as an assumption if you want.
Why are you starting with truth? What is meant by 'truth'?
You are making more implicit assumptions here.
You have never heard of anyone bigger than life?
A person greater, smarter, and more beautiful than himself?
Then you haven't met me yet.
But to be serious:
A principle is not a truth... it is a principle. a truth is inherent in a statement, a principle is a guide. Guides are imperatives, not statements. Statements have truth values; principles can't.
So... "each truth is contingent upon a higher truth" is (as much as it is not up for debate) does not contradict having a first principle.
There is no assumption needed here. I think this was brilliant. And I don't mind saying so myself.
Statements don't have truth values, but some have truth labels.
Aha.
Stop right there. This is misinformation on your part.
A giraffe has a long neck.
A giraffe has a short neck.
Would you call the corresondence to truth a value, or a label? Why? This is not a rhetorical question. I don't know why you would call them labels instead of values. So please explain.
Gregory, you just proved that Hegel was God. The Pancosmic god.
I am not starting with truth, but with the undeniable fact that I am self-aware, which is simultaneously an object of awareness and a truth. This is because truth and being are identical. Truth does not necessitate language, otherwise, the necessary truth "mind is necessary for language," is false.
this is not true, substance need not be spatial. to say that spirit is a substance is not to say that spirit is spatial, but this is what pantheism implies.
It is to do with the process by which one chooses which statements, if any, merit the label of 'true'
It is a somewhat haphazard and mystical process and so one cannot claim that a statement has the 'property' of truth, only a label, which is typically allocated on a subjective basis.
Well there are lots of assumptions implicit in your assertion, and that is fine.
I guess the labels are for applying reality to logic.
Peter is John.
John is Paul.
Therefore Peter is Paul
The conclusion is right in logic. The last sentence has a truth value of "true" if the first two statements are also true.
In reality, assuming everyone only has one first name, and these are first names in the example, Peter can't be Paul.
So the truht label is "false".
The logic is not violated, because the first two statements or sentences are also "false".
-------------------------
A Seagull, is this the difference between truth values and truth labels? A value of "true" can be assigned only to a logical statement, and it assumes that the logic is right and the premises are true. The truth label is an application of reality, inasmuch as truth, as an approximation of reality, is questionable; so the "true" statement earns only a label of truth, not a value of truth, to say that we believe it's true, but we would not swear on our mother's grave that it is actually true.
This is what I got out of your explanation and objections. Am I anywhere close to how your system would view it?
Does your system have a special name to it? If I guessed your system correctly, and it has a specific name, would you please give it here? If I am off the mark,then I'm off the market, for names, too. Thanks.
Well there is 'logic' and then there is other logic.
I prefer the logic whereby logic is the manipulation of symbols according to specific rules. So in logic for your example 'is' would have to be defined perhaps something along the lines of 'can be substituted for'
and the names eg 'peter' would be treated as alphanumeric strings. But the whole of it would be treated as an abstract deduction, with no particular relevance to the real world.
If a person accepts that the first two premises are an accurate representation of their model of the world then they would be likely to accept the conclusion as also being a representation of their model of the world and hence label it as 'true'.
Quoting god must be atheist
Yes, it is called 'The Pattern Paradigm'; you might find it interesting.
:up: :smirk:
Quoting TheGreatArcanum
I don't.
"Teleology" is an artifact of antiquated folk epistemology (pace Aristotle) refuted handily by the advent of Galilean-Cartesian-Newtonian mathematical physics, etc.
"Chaos" =|= randomness; the quote above refers to the latter not the former.
Non sequitur.
I don't know what "infinite randomness" pertains to; my point is that there are random events and, as such, they are not bounded with respect to - encompassed by - reasoning (i.e. causal explanations (e.g. scientific modeling)), and therefore reason is, while indispensable, nonetheless insufficient (pace Leibniz, Hegel).
I don't.
I've neither claimed nor implied anything about "all events". Again, my point is that there are a class of events - random - that are unbounded with respect to reason (i.e. ineluctable).
I don't believe that they had the technology by in Galileo and Newton's day to prove that the will is contingent upon the Laws of Nature. Even still, it has not be shown empirically that the will is nothing but a mere effect of mechanical causes inside the brain.
Quoting 180 Proof
What is randomness but controlled chaos? that is, chaos that possesses, not infinite possibilities, but finite possibilities only, that is to say that it is defined by some abstract a priori limited context.Quoting 180 Proof
Quoting 180 Proof
your non-sequitur is a non-sequitur
Quoting 180 Proof
How do you distinguish, logically, between that which is bounded by reason and that which is not?
Quoting 180 Proof
Can you show that this random class of events has infinite possibilities as opposed to only a finite number? That which is truly random cannot be limited in its randomness, otherwise it would then be presupposed by limitation, and since each entity is limited in a different way, that which limits on behalf of reason, right? Or are we operating under the presupposition here that randomness is eternal and existing necessarily? Do you have empirical proof for this assertion?
That which comes into existence, comes into existence by means of a bridge between potentiality and actuality. The question is whether the bridge between potential and actuality in our minds has the same essence as the bridge between potential and actuality in the world.
:death: :flower:
Sorry, I'm not well versed in philosophical propaganda (i.e. postmodern philosophy). We're speaking different languages here.
I know, all actuality is born of willing, and potentiality is identical to the essence of subjectivity itself. It's common sense.
Just edit one post, and quote the comment that you're referring too. stop spamming and talking to nobody.
there is no opposite to being, in the present. the past and future are identical to non-being, that is to say, they do not exist, just the same as non-being.
Wouldn't the past then be the opposite of being? Which way does it go? Aren't we talking about source within a cyclic system? You don't know the first thing about philosophy. You're probably a Thomist or Aristotelian
The past existed, the present exists, and the future will exist. The ground of being which contains and precedes all contingent beings (i.e. beings having a finite duration), persists in existing, and in doing so, makes time conceivable, through memory, awareness, understanding, and willing, of course. Time is not cyclic in this sense, but it is cyclic in another sense, that is, in terms of the relationship between the perceived object and the perceiving subject, in which case, there is necessarily a time dialation between them because the object as perceived is the object, as it was, and not as it is, meaning, that all objects of perception are of the past, in relation to awareness which exists in the absolute present, and both perception and causation flows from the present to the past, that is, from the Primary Present to the Secondary Present moment in time, and from the Absolute to the Relative.
I can't be classified as a follower of any philosopher. I've created my own system of philosophy.
This is just Einstein's philosophy. The source of the universe is and must be incomprehensible. Only nothingness therefore qualifies. There is no unfathomable being or substance out there. All can be known. Aquinas's error was thinking such a substance existed, and this ultimately let him down. He was a good theologian and a poor philosopher. As well, Aristotle was a fine logician and a poor philosopher. Really good philosophy didn't start untill Descartes
You've created an idol for yourself. Nothingness can never be an idol. It is both eminently comprehensible (we know what it means) and incomprehensible (all we know is being phenomenologically). It's like a figure of 8
No. My philosophy and Einsteins philosophy are not the same. He thinks that time is solely relative, I think that time is both relative and absolute and that relative time is contingent upon absolute time.
Quoting Gregory
ironically, to say that the source of the universe is in incomprehensible is to make an epistemological claim about the source of the universe.
Quoting Gregory
I'm not sure what you're talking about, nothingness doesn't possess any potentiality at all and thus cannot contain, nor be the reason for the existence or source of anything because it can become and contain nothing other than nothing, but there is something, there is awareness,and thus there cannot be absolutely nothing. these are the basics of philosophy.
Quoting Gregory
the ground of being is fathomable because you can fathom yourself, and knowing isn't limited to what is immediately present, and the laws of logic extend their reach backwards in time into eternity.
Quoting Gregory
One cannot know the qualitative state of all entities in existence at the same time. Absolute knowledge is not possible.
Of a two year old
Quoting TheGreatArcanum
So?
Yes, analytical and applied logic are good ways of distinguishing the two types. Too often the two are conflated and this can cause problems.
2. Do no conceptual harm.
:chin:
[quote=William Kingdon Clifford]It is wrong always, everywhere, and for anyone, to believe anything upon insufficient evidence.[/quote]
[quote=Hamlet]There are more things in heaven and earth, Horatio, than are dreamt of in your philosophy[/quote]
The first quote is true to the extent the second quote is false and vice versa. If one is in search of truth or, what philosophers love, wisdom, then one mustn't be so narrow-minded to think only reason will lead us to it and if one is, again, in search of truth, one mustn't make the silly mistake of ignoring reason.
As far as I have read, in metaphysics one should not speak of first principles, but rather of first objects. That is, the world, the soul and God.
The goal of metaphysics is to ascertain the a priori unchanging structures of the eternal aspect of existence, represent them using words and language, and then use them to build a system of philosophy that is true for all intelligent beings anywhere throughout all of time (i.e. a Perennial Philosophy); but of course, many philosophers today disagree, and this is why most today do not deserve the title.
"The a priori unchanging structures of the eternal aspect of existence"... The heaviest syntagm I've ever read.
You assume that there are structures, that they are immutable (Plato lives) and "a priori" (Kant lives), and that they belong to a quality (which, moreover, is eternal) of what exists (Plato lives your thought, intensely). But when we look at experience, we observe that we must appeal to tradition (because in metaphysics, all we probably have is tradition) and we notice that we must deal with the world, the soul and God, but not for any reason, but necessarily, although by convention.Otherwise, perhaps we should not even speak (Aristotle lives in me).
Well, "world" (object), "the soul" (fiction) and "God" (fiction) can be abductively inferred by differentiating objects from fictions.
I don't assume them, I've developed my own philosophical system and method, and that method is rooted in self-evident truths that cannot be denied without contradiction. I am not a follower of Plato, or Kant, I am my own philosopher, and right now I am writing the book that will perhaps change philosophy forever, and this is because it is so far beyond all prior philosophy books that it professional philosophers will have to acknowledge its existence and comment on its ideas.
The notion that the world is an object (presupposition), the notion that there is no soul (because you do not yet experience it) (presupposition), and the notion that there is no God (presupposition). Can you provide logical reasoning for your opinions? If not, they are no better than piles of shit.
some of us are living in heaven on earth, others are swimming in shit. Just because you're dead inside doesn't mean that others are.
Those who cannot remember the past are condemned to repeat it. [Santayana]
Ok. If I were Saint Thomas (or simply, F. Copleston) I would tell you that the only non-fictional object is God. And your abduction, in that case, would be a Martian abduction.
I reckon these to be the derivatives of the first principle, which in turn presupposes a third derivative: the goal. The goal in itself might be and optimally is a first principle to any branch of philosophy. In conclusion; the first principle of all philosophy is its common denominator. It can be anything, but it's common denominator is that it is its common denominator.
The higher our regard, the clearer our answers, all the while more difficult to ground in the denominator. To be that ground is God's purpose - the denominator of the denominator of the denominator. Although God is not the purpose, the purpose is reasonably confused as God. The philosophy goes above that, because the purpose is real. We have philosophy because it is real; in contrast to science which can only address that which is fleeting to some degree. This though is where science and philosophy meets. They have a common common denominator. Although philosophy can reach a little further. It touches religion where science can not.
Their common denominator is magic - my favourite philosophical topic. I believe it does better philosophically than religiously. I appreciate it from either direction though, but I don't talk about it religiously. Religion has unrefutable answers about it, but it is philosophy that ultimately makes it pristine. Either way - any first principle: common denominator.
Whats even worse is those who are ignorant of history altogether.The problem is that the greedy capitalists have developed an interest in philosophy in order to control the perception of the masses. This is the only way in which the few can control the many. Capitalism is only rational if idealism is false and materialism is true. But of course, idealism is true, and this, I think, is the reason for the widespread popularity and institutional acceptance of postmodernism, which is shoved down the throats of academics from power structures above them.
Capitalism, as the dominant economic system, is not responsible for all the problems that one has with one’s partner...
I'm saying that the problem lies in greed, not in capitalism, for greed is prior to capitalism in the sense that capitalism is an effect of greed and not the other way around. I have no partner, nor any problems with a partner. Not everything is reducible to sex.
The rest of your post makes me think that you maybe don't mean what this first part sounds like to me, but this first part sounds like something I would agree with. Those two "first principles" I gave derive immediately from the goal of philosophy:
Quoting The Codex Quaerentis: The Metaphilosophy of Analytic Pragmatism
Quoting The Codex Quaerentis: The Philosophy of Commensurablism
Saint Thomas would say that all human conduct is explained in terms of three capital sins: greed, lust, and anger. The police work alike. All crime is due to greed, lust or anger. In both cases, they restrict the human to the most negative in our species, don’t they?
Alright - let me clarify my sense of the goal. The goal across branches of philosophy runs perpendicular to its first principle. As the question is about the universal first principle, it cannot be the goal in itself. Thereby there are derivatives of the goal which in turn are what you described. Since it runs perpendicular to the goal, the universality of the first principle must therefore embrace the potentiality for the dimensionality of all those branches. That is what a principle to seek common ground first does.
Philosophy is about knowing of what we speak. Therefore the ground is the most important. Thus it must be the first principle to seek it.
Not every way of reasoning works this way, but to find those ways is what each individual goal is about. Philosophy itself is about understanding each individual goal. This is the philosophy of the goal.
The greatest challenge we face with regards to it is finding their place in agreement. Positivity is about embracing negativity. Only together in all right places can we move beyond and into where optimism might take us.
Quoting 180 Proof