Unfalsifiability, valuation and "warranting belief"
There's a claim I've come across numerous times, to the effect of "If P is unfalsifiable, then it cannot be known to be true or false".
There's been a few ways I've heard/seen it worded:
"If it is unfalsifiable, it cannot have evidential warrant for its belief",
"If it’s unfalsifiable, there’s no reason to believe it."
"Something that is unfalsifiable could be true, but there's no way for us to be able to conclusively determine that",
"If it’s unfalsifiable you don’t know if it is true or false."
Given that there isn't an obvious logical transformation between the antecedent and the consequent, these statements don't seem valid. Which rule is being applied to the first part of the statement, such that, it derives the second part?
Unfalsifiable doesn't mean unprovable, so it doesn't seem to be an unpacking of the concept, either.
I am guessing that the inference is that "if X unfalsifiable --> X can't be proven false"
"if X can't be proven false --> X can't be proven true"
But this is flawed because of tautology, which can be proven true and cannot be proven false.
Similarly, an impossibility can't be falsified, but we know its occurrence is a falsehood.
I've asked the people who have made these statements to explain why they're true but I don't get any satisfactory answers. Can someone explain why unfalsifiability is required for something to be true or knowable?
There's been a few ways I've heard/seen it worded:
"If it is unfalsifiable, it cannot have evidential warrant for its belief",
"If it’s unfalsifiable, there’s no reason to believe it."
"Something that is unfalsifiable could be true, but there's no way for us to be able to conclusively determine that",
"If it’s unfalsifiable you don’t know if it is true or false."
Given that there isn't an obvious logical transformation between the antecedent and the consequent, these statements don't seem valid. Which rule is being applied to the first part of the statement, such that, it derives the second part?
Unfalsifiable doesn't mean unprovable, so it doesn't seem to be an unpacking of the concept, either.
I am guessing that the inference is that "if X unfalsifiable --> X can't be proven false"
"if X can't be proven false --> X can't be proven true"
But this is flawed because of tautology, which can be proven true and cannot be proven false.
Similarly, an impossibility can't be falsified, but we know its occurrence is a falsehood.
I've asked the people who have made these statements to explain why they're true but I don't get any satisfactory answers. Can someone explain why unfalsifiability is required for something to be true or knowable?
Comments (29)
To be clear, falsifiable means, "I can imagine a situation in which something is false."
Let me give you an example.
John is a human. If John were a snail, he would not be a human.
Here is something unfalsifiable.
A unicorn is a magical creature that cannot be sensed in any way.
What state of reality could falsify the unicorn?
Is there a scenario we could imagine where the unicorn does not exist? "No, that's impossible because we can't sense it. We just know it exists." Or if the unicorn did not exist, there would be no state change elsewhere. There is no situation that is different in which the unicorn exists, and not.
Now more specific.
"The loch ness monster exists."
But no one has ever recorded it. "It doesn't matter, its very stealthy so that's why we haven't found it yet."
Is there any observation or research that we could do where we don't find the loch ness monster where we could claim it doesn't exist? "No". Thus the loch ness monster is not falsifiable. It is a belief system that asserts its truth as a matter of necessity, and no amount of evidence or thought could negate its assertion of existence.
You have to make it clear that the "situation" is empirical. Imagining that a contradiction appear in front of you doesn't work because a contradiction undermines the consistency we rely on for error-checking. Logical impossibility needs to remain intact for us to be able to decide whether something is being falsified or not.
Quoting Philosophim
True.
But there's statements that we know to be true without sensing something or recording something, so the inference doesn't appear to be valid.
I should probably say "Testable". That normally is empirical, but it there was a non-empirical way of testing something, its the testing that matters.
Quoting Hallucinogen
Knowing something is true doesn't mean its falsifiable. John is a human. We know this. Its true. But if he were a snail, he wouldn't be a human. Falsifiable does not mean, "It can be proven to be false", its that "There is a state of being which would negate the claim that "X is Y", and that can be as simple as "X cannot be Y if X is Z".
:up: I think Hallucinogen's dissatisfaction comes from wanting a definitive call on whether or not all statements have this available. They don't. But ones which are apt for it either have what you've described (i.e an counterfactual) or they don't.
That claim seems to be based on a misapplication of Popper's Principle (or rule of thumb) of Falsifiability*1. Karl Popper concluded that humans --- based on limited information, from a relative perspective --- can never know or prove Absolute Truth. Consequently, Scientific "facts" remain tentative & conjectural, but more-or-less useful & practical. And philosophical "truths" are posited, not proven. So they remain moot after all these years. Moreover, (Bayesian) degrees-of-belief are Probabilistic (statistical), not Absolute (incontrovertible).
The current issue of Philosophy Now magazine has a letter-to-the-editor, on the topic of "limits of knowledge". One writer said "originally, I thought everyone agreed that knowledge and truth were not relative, but absolute". And indeed, the ancient Greek philosophers aspired to Ideal truths*2. But in retrospect, their universal principles were inferred generalities, not specific observed facts. So, the writer noted that "absolute truth is much like infinity : mathematicians and particle physicists love the concept, yet no one can touch it. . . . . But just because you can't find it, does not make it false. Popper be damned : keep looking."
Therefore, when someone claims to possess slam-dunk, mic-drop Truth, it's usually based on some personally accepted authority, like the Bible. So, you'd do better to falsify (critical analysis) the authoritative Source, than to analyze the specific Truth (dogma). :smile:
*1. Karl Popper's concept of falsifiability is a principle in the philosophy of science that defines a theory as genuinely scientific only if it can be proven false (falsified) through observation or experiment, distinguishing science from pseudoscience like astrology or psychoanalysis. Instead of trying to verify theories (which is difficult), scientists should actively try to disprove them; a theory gains strength by resisting falsification, not by being confirmed. This critical approach, known as falsificationism, posits that science progresses by eliminating erroneous theories, not by proving them absolutely true, using logical deduction to reject hypotheses that contradict predictions.
https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-1-d&q=karl+popper+falsifiable
*2. Greek philosophy holds that absolute truth is an unchanging, objective, and universal reality existing independent of human opinion, often discoverable through reason, logic, and contemplation. Key proponents like Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle argued against relativism, focusing on absolute moral truths, the Theory of Forms, and objective, eternal knowledge
https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-1-d&q=greek+philosophy+absolute+truth
Note --- Plato abhorred the pragmatic truths of practical Sophistry, in favor of Logical & Ideal Truths. So, he would be appalled at Einstein's Theory of Relativity (frames of reference).
Isn't tautology always true in logic? Tautology is not flawed.
But how do you know if it is unfalsifiable first place?
A theory's interpretation is unfalsifiable if the interpretation does not imply a means for potentially refuting the theory under that intepretation.
For example, we can probably all agree that "All Swans are White" is a falsifiable proposition; I say "probably" because I am assuming we can all agree that a "swan" isn't white de dicto but de re, and that we can all agree that whiteness is a publicly observable and testable empirical category.
On the other hand, if either of those two assumptions fail, such that the theory is no longer interpreted as implying a means of potential refutation, then the interpretation of that theory is unfalsifiable.
Quoting Corvus
I didn't say tautology is flawed.
Quoting Corvus
A statement is falsifiable if we can specify a condition under which empirical observation can contradict it.
Could you give some example cases? Because it seems depends on what the statements were.
Just means that all swans seen up to now are white. If you spotted a black swan tomorrow, that doesn't negate the statement all swans are white. The black swan should be treated as a rare case, which needs further investigation on its nature.
What do you think I was trying to say?
Quoting Corvus
I'm starting to get the impression that you're joking.
No joking. Common sense.
No, because including tests that have to violate logic to return a false answer simply gets rid of all meaningful-but-unfalsifiable statements. All you're left with is paradoxes and unintelligible statements. Unfalsifiably true statements like tautologies are an important category.
Don't forget the statement was made based on the past event, not now or future.
This is what you said, look.
Quoting Corvus
The "up to now" is in contrast with the statement you're making. So it doesn't save it from being logically fallacious.
The statement All swans are white is based on the past observations, hence it doesn't say anything about now or future observations. If it does, then it would have been a prediction, not a scientific statement.
These are not all equivalent. The statement that I bolded above is correct: "If it is unfalsifiable, it cannot have evidential warrant for its belief." The operative words here are evidential warrant. Here are some examples of beliefs that do not derive their warrant from evidential support, but may still be truth-apt (there is controversy about the last one):
Now, what about falsifiability and evidential warrant? This is a narrower question about whether there can be a proposition that can be confirmed by evidence but not disproved by it. The general agreement, expressed by the statement cited above, is that that should not be possible. If evidence cannot move your belief in one direction, it should not be able to move it in the opposite direction either. Contrary cases are indicative of confirmation bias.
Quoting Banno
Summary: falsification applies to universal sentences, such as ?(x)(fx?gx). For an open domain, no amount for evidence can show that everything that is f is also g. But a single example of an f that is not g can serve to falsify it. Hence, falsificaton serves to show which universals are false, but not which are true.
Universal sentences cannot be shown to be true in an open domain. If the universal sentence is also for some reason unfalsifiable then it cannot be shown to be either true or false.
Caveats:
This is basic, naive fallibilism at it's core. All sorts of complications and complexities follow. But understanding the logic of falsification is central to following argument concerning scientific method.
Evidence just means "reasons to believe a proposition is true". Presumably, statements like 2+2=4 are based on reasons. If you're expanding the scope of evidence to include tautologies or logical statements that are true in virtue of tautologies, then this changes the definition of unfalsifiable. The definition of unfalsifiable contains the criteria that empirical observation can contradict the statement. Changing the definition is the only way that any of these statements about unfalsifiability can work.
Evidence in this context is not just any reasons. 2+2=4 is true within its "language game," and no evidence can change that - only changing the rules of the game can. That doesn't make 2+2=4 unfalsifiable - falsification is simply inapplicable to such statements, because evidence is not an appropriate test of their truth or falsity. But where the test is appropriate, it must be able to rule both ways. This is what this statement says: "If it is unfalsifiable, it cannot have evidential warrant for its belief."
(The term "falsifiability" is often associated with Popper, as pointed out, but I was using it in a looser sense of being vulnerable to contrary evidence. Popper has a mixed legacy. His logical analysis of evidence and the scientific process was largely unsuccessful. He is better remembered for his looser prescriptive principles.)
But that's not empirical observation, which is what my point is. Falsifiability requires empirical observaiton by definition.
Quoting SophistiCat
This doesn't make sense. If falsification doesn't apply, then the term to describe it is "unfalsifiable".
2+2=4 is unfalsifiable and true, this refutes the statement "If it is unfalsifiable, it cannot have evidential warrant for its belief."
Quoting Hallucinogen
Come on, Hallucinogen, pay attention. 2+2=4 does not have evidential warrant for belief. Read every word in the preceding sentence before responding.
All of these are falsifiable.
If bachelors were married.
If 2+2-5
The bishop does not move along diagonals.
You are hot
Stealing is right.
Falsifiable is not, "I proved this to be false." Its, "There is a real circumstance in which we could test which if true, would prove the statement false."
Big foot is a great example of something not falsifiable by believers. As a believer, "What situation, if it existed, would prove Bigfoot false?" They won't give you one. "We scoured the entire forest with heat detecting drones and didn't find big foot." Answer: "He's crafty and is obviously hiding."
Quoting Philosophim
???