An argument that an infinite past is impossible
An odd argument I came across recently:
1. if the universe was temporally infinite, then there would be no 1st moment
2. if there was no 1st moment, then there was no 2nd moment
3. if there was no 2nd moment, then there was no 3rd moment
4. ... and so on and so forth ...
5. ... then there would be no now
6. since now exists, we started out wrong, i.e. the universe is not temporally infinite
EDIT: Post 17 or thereabouts below has an extended rendition of the argument
1. if the universe was temporally infinite, then there would be no 1st moment
2. if there was no 1st moment, then there was no 2nd moment
3. if there was no 2nd moment, then there was no 3rd moment
4. ... and so on and so forth ...
5. ... then there would be no now
6. since now exists, we started out wrong, i.e. the universe is not temporally infinite
EDIT: Post 17 or thereabouts below has an extended rendition of the argument
Comments (64)
What's really wrong with it is two fold. First of all an infinite universe implies that everything that is possible is actual, even contradictory things. Like an alien that exists that has destroyed an infinite amount of the universe, but there still being an infinite amount left to destroy.
Secondly, it assumes a linearity of time rather than relativity. Without there being some context, some movement, change, space then it makes no sense to talk about time, and certainly not in a linear overarching progressive fashion such as that.
A more accurate conclusion (sequitur), 5,6, is that now does not have a specific (whole, positive) number.
And that would be the case if there were an infinite amount of prior moments.
You'll notice that items 1,2,3 refer to non-indexical moments (1st, 2nd, 3rd), whereas 5,6 is indexical (now).
This is masked a bit by item 4.
There are examples of indexical and non-indexical information being two classes of knowledge.
With an infinite past, the present, now, does not have any particular number, if you will.
Or, alternatively, any numbering is equally fine.
Item 5 a non sequitur.
Also, can it not be the case that all of time is already set out? It would go as follows:
1 -> 2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 1 -> ... -> infinite loops. Thus all moments of time are already set in stone, and we just keep looping, like a temporal mobius strip. There was no first cause, because the past, present, and future all exist simultaneously, independent of any sort of tense intra-worldly beings place on them, so there is no progress in the actual sense (only the phenomenal sense). So when we progress forward in time, we are actually just another wakened form of existing. The past self that thinks about the future five seconds ago still exists and is still thinking about the future. And the self existing right "now" will always be thinking of the past self. The feeling that we persist is wholly an illusion, then, but nevertheless an experience that will always be the case in this "moment", and all the other moments of experience. "You" are not "you" five seconds ago - they are separate things entirely, existing in a wholly different temporal (yet static) frame, in no way more or less existing than you are now.
Why a temporal mobius strip would be the way it is, I have no idea. It's just a funny idea I've been toying with.
You are right the argument would be suspect simply because it depends on a particular notion of time. And while modern science might not be able to offer a concrete "better model of time" right at the moment, it does have plenty of evidence to doubt the kind of simplicities the argument assumes.
Quoting darthbarracuda
But the problem here is that you have just destroyed causality, and causality is something we would expect to be able to extract from "a better model of time". Causality is what we observe in the world - it is why we believe it to be "time-like" - and so at the very least, an arrow of time ought to be the emergent feature of any good model of time.
That was the problem of Newtonian time, and the reason for recent thermal models. Newtonian time could not build in a direction. As a result you can get insane metaphysical notions like "the block universe", or "eternal recurrence".
Quoting jorndoe
A modern version of this argument is used to show the Big Bang could never have happened. If eternal Time exists (in big-T Newtonian dimensional fashion), then there would have had to have been an infinite amount of time elapsing before - suddenly, in a bright flash - our Universe got created. So therefore never enough time could pass to arrive at that point.
A better answer is that the Big Bang was the start of time, as well as space. So we can't think of the pre-Bang as a temporal dimension - except in some far simpler metaphysical sense yet to be articulated scientifically.
LOL, the theory of everything is coming and the world will never be the same again because mother nature's sense of humor is the only rival to her beauty. The problem is modern western science has focused on her beauty to the exclusion of humor which is why Max Planck begged his colleges to explain the joke.
I don't see how that solves anything with respect to the argument presented in the first post of this thread.
All one would have to do to counter that counter is to change "momemt" to "chunk":
1. if the universe was temporally infinite, then there would be no 1st chunk
2. if there was no 1st chunk, then there was no 2nd chunk,
etc.
So beauty = ideas with mathematical precision, and humour = measurement uncertainty? Where then is there a problem if science has mathematically precise models of measurement uncertainty?
Line 4 is note even a proposition, as it lacks a verb.
The only justification offered for line 5 is 'then'. Can I apply the same reasoning to the proposition 'You must give me all your money' by putting 'then' in front of it?
The most interesting one though, to me, is that proposition 1 is also insupportable, even though most people would usually accept it. If we map each instant in time to an ordinal that denotes how many years ago it was, we can hypothesise that the collection of all non-fractional instants in time might map to the set of all finite ordinals together with the first infinite ordinal ?. Then the instant of time that maps to ? can be thought of as the first instant of time, even though the past is infinite in this model.
The key point though, is that these days arguments of the impossibility of an infinite past are only made by people that do not understand mathematics well.
Next generation computers will spit out jokes routinely that go over everyone's heads and the US federal government has finally admitted they have classified a few jokes as "Vital to the National Defense." It requires mathematics that are four times as complex and Contextual philosophies such as the one I am writing. You could say the rise of civilization has so far depended upon digital approaches which are better for error correction and accuracy, but now we are beginning to master analog logic.
Right, again, it was just supposed to be a musing idea. In any case, though, the notion of causality has been attacked, many times. So this muse accordingly would destroy the illusory concepts of causality and persistence. Which does seem implausible, as our minds seem to pick up on these sorts of things.
These may vary a bit on the no-boundary hypotheses.
I was mostly interested in the logical argument here.
If someone shows that anything but a definite earliest time is impossible, well, then that's the most rational scientific pursuit, for example.
Personally, I think there are better arguments by intuitive appeal (I can post some if anyone's interested).
Seems to me the argument isn't sound.
Quoting andrewk
Yep, especially for logical arguments.
I apologize for any poor wording. :)
Let me try adding details, some of which go one way, others another:
1. if the universe was temporally infinite, then there was no 1st moment
2. if there was no 1st moment, but just some moment, then there was no 2nd moment
3. if there was no 2nd moment, but just some other moment, then there was no 3rd moment
4. ... and so on and so forth ...
5. if there was no 2nd last moment, then there would be no now
6. since now exists, we started out wrong, i.e. the universe is not temporally infinite
As before
References please....
That's a little hand-wavy. Where do we have evidence that on the whole causality fails the locality principle?
Yes, we definitely also have good evidence that "at the quantum scale" causality breaks down in a particular fashion. But we rely on causality being pretty conventional at an emergent classical scale.
So this is why we would want an emergent model now. It is not a reason to just throw away classicality. That still "works".
Time is continuous. To assume that there are moments in time is to contradict "time is continuous". Therefore either my assumption that time is continuous, or the posted argument's assumption that time consists of a succession of moments, is false. Or both are false, and time is neither.
If we argue from Big Bang models, i.e. extrapolate to a definite earliest time, then other infinites just show up instead, infinite density and temperature.
[quote=Foundations of Modern Cosmology by John F Hawley and Katherine A Holcomb]
Temperature may be a better label than time for the evolution of the universe
Perhaps time is the wrong marker.
Perhaps what we call time is merely a labeling convention, one that happens to correspond to something more fundamental.
The scale factor, which is related to the temperature of the universe, could be such a quantity.
In our standard solutions, the scale factor, and hence the temperature, is not a steady function of cosmic time.
Intervals marked by equal changes in the temperature will correspond to very different intervals of cosmic time.
In units of this temperature time, the elapsed interval, that is, the change in temperature, from recombination till the present is less than the elapsed change from the beginning to the end of the lepton epoch.
As an extreme example, if we push temperature time all the way to the big bang, the temperature goes to infinity when cosmic time goes to zero.
In temperature units, the big bang is in the infinite past!
In an open universe, the temperature drops to zero at infinite cosmic time, and temperature and cosmic time always travel in opposite directions.
In a closed universe, on the other hand, there is an infinite temperature time in the future, at some finite cosmic time.
A closed universe also has the property, not shared by the open or flat universe, of being finite in both cosmic time and in space.
In this case, the beginning and end of the universe are nothing special, just two events in the four-geometry.
Some cosmologists have argued for this picture on aesthetic grounds; but as we have seen, such a picture lacks observational support, and has no particular theoretical justification other than its pleasing symmetry.
If we are looking for clues to a physical basis for the flow of time, however, perhaps we are on the right track with temperature.
[/quote]
The no-boundary hypotheses do not have any of these, but are sometimes dismissed as counter-intuitive.
I certainly agree with a thermal approach to time. But other infinities don't show up at the beginning. Instead, all things have the same Planckian scale.
So even temperature or energy density is not infinite at the Planck scale. It has a size - at least when measured against an extrapolated version of a Newtonian system of clocks and rulers with scales that go "all the way up" to zero (just like Spinal Tap's amps!).
Maybe.
I don't think the argument intended zero-dimensional "moments", or a particular quantification, as such.
It was given to me in a much less formal format; it's also possible my rendition remains a bit hokey. :)
I'm not saying I agree with them. Causality isn't my best topic. But in any case, just because something works does not mean it actually is the case. A convenient explanation need not always be the correct explanation.
But also if you advance a positive doubt here, it needs to be constrained by what appear to be the facts, dontcha think?
You seem to be claiming that causality fails in some generic sense. I ask where are the facts that suggest that?
I am saying that what we experience is all we ever actually know, and that causality may or may not be needed in order to understand the world. I consider it to be likely that causality is indeed real (as is the outside world) but it's not straightforward either.
But the argument assumes a particular quantification, a first, second, third moment of time, etc.. Without this quantification of time, there is no argument.
A similar principle acts as the grounds for Aquinas' cosmological argument which speaks of quantifiable things, actual individual entities. If individual things are generated and corrupted in time, then we can assume that there must be a first thing, as per your argument posted. That forms the basic definition of finite existence, individual, bounded objects. So if there are such finite things in existence, there must be a first. The definition of "existing things" is such that they are finite, and this denies the possibility of infinite regress.
Now we proceed, if there is a first thing, then the potential for that thing must be prior to the thing itself, from inductive reasoning. So the cosmological argument insists that there must be something actual which is prior to all these individual things, in order to actualize this initial potential. The potential for the first thing could not actualize itself, so it is necessary to assume an actual cause, which is prior to all actual things.
It's not sound because if there is no beginning then it would be illogical to count moments. The only thing you could do is start with an arbitrary moment and count from that. There would still be moments.
They don't provide references for classified information, however, there are quite a few mathematicians using variations on the excluded middle and fuzzy logic whose work has been classified. Paradoxical logics that use different variations on the excluded middle. These are jokes along the lines of the poetry I write which contain fuzzy logic and can become so complex they go over almost anyone's head or just sound silly. Universities are now routinely having contests to write them. Among other things, their fuzzy logic provides a more efficient, compact, and precise approach for things like air rebreathers and missile guidance systems and it can be illegal to export such technology.
I would post more here, but they just keep erasing my poetry.
When in trouble, when in doubt, run in circles, scream and shout!
:D
Will Donna Summer (1977) do?
As sexy as Donna is, yin-yang dynamics demand a somewhat more cartoonish universe. Doctor Doolittle's push-me-pull-you and Tom and Jerry running in circles are popular examples. Its analog logic along the lines of Yogi Berra's "90% of this game is half mental." Stephen Wright and Yoda are also good examples as are the Three Stooges and Gonzo the Muppet. The sexual humor I won't cover here but, suffice it to say cockroach humor like Groucho Marx's, "One morning I shot an elephant in my pajamas. How he got into my pajamas I'll never know" is popular and often traditional in Asia. Primitive tribes can tell jokes that would make a porn star blush and run the other way.
But you can provide a reference to support your clam about this being a fact? This is something you know because it has been reported somewhere credible you can now point too?
No, the government and even large corporations like Google censor the internet to prevent any such information from becoming widely known. Its not in any of their interests to allow such information to become widely known with Google and IBM's specialties including artificial intelligence and their reliance upon the government for some of their funding and information. Go ahead, try to look up classified information and you'll be lucky if you get someone claiming UFOs are real or information declassified concerning the second world war. Military intelligence is an oxymoron and they'll keep things classified for fifty years if they even suspect it might be important.
So how did you yourself become acquainted with this fact that you cite so often in your posts?
Quoting wuliheron
You've written that the government has finally admitted this. You quote some actual words. So where and when did this happen? Tell us the story of how you come to know about this unusual fact.
Quoting apokrisis
I've actually conversed with one mathematician whose work was widely publicized as classified by the government. He was soliciting papers of any kind, even from a brain damaged mentally deranged hippie dippy like me, concerning paradoxical logic jokes incorporating a specific variation on the excluded middle and he also expressed a keen interest in Taoism which he had begun to study. Physicists are also familiar with the idea and in the last few decades academia as well as governments have shown intense sudden interest in both the Tao Te Ching and I-Ching.
A ten year cross disciplinary study of the I-Ching concluded it was word perfect for introspective purposes making it ideal for AI and theoretical physics research. One of the few things you can learn online about fuzzy logic is that it is of intense interest in both fields. My own expertise is a mastery of the Tao Te Ching and, theoretically, a complete word perfect set of 430 poems extrapolated from the text can describe both how to build an AI and construct a theory of everything. Thus far, to the best of my knowledge people have only managed to write perhaps 150 or so that are word perfect and complete, but that's because nobody has the philosophy worked out yet and they don't comprehend the logical or mathematical foundations.
Within twenty years computers should be capable of exposing the mathematical foundations and writing the complete set, but that's just all the more reason to keep most of the basic information classified for now. Among other things, the book I'm writing attempts to describe primitive tribal Pragmatic Taoism in a demonstrable, self-consistent, and nontrivial manner making it the first ever that meets modern academic standards as a formal philosophy. Its a multifractal or fractal within a fractal of a Fractal Dragon within a broader Mandelbrot pattern which is what the current theories in physics suggest is required and, hopefully, will produce a systems logic capable of describing anything. Sort of a top down approach to philosophy where first you assemble all of the pieces for any elegant and humble simplicity and allow them to express their own foundations.
I've spoken to the CEO of Google and experts from every field I've mentioned who all expressed interest in my work. Hell, even Ram Das expressed interest in my work. Google's entire website is designed to encourage people to write fuzzy logic poetry and there are other popular websites like it now appearing online with some designed specifically to encourage people to tell jokes.
:-| Wuli, I admit that this isn't my field, but this really sounds to me like the ramblings of a person with mental illness. The Tao Te Ching theoretically contains instructions on how to build an AI and construct a TOE? Whaaa...
Its mathematical poetry where every word can be treated as a variable with no intrinsic meaning or value. Its not like the authors knew what they were writing, but the mathematics are there just the same. Its a minimalistic expression of a Fractal Dragon equation that would require some 4,430 poems to express in excruciating detail but, thankfully, only 430 are required for a good representation that can be used to formulate a theory in eight dimensions and a singularity. Sort of a mathematical compromise for how to describe an infinite number of dimensions.
That it sounds like mad ramblings comes as no surprise. Taoism is like quantum mechanics in that the minute you think you understand it you are wrong.
Ok, this doesn't sound any more sensible to me (it doesn't help that you claim to have shopped this idea around to the CEO of Google...), but, as I said, I'm out of my element here. Could you provide some links/references to what you're talking about?
EDIT: I see above that you claim that this information has been censored. Oh, my...
I didn't shop the idea around, except for the mathematician whose work interested me, all the rest came looking for me the minute I let it be known I was writing a book on the subject. I've even had dozens of people online actively helping me research all the necessary metaphors for what I'm writing over a nine month period. Metaphors are not what most people think they are, but cutting edge Intuitionistic mathematics that the next computer revolution will leverage the same way the current one has calculus and Boolean logic.
You are welcome to look up AI research, fuzzy logic, Intuitionistic mathematics, metaphoric logic, etc. Its all analog logic which every popular computer and software today is moving towards adopting. IBM has been working on putting an AI in a coffee can sized device that draws about a 100 watts and has an intelligence somewhere between that of a cat and a human. You just can't do that with calculus and boolean logic, but require a much more analog approach. Ideally, something along the lines of the human brain which resembles a distributed gain amplifier incorporating Bayesian probabilities vanishing into indeterminacy. The NSA made it clear to the entire semiconducting industry they either move in this direction or peta scale computing will remain a fantasy. Efficiency is the new mantra or the parts get too hot when you just jamb them all together meaning intelligence is itself is a question of efficiency and creativity.
Right. I guess contemporary cosmology will have it that temporality is an aspect of the universe. So, where causation (among others) is temporal, causation is also an aspect of the universe.
Anyway, it seems to me the principle of sufficient reason is hiding somewhere. That is, if the universe has a definite age, then a sufficient reason is sought for this particular age. If the universe does not have a definite age, then it would have to be infinite or "edge-free".
I've come across a few logical/deductive arguments that the universe cannot be temporally infinite, and others that it must be. :) At closer inspection it seems none of them hold, though.
While other metaphysical debates feel closer to home, so to speak, philosophical cosmology is quite the opposite. I can see how the problem of universals, for example, would be close to home (we encounter similarity every moment of our lives), but what remains to be shown is that the causality that seems to be apparent on the billiards table is identical to that billions of years ago.
It doesn't matter if we're Humeans are Aristotelians or Kantians or whatever: all we have access to is the causality that is apparent right now. This is why the more comfortable debates, like the problem of universals, are perfectly acceptable, since we are talking about something that is immediately perceived. But the origins of the cosmos is not apparent, and this especially becomes problematic when we start to consider more anti-realist conceptions of reality, like transcendental idealism or its realist offshoot, speculative realism. Did everything that happened billions of years before consciousness emerged actually happen? This is what Meillassoux claims to be the correlationist dilemma, and also the correlationist's responsibility to tell the scientists that they are studying something that never actually happened.
And so philosophical cosmological debates become suspect because they tend to implement a metaphysical framework of the here-and-now for the then-and-there, when there doesn't seem to be any real justification for the claim that the metaphysical structure of the here-and-now has been and always will be the same. It may be the case that the metaphysical structure of reality evolves, and that is all we can know: that is evolves, and what was the case before is lost.
Instead of armchair theorizing, the only method capable of producing anything of substance in this debate would be actual, pure empirical observations.
1. I did a very brief study of the etymology of "infinity" and discovered the root word is "finis" which means end; unremarkably, "infinite" means endless. This, I reckon is crucial to solving the puzzle of whether the past is finite/infinite because, all said and done, we're looking for a beginning. Is it there? Is it not there? The catch is, our concept of infinity (endless) isn't designed for any consideration of beginningless.
2. On a timeline, with the arrow of time, if you're facing towards the future (normal), there's no problem with an infinite future but the moment you look behind you, you encounter the infinite past problem.
Imagine now that you're a time traveler to the past i.e. you're now facing in a direction opposite to the (normal) arrow of time, the world's past is your future and suddenly, an infinite past is not an issue because it's your future and the future is/can be infinite.
The nub of the issue is this: time elapsed can't be infinite or has to be finite but time yet to elapse can be infinite. Beginningless (not infinity) vs. Endless (infinity).
We need a brand new concept for beginninglessness.
Some Eastern thinkers suggest that time had no beginning, but I am not sure if that is possible logically. It seems like trying to draw a circle but without beginning it somewhere. The idea of eternal recurrence may have some bearing, but it still seems that there must be some kind of start. But, it could be that there is no end, but even this is hard to know with any certainty.
Begin-ninglessness isn't something that our current understanding of infinity (based on end-lessness) can handle/tackle. A begin-ning is baked into the idea of infinity as end-lessness.
An infinite universe does not have to contain everything. You can have an infinity of even numbers 2, 4, 6,... but that infinity does not contain any odd number.
Infinity is not endless counting 1, 2, 3,...
It is a set. The set of all numbers simultaneously in one set. Eternity is all time.
I think 5 is a non sequitur.
Let’s say we are trying to figure out if time A (the Big Bang, for example) was the first moment or not.
If the universe is temporally infinite towards the past, then time A could not be labeled as the first moment, but there would still be a time A. Likewise, the very next instant (time B) could not be labeled as the second moment, but there would still be a time B.
I think the argument should be rephrased, in order to avoid confusion, as follows:
1.If the universe was temporally infinite towards the past, then no moment of time could be labeled as the first moment of time.
2. If no moment of time could be labeled as the first one, then no moment of time could be labeled as the second one.
3. If no moment of time could be labeled as the second one, then no moment of time could be labeled as the third one.
4. ... and so on and so forth...
5. Therefore, the “now” can’t be labeled as the nth moment of time, no matter what you substitute for n.
Labels in a universe with an infinite past work the other way around: you can only label each moment as last (the “now”), second to last, etc, always in reference to the last moment rather than the first one, since by definition a universe with an infinite past has no first moment.
Or maybe I made a mistake somewhere.
There is no first motion in an eternal universe and so no second but every point in it is in bounded by eternity and the whole system is eternal
That clock ticking on the wall seems pretty real. And it had to start sometime. Time can last forever but it needs a start. Of course it can restart infinite times.
If you say so.
Are there two kinds of time maybe, one reversible and one irreversible? The irreversible exploding from the reversible?
"now" doesn't identify a moment relative to a temporal series. Indeed you do not need to know the timestamp of the current moment, to know that is now. This is to say that no counting from a "first moment" will ever reach a "now" even if the past temporal series was finite, unless one already knows what now is. On the other side one can count a series of temporal events starting from the moment identified as now. So the logic of "now" doesn't provide any evidence that the past/future temporal series are finite, on the contrary it admits that possibility (since one can count from now to the past or to the future indefinitely).