Existentialism is a Humanism: What does he mean by this?
True, many people do not appear especially anguished, but we maintain that they are merely hiding their anguish or trying not to face it. Certainly, many believe that their actions involve no one but themselves, and were we to ask them, “But what if everyone acted that way?” they would shrug their shoulders and reply, “But everyone does not act that way.”
I have absolutely no clue what Sartre means with the word “that” in the question. Does “this” mean the belief that their actions involve no one but themselves? So then it would be
“But what if everyone acted in a manner that their actions involved no one else except themselves?”
I really want to take the most out of this small transcript of his speech...
Comments (23)
You are absolutely right: and he proceeds to mention how a bad faith can be cause for such evasion. The thing is however, that I have no idea in what direction Sartre is going when he refutes their ideas.
Previous to the text I quoted (some background):
The way I understand anguish from this piece is the realization of will and being part of a bigger picture than they can think - being a "legislator" as in a part of the whole in the definition of mankind. Still I have yet to understand...
No one of your favorite philosophers is Heidegger! How did Heidegger go about the moral philosophy compared to Sartre's rip off of Kant?
So, how do "we" know that people are pretty much all anguished, even though they don't look like it? "Oh, you are happy? You must be in denial."
Maybe what Sartre has to say here is hogwash?
Another thing we learnt from what you said is that his actions were the result of his free will. You can curse Hitler, Sartre and the Devil, but whatever damage you think they have done is done. So far, even his own philosophy "justifies" what he did according to you. Please elaborate on how his philosophical ideas are bullshit! Not defending him but just want to get closer to Truth if there is such a thing :)
It is a claim that Sartre makes, along with other existentialists (explains the "we"), when speaking of anguish.
Quoting Bitter Crank
Surely not when he pushes this claim afterwards. See, anguish is not an emotion that you can plaster a specific face on. It is just a realization that one is free, and that we contribute to the definition of mankind. And to mention the guy above, Sartre was surely happy when he was getting it on ;) although still in anguish.
If you are interested in an antidote to Sartre's radical freedom, research Heidegger's concept of "thrownness".
Surely such things do limit one's ability to freely decide who they want to be.
And thanks for the info, I'll most likely read Heidegger after this transcript because I see the clear inspiration etc from him to Sartre.
Perhaps, but that does not mean that there are other ways of identifying when someone is in such a state. I have been victim of "anguish", and after a while, people start to see through the cracks of my shell. Such as acting different, being touchy, et cetera. So while it may not be a breeze, there definitely is a way to define anguish in other people.
"Act that way" --whatever way that Sartre finds dubious as a moral action, because of the categorical imperative. He's not specifying the action in question because he wants it to function as a variable where it can refer to any morally dubious action. He's pointing out that the "excuse" for the action in question is basically that the person can get away with whatever it is because not everyone acts that way.
I'm in a pit of confusion now; I read ahead without caring much of this argument, but now I present to you the current logic, speaking about abandonment I think... (I write this after P.S.)
I'm having an issue understanding this because I can deconstruct it in two ways:
1) Actions are not INFLUENCED by subjective forces like belief
or 2) Actions are not INFLUENCING other people; he promotes the entirety of mankind
Fine, I can continue still using both ideas...
So I attempt 1) with the logic being:
"If everyone is confronted by a moral question and actions are not INFLUENCED by subjective forces." Results in an answer created only by the free will.
This makes the most sense for if I attempt 2) then I will get the answer:
"If everyone is confronted by a moral question and actions are not INFLUENCING other people." then the answer will be quite odd... that being that the answer does not matter, since the action does affect another.
I conclude that "Actions are not INFLUENCED by subjective forces like belief" is what he was talking about when referring to the "many".
I'm not sure why you're thinking of influence rather than a having an impact on others.
I made this so complicated for myself for no reason if that is the case... I’m really stupid
Nah, just led off track it seems, by an assumption he was saying something profound.
No worries.