Are all definitions stipulative definitions?

Shawn December 17, 2018 at 20:56 3275 views 4 comments

Are all definitions stipulative definitions until people forget that they are?

Comments (4)

Deleted User December 17, 2018 at 22:51 #238330 0 likes

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Shawn December 17, 2018 at 23:24 #238333 0 likes

Reply to tim wood

Wikipedia provides the following:

Quoting Stipulative Definition, Wiki

A stipulative definition is a type of definition in which a new or currently-existing term is given a new specific meaning for the purposes of argument or discussion in a given context. When the term already exists, this definition may, but does not necessarily, contradict the dictionary (lexical) definition of the term. Because of this, a stipulative definition cannot be "correct" or "incorrect"; it can only differ from other definitions, but it can be useful for its intended purpose.

So, stipulative definitions are tantamount to subjective descriptions or theorizing of events? When does a stipulative definition become an ordinary definition then? Are you basically saying that the two are the same?

Deleted User December 18, 2018 at 03:22 #238373 0 likes

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Shawn December 18, 2018 at 18:33 #238523 0 likes

Quoting tim wood

Perhaps. When is a definition ever not stipulative.

I don't know. That seems to be my main question here.

Quoting tim wood

For TPF, I'd welcome a requirement that all the significant terms of an OP either have their definitions provided or stipulated. That alone would shut down a lot of so-called God posts and reduce other nonsense by about 78%.

Here's what I said a while ago. I still think it would be good to implement:

https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/4310/on-stipulative-definitions