The Mind-Created World
The aim of this essay is to make the case for a type of philosophical idealism, which posits mind as foundational to the nature of existence. Idealism is usually distinguished from physicalism — the view that the physical is fundamental — and the related philosophical naturalism, the view that only natural laws and forces, as depicted in the natural sciences, account for the universe. Physicalism and naturalism are the assumed consensus of modern culture, very much the product of the European Enlightenment with its emphasis on pragmatic science and instrumental reason. Accordingly this essay will go against the grain of the mainstream consensus and even against what many will presume to be common sense. However I hope to present an argument that shows that common sense and this formulation of philosophical idealism are not necessarily in conflict.
Adopting a predominantly perspectival approach, I will concentrate less on arguments about the nature of the constituents of objective reality, and focus instead on understanding the mental processes that shape our judgment of what they comprise. In so doing I will draw on phenomenology as well as perspectives from non-dualist philosophy — an approach that will hopefully be become clear in the subsequent sections.
All in the Mind?
In philosophy it is customary to address objections after making your case, but I will mention two of the most frequent objections to idealism at the outset. First is the criticism that ‘idealism says that the world is all in the mind’ — the implication being that, were there no mind to be aware of an object, then it would cease to exist. Even very eminent philosophers have (mis)understood idealism in this way: that things pass into and and out of existence depending on whether they’re being perceived or not. G.E. Moore, for example, once said that idealism must entail that, when the passengers are all seated on the train, the wheels would go out of existence for their not being perceived.
The second objection is against the notion that the mind, or ‘mind-stuff’, is literally a type of constituent out of which things are made, in the same way that statues are constituted by marble, or yachts of wood. The form of idealism I am advocating doesn’t posit that there is any ‘mind-stuff’ existing as a constituent in that sense. The constitution of material objects is a matter for scientific disciplines (although I’m well aware that the ultimate nature of these constituents remains an open question in theoretical physics).
At this stage I will only note these objections, as to counter them now would be premature, but I hope it will become clear in what follows that these objections are misplaced.
A Thought Experiment
Let’s start with a simple thought-experiment, to help bring the issues into focus.
[i]Picture a tranquil mountain meadow. Butterflies flit back and forth amongst the buttercups and daisies, and off in the distance, a snow-capped mountain peak provides a picturesque backdrop. The melodious clunk of the cow-bells, the chirping of crickets, and the calling of birds provide the soundtrack to the vista, with not a human to be seen.
Now picture the same scene — but from no point of view. Imagine that you are perceiving such a scence from every possible point within it, and also around it. Then also subtract from all these perspectives, any sense of temporal continuity — any sense of memory of the moment just past, and expectation of the one about to come. Having done that, describe the same scene.
“Impossible!” you object. “How can I imagine any such thing?! It is really nothing at all, it is an impossibility, a jumble of stimuli, if anything — this is what you are asking me to imagine! It is completely unintelligible.”[/i]
But that is my point. By this means I am making clear the sense in which perspective is essential for any judgement about what exists — even if what we’re discussing is understood to exist in the absence of an observer, be that an alpine meadow, or the Universe prior to the evolution of h. sapiens. The mind brings an order to any such imaginary scene, even while you attempt to describe it or picture it as it appears to exist independently of the observer.
These are the grounds on which I am appealing to the insights of philosophical idealism. But I am not arguing that it means that ‘the world is all in the mind’. It’s rather that, whatever judgements are made about the world, the mind provides the framework within which such judgements are meaningful. So though we know that prior to the evolution of life there must have been a Universe with no intelligent beings in it, or that there are empty rooms with no inhabitants, or objects unseen by any eye — the existence of all such supposedly unseen realities still relies on an implicit perspective. What their existence might be outside of any perspective is meaningless and unintelligible, as a matter of both fact and principle.
Hence there is no need for me to deny that the Universe is real independently of your mind or mine, or of any specific, individual mind. Put another way, it is empirically true that the Universe exists independently of any particular mind. But what we know of its existence is inextricably bound by and to the mind we have, and so, in that sense, reality is not straightforwardly objective. It is not solely constituted by objects and their relations. Reality has an inextricably mental aspect, which itself is never revealed in empirical analysis. Whatever experience we have or knowledge we possess, it always occurs to a subject — a subject which only ever appears as us, as subject, not to us, as object.
A corollary of this is that ‘existence’ is a compound or complex idea. To think about the existence of a particular thing in polar terms — that it either exists or does not exist — is a simplistic view of what existence entails. This is why the criticism of idealism that ‘particular things must go in and out of existence depending on whether they’re perceived’ is mistaken. It is based on a fallacious idea of what it means for something to exist. The idea that things ‘go out of existence’ when not perceived, is simply their ‘imagined non-existence’. In reality, the supposed ‘unperceived object’ neither exists nor does not exist. Nothing whatever can be said about it.
So How Does Mind ‘Create Reality’?
So this is the sense that I’m arguing for the fundamental role that the mind plays in creating reality.
Let me address an obvious objection. ‘Surely “the world” is what is there all along, what is there anyway, regardless of whether you perceive it or not! Science has shown that h. sapiens only evolved in the last hundred thousand years or so, and we know Planet Earth is billions of years older than that! So how can you say that the mind ‘‘creates the world”’?
As already stated, I am not disputing the scientific account, but attempting to reveal an underlying assumption that gives rise to a distorted view of what this means. What I’m calling attention to is the tendency to take for granted the reality of the world as it appears to us, without taking into account the role the mind plays in its constitution. This oversight imbues the phenomenal world — the world as it appears to us — with a kind of inherent reality that it doesn’t possess. This in turn leads to the over-valuation of objectivity as the sole criterion for truth.
By ‘creating reality’, I’m referring to the way the brain receives, organises and integrates cognitive data, along with memory and expectation, so as to generate the unified world–picture within which we situate and orient ourselves. And although the unified nature of our experience of this ‘world-picture’ seems simple and even self-evident, neuroscience has yet to understand or explain how the disparate elements of experience , memory, expectation and judgement, all come together to form a unified whole — even though this is plainly what we experience.
By investing the objective domain with a mind-independent status, as if it exists independently of any mind, we absolutize it. We designate it as truly existent, irrespective of and outside any knowledge of it. This gives rise to a kind of cognitive disorientation which underlies many current philosophical conundrums. And that is the subject of the remainder of this essay.
Adopting a predominantly perspectival approach, I will concentrate less on arguments about the nature of the constituents of objective reality, and focus instead on understanding the mental processes that shape our judgment of what they comprise. In so doing I will draw on phenomenology as well as perspectives from non-dualist philosophy — an approach that will hopefully be become clear in the subsequent sections.
All in the Mind?
In philosophy it is customary to address objections after making your case, but I will mention two of the most frequent objections to idealism at the outset. First is the criticism that ‘idealism says that the world is all in the mind’ — the implication being that, were there no mind to be aware of an object, then it would cease to exist. Even very eminent philosophers have (mis)understood idealism in this way: that things pass into and and out of existence depending on whether they’re being perceived or not. G.E. Moore, for example, once said that idealism must entail that, when the passengers are all seated on the train, the wheels would go out of existence for their not being perceived.
The second objection is against the notion that the mind, or ‘mind-stuff’, is literally a type of constituent out of which things are made, in the same way that statues are constituted by marble, or yachts of wood. The form of idealism I am advocating doesn’t posit that there is any ‘mind-stuff’ existing as a constituent in that sense. The constitution of material objects is a matter for scientific disciplines (although I’m well aware that the ultimate nature of these constituents remains an open question in theoretical physics).
At this stage I will only note these objections, as to counter them now would be premature, but I hope it will become clear in what follows that these objections are misplaced.
A Thought Experiment
Let’s start with a simple thought-experiment, to help bring the issues into focus.
[i]Picture a tranquil mountain meadow. Butterflies flit back and forth amongst the buttercups and daisies, and off in the distance, a snow-capped mountain peak provides a picturesque backdrop. The melodious clunk of the cow-bells, the chirping of crickets, and the calling of birds provide the soundtrack to the vista, with not a human to be seen.
Now picture the same scene — but from no point of view. Imagine that you are perceiving such a scence from every possible point within it, and also around it. Then also subtract from all these perspectives, any sense of temporal continuity — any sense of memory of the moment just past, and expectation of the one about to come. Having done that, describe the same scene.
“Impossible!” you object. “How can I imagine any such thing?! It is really nothing at all, it is an impossibility, a jumble of stimuli, if anything — this is what you are asking me to imagine! It is completely unintelligible.”[/i]
But that is my point. By this means I am making clear the sense in which perspective is essential for any judgement about what exists — even if what we’re discussing is understood to exist in the absence of an observer, be that an alpine meadow, or the Universe prior to the evolution of h. sapiens. The mind brings an order to any such imaginary scene, even while you attempt to describe it or picture it as it appears to exist independently of the observer.
These are the grounds on which I am appealing to the insights of philosophical idealism. But I am not arguing that it means that ‘the world is all in the mind’. It’s rather that, whatever judgements are made about the world, the mind provides the framework within which such judgements are meaningful. So though we know that prior to the evolution of life there must have been a Universe with no intelligent beings in it, or that there are empty rooms with no inhabitants, or objects unseen by any eye — the existence of all such supposedly unseen realities still relies on an implicit perspective. What their existence might be outside of any perspective is meaningless and unintelligible, as a matter of both fact and principle.
Hence there is no need for me to deny that the Universe is real independently of your mind or mine, or of any specific, individual mind. Put another way, it is empirically true that the Universe exists independently of any particular mind. But what we know of its existence is inextricably bound by and to the mind we have, and so, in that sense, reality is not straightforwardly objective. It is not solely constituted by objects and their relations. Reality has an inextricably mental aspect, which itself is never revealed in empirical analysis. Whatever experience we have or knowledge we possess, it always occurs to a subject — a subject which only ever appears as us, as subject, not to us, as object.
A corollary of this is that ‘existence’ is a compound or complex idea. To think about the existence of a particular thing in polar terms — that it either exists or does not exist — is a simplistic view of what existence entails. This is why the criticism of idealism that ‘particular things must go in and out of existence depending on whether they’re perceived’ is mistaken. It is based on a fallacious idea of what it means for something to exist. The idea that things ‘go out of existence’ when not perceived, is simply their ‘imagined non-existence’. In reality, the supposed ‘unperceived object’ neither exists nor does not exist. Nothing whatever can be said about it.
So How Does Mind ‘Create Reality’?
So this is the sense that I’m arguing for the fundamental role that the mind plays in creating reality.
Let me address an obvious objection. ‘Surely “the world” is what is there all along, what is there anyway, regardless of whether you perceive it or not! Science has shown that h. sapiens only evolved in the last hundred thousand years or so, and we know Planet Earth is billions of years older than that! So how can you say that the mind ‘‘creates the world”’?
As already stated, I am not disputing the scientific account, but attempting to reveal an underlying assumption that gives rise to a distorted view of what this means. What I’m calling attention to is the tendency to take for granted the reality of the world as it appears to us, without taking into account the role the mind plays in its constitution. This oversight imbues the phenomenal world — the world as it appears to us — with a kind of inherent reality that it doesn’t possess. This in turn leads to the over-valuation of objectivity as the sole criterion for truth.
By ‘creating reality’, I’m referring to the way the brain receives, organises and integrates cognitive data, along with memory and expectation, so as to generate the unified world–picture within which we situate and orient ourselves. And although the unified nature of our experience of this ‘world-picture’ seems simple and even self-evident, neuroscience has yet to understand or explain how the disparate elements of experience , memory, expectation and judgement, all come together to form a unified whole — even though this is plainly what we experience.
By investing the objective domain with a mind-independent status, as if it exists independently of any mind, we absolutize it. We designate it as truly existent, irrespective of and outside any knowledge of it. This gives rise to a kind of cognitive disorientation which underlies many current philosophical conundrums. And that is the subject of the remainder of this essay.
Comments (2441)
Yeah, my fault, being facetious. I’m just having trouble understanding how anyone could feel physical pain from a “faulty idea”. You said objects were, or might be, just faulty ideas, a hammer, being an object represented by that conception, would fit the bill.
I started out by saying, you hit my thumb with a faulty idea and I’ll hit yours with a hammer, but it got lost in the shuffle somehow.
Anyway….
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
In the search for accurate representation, if not for the LNC, what other way is there to judge the relation between the object we perceive and the object we think? If logic doesn’t end the search, insofar as all relations are determinable by it, it stands to reason the search for a relation wouldn’t end. But it always does, either in the affirmation or negation thereof, so the logic would seem to be both necessary and sufficient.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Doesn’t everyone with even an inkling of philosophical inclination? A thing is always an object but an object is not always a thing.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
There’s that faulty idea thing again. Ya know, right, the senses don’t describe? The only “nature” attributable to the senses would be to inform of a real presence, nothing more or less.
Furthermore, empirical knowledge is not of a physical object, but the representation of it, and the senses have nothing to do with representations, being merely the occasion for the possibility of them.
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Yes. The good isn’t something to know; it is something to feel. That by which one feels anything is reducible to an aesthetic judgement, that by which he knows something is reducible to a discursive judgement. The formal ground of the one is pure practical reason, of the other is pure theoretical reason.
Last but not least, that by which one merely comprehends the possibility of knowledge, is pure speculative reason, upon which is constructed the transcendental philosophy of German Enlightenment idealism.
I believe it is important to the topic of this thread, to understand how intention guides attention, and knowledge is dependent on attention. So 'the created world' is a product of 'what we pay attention to', and 'what we pay attention to' is guided by our intention.
Quoting Punshhh
I find it very interesting how different people will remember the very same event in completely different ways. So you might say, something incredulous happened, but someone else in the same area might just notice a mundane occurrence.
Quoting Punshhh
In Plato's Theatetus, and Meno, Socrates said that curiosity, or wonder, is the source of philosophy. Being amazed is what inspires inquiry. Those who simply take things for granted do not notice all the potential sources of amazement, and do not aspire to philosophy.
Quoting Mww
OK, I see what you are saying, and it exposes a misunderstanding of what I said, which I didn't notice before. Let me try again.
The idea of "objects" is a faulty idea. That you pick up a thing called a hammer, and start banging at things called nails, is a misconception, a faulty representation of the reality of the situation. It is just conception and perception which is supported facility and efficiency. It is very easy to understand reality in this way. To have objects which we name and talk about facilitates communication, and easy knowledge. However, sciences like chemistry and physics, prove to us that reality is actually completely different from this conception/perception representation. Activity is not at all as we represent it, as picking up objects called a hammer and nails, and hitting one object with another. That's a vastly oversimplified representation of what is actually going on, and really a faulty representation.
Why your pain reference is irrelevant, is that a person will feel pain after making the mistake which you describe as hitting one's thumb with a hammer, regardless of whether this description, "hitting one's thumb with a hammer", is an accurate description of what really happens, or not.
Quoting Mww
The LNC does not apply to the good of intention. This is why goods are often said to be subjective, different people can have contradicting goals, or goods. Even the same person will sometimes have conflicting goals. That is what makes deliberation necessary.
The "object we think" is created through the guidance of intention. As explained above, intention guides attention, which induces observation. The "object we perceive" as the result of observation, is therefore a product of intention. Since intention is the guiding factor, in the relation between the object we think and the object we perceive, and the LNC does not apply to intention, then LNC based logic is not what is required to end the search for understanding this relation. We must consider the type of logic by which we deliberate, and judge goods. This is a logic of priority and hierarchy, where things exist in a relation of order, rather than a logic of this or that.
Quoting Mww
Science demonstrates very clearly, that the conceptual structure based in objects of substance, physical objects, moving and interacting in space, is insufficient, and cannot adequately represent the reality of activity. This implies that it is a faulty idea. Please accept this as reality, instead of referring to mundane experiences in an attempt to make fun of the reality of the situation.
Quoting Mww
Right, with this understanding you ought to be in a very good position to be capable of simply rejecting this representation, that of "empirical knowledge". This representation has demonstrated to us that it has reached its limits of efficacy, and at that point it has shown itself, proved to us, that it itself, is based in faulty ideas. Therefore we need to start all over, from the bottom up, with something more reasonable as the foundation.
Quoting Mww
OK, now since the two, practical reason and theoretical reason, may contradict, and this will inevitably call into question the applicability of the LNC, we need to be able to hand priority to one or the other. Would you not agree, that "that by which one feels anything" is necessarily prior to 'that by which he knows something"? This puts practical reason as the higher, more conclusive form of judgement.
Kant supports this as well. The a priori intuitions of space and time, as the conditions of sensibility, are "that by which one feels something". Since these intuitions form the basis for theoretical reason, we must conclude that this type of judgement, practical reason, is a higher form of judgement.
Quoting Mww
The category of "speculative reason" is completely unnecessary, created and referred to, as a distraction. Rather than accepting the reality that practical reason is higher than theoretical reason, and that theoretical reason is subordinate to it, another category, speculative reason, is proposed as higher than the two. However, when we recognize the reality that practical reason is actually higher than theoretical reason, and that practical reason is by its very nature speculative, then there is no need for that further category.
Let me describe the event (that happened 30yrs ago), because there we two people who experienced it and it involved an exchange of glances between another person and myself and in some ways the setting was not the main event. It was the meeting of minds.
I was at the New Years Eve rave at Anjuna beach, Goa in 1995/6. There was a dense throng of dancers in a dense area about the size of a tennis court. I had been observing the dancing, the music and how it affected the people and how the crowd would become one. There was a kind of churning of energy following the music, the people would move with the churning as a flock of birds, or shoal of fishes. With the highlight being when someone would blow a whistle. Needless to say, I found this fascinating and was contemplating the spiritual dimension. When all of a sudden the throng parted by chance, a wall of about twenty, or more deep of dancers simultaneously all moved in such a way that a clear passage opened up in the throng. I saw at the other end of this passage, a small chap who was all grey, drained and exhausted, he looked as though he was struggling to stay on his feet and wanted out. I just looked on astonished, like a rabbit caught in headlights. He suddenly noticed me and our gaze met. I could see his desperation and his heartfelt plea for me to release him. He reached out his hand and I failed to respond. Although there was nothing I could do. The wall of people closed in on him again in an instant and I realised there would be no way I would be able to go in there and pull him out. I just carried on my way, contemplating what had just happened.
There was a visceral exchange between us, an acknowledgment and an understanding, the whole thing lasted for about a second, although it felt more like about ten seconds. I often wonder just what happened there in that moment. Although it wasn’t an isolated incident, lots of other interesting things happened around that time.
But going back to my point about being a witness, I am sure that for the other person along with myself, the encounter was burned into our minds and I know I certainly had a profound sense of every detail of it. There was knowledge given to me absent a thinking mind, instantaneous and unforgettable.
Except that the reality demonstrated by the sciences is only demonstrable from the very same system of conception/perception representation, as the common Everydayman reality not the least concerned with the scientific version at all. When was the last time you approached the SOL…..etc, etc.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Activity is exactly as we represent it to ourselves, give appearances in compliance with our particular physiology alone. The fact it is a vastly oversimplified representation doesn’t make it false; it merely makes it incomplete, and that merely from perspective, iff given by a deeper scale of investigation. The point being, the completion of the representation, determined from such deeper scale, wouldn’t be a necessary addendum to our experience, insofar as knowing e.g., the distinct molecular composition of different kinds of forks, does nothing whatsoever for disturbing the already established activity of getting food to the mouth using one. Contingent with respect to future experience, certainly, for deeper-scale investigations make things like penicillin possible. Such is science, not as opposed but in juxtaposition, to metaphysics.
How is all that not exactly congruent to the fact SR/GR doesn’t falsify Newtonian physics, but supplements it, given a different scale of representation?
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
No, it doesn’t; it applies to the understanding of whether or not the good is judged to be satisfied by the intention.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
(I hesitate with the term “goods”, but continue with the subjective)
Of course. On the one hand, good things for me are not necessarily good things for you, hence each good of a thing is a subjective judgement. On the other hand, any of my judgements regarding what is good, insofar as they all arise in me alone, can hardly be termed subjective, in that there is nothing to which they relate except my own determinability. The good in such case, reverts to relative degrees of a necessarily presupposed good, rather than different forms of good itself. Such condition is the same for both of us, granting the commonality of our respective human inclinations and intellectual attitudes.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
True enough for Everydayman, but the well-practiced philosopher is the more likely to not.
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Insufficient….for what? It is quite sufficient for us. We’ve conceived space and time, applied them quite adequately to the activity of objects. Is there more? Sure, could be, seems science has said so. Doesn’t make what we’ve already done with our conceptual structure any less adequate.
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Fine. You’ve suggested dumping what we have, but haven’t suggested what to replace it with. You are in no position to prove the system we speculate as adequate for us, has a substitute that is better for us, which is really nothing but a greater degree of adequate.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Oh, I have no problem with accepting the science. As a matter of fact, because science is the best indicator of the LNC available to us, wouldn’t it be great to subject the speculative methodologies by which our mundane experiences manifest in us to the same criteria, in order to discover whether or not we can get something beneficial out of them?
Ever noticed that no science is ever done that wasn’t first thought? Ever heard of a scientist that wasn’t human? You favor the scientific so far beyond the necessary ground for its very possibility, making fun is what one does rather than to disrespectfully scoff outright at the absurdity of the favoritism. Or, fanaticism, perhaps. At any rate, the objects of science proper are irrelevant with respect to how science is done.
That being said, I shall immediately rescind my objections, upon being presented with that rational system which is better than, over that system which is merely not good enough.
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Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
This, and all that pursuant to your practical reason and theoretical reason may contradict, I leave for future debate, for the subtleties therein are even more obscure than those at present.
Again, I don't think you've misinterpreted anything. I was just pointing out what I think is the more comprehensive account of Kant's epistemology.
It's a suggestion, nothing more.
Thank you for the clarification.
I will take a look at Manifest Reality and see if it pulls me in. I am stingy with my time upon secondary texts and like to keep work on them in balance with engagement with primary texts, even when the secondary ones are very helpful.
My recent interest in Kant comes from realizing that so many philosophers after him have become 'secondary sources' in their own right in regard to him. I am trying to make a separate space from all that to investigate what is said.
She was a student of Galen Strawson and he recommended her book, fyi.
Hi,
The difference I explain between present, past and future is a difference in their constitutive roles. If the past and future are constituents of the present, then the present is not something pure, but something that does not participate in ousia or substance. There would be no need to make the present something totally different from the past and future, since all three do not participate in ousia. The difference between these three must be thought of differently from how we normally think of three different things, since they are not so different and their difference is erased at every moment.
Your position fails, i think, when it demands precision, since you are seeking to differentiate between past, present and future by treating them as substances. In other words, for me there is a complicity between the demand for precision and the idea of a classical difference between three substances. For me, it is necessary that the difference between past, present and future be unclear and constantly erased in order to show that consciousness is more than the present: it is being erased in a difference distinct from presence and ousia. For me, it is necessary that the difference between past, present and future is not clear and is constantly blurred in order to show that consciousness is more than just the present: it is being blurred in a difference distinct from presence and ousia. This implies introducing non-being as part of its essence. This implies that the world is not distinct from consciousness insofar as the world has been classically conceived as the non-being of consciousness. In this sense, the world is something different from consciousness, but it is also something equal to consciousness.
In other words, the conclusion I would reach according to my position is that the world and consciousness differ, but not according to a classical difference as we understand it according to the logic of identity. The difference shows us that there is something of the world in consciousness and there is something of consciousness in the world.
Quoting Mww
The point though, is that what is demonstrated is its own faultiness. You know, when a method fails in its capacity to reach the desired end, it demonstrates its own faultiness.
Quoting Mww
I completely disagree with all this. Perhaps, by the principle of relativity, activity is exactly as we represent it to ourselves, but I thing relativity is a means of avoiding truth. In general, oversimplification is falsity.
Quoting Mww
We seem to be losing any common ground for discussion.
Quoting Mww
Insufficient for truth. That is what I was talking about.
Quoting JuanZu
The point though, is that "substance", just like "the present" may itself be an illusion. So the issue is not whether the present is something pure, but whether the present has any kind of reality at all. And if it is real why would we think that it partakes of substance?
Quoting JuanZu
I treat past and future as substance, but I see no reason to assume any substantial existence of the present. The present is purely active, without substance. I disliked your proposal because it required three substances, instead of my two. by making the present something distinct from the past and future.
A tree produces a seed in order to produce another tree. If you just look at the seed and say "oh that's not a tree, obviously it failed let's destroy this tree" one quickly notices an error in judgement. Belief systems call this arrogance or pride. Society calls this impatience and imprudence. Science calls this just being wrong. Remember that.
I don't see the relevance. If the seed fails in producing a tree it demonstrates its own faultiness.
Of course. But my point is sometimes we jump the gun, per se. Some flowering plants take hundreds of years to produce fruit. People don't live hundreds of years. So, by all apparent rational sense, you could be like "oh look this plant doesn't do anything" when in reality you're dead wrong. Literally. :lol:
Come on you should know this stuff. This isn't elementary school.
I already gave good reasons why it isn't a case of premature judgement.
I think we can learn quite a lot from these sort of experiences, it’s like a window into hidden parts of our world that we don’t ordinarily see*.
For example; I have come to realise that extremely inprobable events and coincidences happen all the time. Probabilities equivalent to a lottery win. The probability that the crowd of dancers would part like that is extremely low. I have many other experiences which confirm this observation**. And yet, very few few of us notice these events, or if we do, realise the significance.
Secondly; for this event to happen, there was a collective action between all the people involved. So in a sense the crowd, including myself and the small chap, were acting as one cohesive organism. Which might suggest that we act as one organism more often than we might expect.
Thirdly; there was some kind of calling, need, requirement for the two of us to see each other and have our interaction***. I have had numerous encounters with people which involved exchanging of glances, as intense, or meaningful as this, indeed even more so. So have come to view such interactions as a window to the soul, or something like that.
Fourthly; and this point involves another encounter at the same event, aswell. The realisation that brief meetings between particular people can have a meaning, or significance, way beyond what we might expect. And that some kind of group communion is going on within populations.
This leads me to conclude a number of things about our world and humanity, which are not overtly evident and that there are deeper meaning and far reaching processes and purposes at play in our world about which we know nothing (in particular).
* we are blind, or blinkered to it. Although some cultures are not so blind and embrace it.
** I know about probability, chance and random events. But I am putting it in the context of a human life and the rarity within the experiences of a person for such improbable events to happen with meaning, within their particular path of experience. And that through the development of the skills of observation, one can come to see these events more and more and make use of them.
***the implication being that there is something going on at a soul, or spirit level in the beings involved.
We are all still in kindergarten, but don’t realise it. We are playing with our shiny toys and passing them around in our own little worlds pretending to be important, or saying important things. While the grown ups are in the next room keeping an eye on us. Just to make sure we don’t go pressing any big red buttons out of curiosity.
I strongly agree. That's why there is sayings like "truth is stranger than fiction". I believe it has something to do with the variety of possibility. Possibility extends through such a vast array of features of a vast array of activities, far beyond the capacity of the most imaginative minds. That is why superstition extends to such a broad array of habitual activities. You'll find that people who work in a career where luck and chance are significant factors (such as sports games) pay very strong attention to the most minute factors of daily life. They are said to be superstitious. Very small things, which are not even noticeable to most people can end up having a large effect on what happens. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Butterfly_effect
Quoting Punshhh
These two features involve a non-conscious relation between individuals, which will act to amplify the minute factors of possibility, through multiplication.
Here's an analogy. Consider that a living body is composed of a multitude of small parts, individual cells, or even the smaller parts, parts of a cell and the parts that act between cells. Each part is acting out its own role, by what it is inclined to do by the deterministic laws of physics, while leaving open minute factors of possibility. That is, it is still free to make a different move, one which would appear to be chance, or random. Also, there must be an non-conscious relation between all the different parts, so that the possibility which is left open by each individual is multiplied by the possibility left open by each other, allowing for coincidental apparent chance or random acts. This "coincidence" acts to "amplify possibility". When the whole, as a group, does something unexpected, the effect of amplified possibility is realized. We observe this, "the effects of amplified possibility" every time a being makes an act which we designate as freely chosen.
Quoting Punshhh
This is analogous to the above referenced "butterfly effect" itself. However, there is a very big difference. Understanding of the butterfly effect is based in principles of chance, randomness, described by chaos theory. This theory demonstrates how the concept of "amplified possibility" is permissible in a deterministic world, if we allow that at a fundamental level, chance occurrence is real. The chance occurrence must be very real, for chaos theory to be real, so in reality chaos theory is a denial of the "deterministic world". People will claim that chaos theory is consistent with determinism, but it is not, because it requires chance, undetermined actions, at the basic level.
What you are indicating is that these supposedly "chance" occurrences, which form the base of chaos theory, actually have meaning and significance which extends far beyond the capacity of the conscious human mind to understand. This implies that within the "non-conscious relation between all the different parts", there is some form of what you call "group communion", which is some form of recognition of the underlying meaning or significance, and this acts to cause the amplification of possibility which is required for the individuals to act together as a whole, in a way which is non-deterministic.
Yes, although, I am focussing on the personal angle of a being. Which is actually quite limited, on a small scale and only covering a small number of events, outcomes etc. This does require the vast majority of what happens external to the being to be ignored, or screened out*. For such a being, the experience of such an unusual event is very rare, perhaps once in the lifetime, or only for 1 in 10 people in their lifetime. What I’m saying, is that infact it happens more than we know, even regularly, but we either don’t see it, couldn’t appreciate the relevance, are conditioned to screen it out etc. essentially we are blind to it, except in certain very narrow circumstances determined by our life, heritage and conditioning.
For the mystic, or [I]seer[/I], this is fertile ground for exploration and contemplation.
Yes, that makes sense, specifically to my second point. But when it comes to my third point, I am talking about something else. That there is some transcendent (perhaps) process, or cause which may involve far reaching [I]karmic[/I]**significance. For example, two beings who have some connection from a previous life. Or some extended interaction between historical groups etc. in which the two people involved are emissaries, or representatives to some other unknown process, or meeting.
Yes, I’m with you about it not being deterministic. I go back to my emissary analogy, in each event, each being may act as an emissary, or ambassador for a whole species, or series of unconnected(seemingly) events. Also, there is an internal dimension within the physical body of the beings (we are after all a colony of millions of individual cells), a spiritual dimension and a [I]cosmic [/I] dimension, to this.***
* we have evolved to do this, in a profound sense, through necessity.
**I am using the word karmic, descriptively, not necessarily in its precise meaning.
***I would refer you to Hindu mythology, in which there is a vast, infinite spiritual cosmos, of which we are in a small pond in a distant backwater.
I opt for "regularly". I tend to think that this sort of thing happens all the time, and it is a significant aspect of existence, but since it doesn't make sense to our deterministic way of understanding things, we have been conditioned to tune it out.
Here's an analogy, or another example of the "tuning out". There is talk and speculation about people who experience an "inner voice". Many people do not experience the inner voice. Those who do experience it, generally condition themselves to believe that the inner voice is simply a personal dialogue, talking to oneself. The self-conditioning occurs at such a young age we do not even remember it. It could be very confusing to think that I am talking to someone other than myself, internally, so I carry on a self-dialogue which effectively blocks out, tunes out, any external source from my inner voice. Talking to myself, internally allows me to block out any internal voice which is not my own, convincing me that the internal voice is simply my own. Any external sourced voice, in the internal, is pushed under the rug, and drowned out, therefore not noticed.
However, some do not succumb to the conditioning, and end up believing that the voice of another is speaking to them internally. These people are designated as psychologically challenged. That designation doesn't make the phenomenon go away, or make it any less real. So this feature, of having someone who is somehow not you (external in that sense), speaking to you internally, is very real, despite the fact that normal people shout at themselves internally to drown out or tune out, the "not you" aspect, and think of this as thinking.
Shhhhh, you might want to keep quiet about hearing voices and talking to yourself around here they might think you’re away with the fairies (just joking).
Yes, I agree with you entirely. Indeed one of the stages, initiations, or crises that I talk about is reaching an accommodation, an understanding with the internal dialogue. To develop a trust and rapport and develop the ability to work with, to bounce ideas off the voice. At a later stage, one might develop the faculty to hear the divine voice. Something, which I think is achieved by prayer in monastic settings. For me it is rather like a radio receiver.
So let's say that we do have a radio receiver of that sort, and it's common to us all but the majority of people, (the normal people), condition themselves to tune it out, or maybe even turn it right off. I don't consider myself to be normal, so I am cognizant of that signal as I explained, but I also understand that I've spent most my life under the 'tune it out' program of conditioning. I didn't succeed in completely tuning it out, or turning it off, because it was too strong for my conscious mind to overpower. Now it really confuses me, even causing unnecessary stress and anxiety, because I don't know how to interpret or translate the meaning, having never taken the time to learn the language, yet it is so strong and seems to tell me that I ought to try.
If I want to try and understand it, what do you think would be my best approach? Should I first attempt to determine where it's coming from, and then after forming that understanding I would have an approach toward trying to understand what it is saying? Or, do you think that I should first learn to understand what it is saying, then, where it is coming from might sort of reveal itself naturally?
First thing first though, how can I know that it is really being received, and not just created by me as a form of self-deception? That's what I'm really afraid of, that it's a sort of self-perpetuating anxiety, like I am creating a problem for myself, and actively propagating the problem. The 'tune it out conditioning' tells me it is self-created deception and that's why it must be shut off. How can I convince myself of its reality, so that I can peacefully live with it, and so it resolves that anxiety of self-deception, rather than creating it? Is there a logical trick, like even if it is self-created, it must have a cause?
Yes, there is a logical trick and various techniques. Were you involved in the New Age movement at all? Because these techniques would have been available then. I can’t offer much help, from here, because normally I would advise someone to undergo a programme of self development for a few years first. This is important because it would bring to the surface any psychological issues, or trauma which would be problematic at a later stage, or might make one unsuitable for such practice. Due to the risk of psychosis, or other mental health problems.
You’re in Australia right? I would have a chat with Tom Storm, he might be able to refer you to someone who can help.
I can give you a simplified overall description of what is involved, but as I say, it needs to be undergone with, or adjacent to a group who are able to assess and assist in the process.
I spent a decade of rigorous self development before I was in a position to develop what I am talking about.
So basically, you come to an accommodation with yourself, once this is established and settled, with no conflict, or any issues. Then you establish a dialogue with the voice, or alter ego*. You come to terms where you have an established and shared common interest which is directed at the purification and development of your being. Because there is a strong common interest there is no, opportunity, or room for mischief. I say this because we are here dealing with the ego and the subconscious and if there are any internal conflicts, unreleased trauma, then it can derail the process and progress cannot be made.
The next stage involves reaching an understanding and trust with the voice/alter ego, to become good friends so to speak. To develop a working relationship. This goes hand in hand with a spiritual path in which one is seeking to reach a common understanding with the soul(or equivalent) and become aligned with one’s divine presence**.
Once this is established, one then proceeds to divine (as in divination), or using intuition the ways in which the divinity is infusing into the being. To practice a good life and role in a community, or family.
Over time this develops and reaches a point where there is a divine, or spiritual voice, or presence. Something which is acted out in small acts of kindness with other members of the community and or family. At this point, one would have developed a strong sense of humility and peace in living a relatively simple life engaging in pastimes like gardening, painting, literature or the like. Or discussing these ideas on a friendly forum, for example.
*working with the ego is a whole subject in itself and is the subject and goal of self development practices.
**alignment with one’s divine presence is simply the process practiced in all religions and spiritual schools of becoming one with one’s higher self, soul, becoming close to Jesus etc. There is a whole spiritual philosophy around this with more advanced stages and practices, where one allows the soul to play a guiding role and one and one’s soul (or equivalent) become assimilated in one being, or person.
The story of Jung and the scarab beetle is one of the most famous examples he used to illustrate his concept of synchronicity.
Once Carl Jung was treating a young woman who was a very difficult patient. She was highly educated and deeply rational, so much so that she had "sealed herself" off from emotional or psychological progress. Jung felt he was at an impasse with her, as she was resistant to his therapeutic attempts to get her to a "more human understanding." He hoped that something "unexpected and irrational" would happen to break through her intellectual defenses.
One day, she was in his office telling him about a dream she had the previous night. In the dream, she was given a piece of jewelry in the shape of a golden scarab beetle. As she was recounting this dream, Jung heard a gentle tapping sound on the window behind him. He turned around and saw a large flying insect tapping against the pane, seemingly trying to get into the dark room.
Jung opened the window and caught the insect as it flew in. He was astonished to discover that it was a scarabaeid beetle, a common rose-chafer, whose golden-green color was the closest thing in that region to a "golden scarab."
Jung handed the beetle to his patient and said, "Here is your scarab."
The event had a profound effect on the woman. Her rigid, rational worldview was shattered by the coincidence of her dream and the appearance of the real beetle. Jung noted that this "broke the ice of her intellectual resistance," and the treatment was able to proceed with satisfactory results.
I could tell you a story or two about such things. Like when I was half way through writing the word, evil, when a large spider ran onto the back of my right hand, the hand I was writing with.
Also the idea of a world view being shattered is in the area I am referring to.
So this, I think would be the most difficult part, the initial accommodation. That is where the logical trick I requested would be required. Maybe Wayfarer's example of the scarab beetle is such a trick. The trick is not really logical, but something which goes beyond logic, something which demonstrates the vast field of meaning which is not enveloped by logic. This is where significance commonly escapes conscious interpretation. Once I recognize that things which I don't even notice, and which would commonly completely escape my conscious perception, may in reality have great significance, then I might be in a position to accommodate my alter ego. The alter ego might be in a position to provide me with a sort of window into this vast realm which is a very real part of the world, completely surrounding me, but totally unnoticed by me. It appears like the only access I have to this very significant part of my environment, is through the means of an inner adventure.
I'd like to replace "alter ego" with the subconscious, or unconscious aspects of my being. What I find is that there seems to be a sort of self, which is almost totally distinct from my conscious self, and this other self which somehow lies in my unconscious, is evident in dreaming. This is my real being, as a living organism. I must pay respect to the fact that the unconscious self is the immediate environment to the conscious self, and the consciousness is a product of the unconscious self. Now I find my consciousness to be within this environment, the living being, and this environment completely escapes my observations. Furthermore, I find that the unconscious living being, allows the consciousness to practise self-deception, in thinking that it is the real self. It is not the real self, my consciousness is just a small bloom which has blossomed out of the unconscious activities of my being, and my ego deceives itself into thinking that the conscious mind is representative of the being itself.
Therefore, i must allow that when messages from the deep internal, the underneath, the alter ego, or subconscious, are being received into my conscious mind, these are coming from the real being which lies underneath. Whenever I block them out as being not-real, I feed the self-deception which supports my conscious mind in its illusion that it is the real self, and the real being. In reality, I think that maybe the underlying real being produces this consciousness, providing for that self-deception, so that the consciousness will do all sorts of different strange things, in a trial and error sort of way, supporting the being's quest for freedom. The underlying being, in disconnecting the consciousness from itself, and producing the conscious self-deceptive illusion of selfness, allows that the consciousness can act in an "objective" way, which is free from the influence of the true interest of the underlying being. Then the underlying being is the true observer of the conscious antics.
This crisis, or inititiation is foundational in the mystical life. Along with the other crisis I referred to in an earlier post. The one where one realises that the world might not be made of the solid objects we live alongside, but could be some form of immaterial phenomena, or something as yet undisclosed.
The mystical life is a combination of realising what we don’t know, our limits, so to speak and a movement inward to the true self and along the way we encounter human nature. Which is profoundly evolved to see the world as real and dwell there. So there is grounds for a conflict here, or a straight jacket, built in to our predicament. This is where the scarab beetle analogy is appropriate, for the aspirant there is a hurdle, perhaps a number of hurdles to overcome to reach the point where one is ready to begin.
Regarding the initial accommodation I didn’t mean what you describe, which is referring to later stages in the process. The initial accommodation is with yourself here and now. It’s such a subtle distinction it’s almost impossible to grasp. It is with the person typing this message, so to speak. What you refer to here as “my consciousness is just a small bloom which has blossomed out of the unconscious activities of my being”. You know the well used phrase, be true to yourself, this encapsulates it. Although here I would describe it in more technical terms.
One reaches an accommodation with one’s self, such that there is no question, or possibility of a breaking of the bond, or trust between you.
I know this sounds odd, how can you have an unshakable bond with yourself etc. But we must remember human nature. We are beings with an incredibly complex brain and mind, which consists of many layers of activity. Including projections, layered over projections. So basically there is more than one you, or you are a nexus of slightly differing and sometimes opposing mental and emotional processes. The task is to unify this in a way that is [I]true to yourself[/I]. Initially it is more a case of reaching a threshold, beyond which the true you holds together and is able to build a focal point. Or it’s like crossing the Rubicon, you pass the point of no return(this is not strictly true, just an analogy).
This stage is very important, because all the other stages build upon it and in a sense they are present in it as it is achieved. So it is a real crisis, or initiation and it inevitably results in a moment of choice(a pivotal choice), the forming of a conviction(determination) and an act signifying the step being taken(acting definitively as your true self).
This can be practiced as an initiation right and there is a long history of this in our cultures. The boy becomes a man, through a right of initiation.
This is not a question of the act of crossing the Rubicon, that happens internally and in all likelihood cannot be pinned down to a moment, or a thought. It is symbolic of a movement within the self, which leaves behind the previous status quo.
You see right through me. This is where I have an ingrown difficulty which will probably never be resolved. It seems that the inner me has some tendencies which the outer me has difficulty accommodating for, social anxiety for example. The outer me therefore, has created a bunch of defence mechanisms to fend off what the inner me is telling it. The outer me has set up ways to effectively block the influence of the inner me, because the outer me wants something different from what the inner me can provide for.
This can be understood in the context of moral training. The inner instinctual inclinations and desires are suppressed because we are taught that these tendencies are not good, and moral virtue requires suppression of them. In my case, what I describe above, the inner tendencies created uncomfortableness for the outer me, from an extremely young age, so the defence mechanisms referred to, which were required to fend off that uncomfortableness, are very strong. For the conscious me to be at all comfortable, from a very young age, the inner me had to be significantly blocked. In effect, the inner me is the enemy to the outer me, and creating a "bond" like you describe would require a complete annihilation of the outer me. The inverse, destruction of the inner me, is impossible. In other words, I cannot live with myself, and I believe that the separation must be maintained to ensure my existence.
Quoting Punshhh
So the task appears unsurmountable to me. Contrariety runs deep, and "true to myself" would require truth of contradiction. The river cannot be crossed, and I believe an alternative, a compromise of sorts, is required. Can't I take another path, which allows for a disunited me, some form of divisive dualism maybe?
This is not necessarily insurmountable, although it would require professional help to unravel. We all have inner conflicts like this of some kind. I had something similar with intense shyness from a young age. But it didn’t develop into something problematic and through considerable effort during my formative years I was able to overcome it. Even now it rears its head occasionally along with other psychological ticks and dysfunctional, or underdeveloped (resulting in repressed), character traits.
But I am able to manage them, neutralise them and clean up the emotional impact they have when they happen.
There is a sense that our weaknesses are actually our strengths, because we have unique experience and ability to live with these. So being able to see this as a strength rather than a failing helps one to face it, work through it and live with it. Even use it to our advantage. Also we have the opportunity to shape our lifestyles to make it easier to live without these issues normally arising. The thing with following a mystical life, it is entirely personal and doesn’t require, necessarily, dealing with the outside world, and you can shape your lifestyle to suit.
Now there are two tricks I use which might be of use to yourself. You may have already come to this realisation. The first is that there isn’t actually a destination, because you are already at your destination, always have been and it is simply a process of taking off the blinkers. Even this is not necessarily required, it might be seen rather as just taking a breath to be quiet, still, that is required. Breathing practice, pranayama, is very beneficial here.
Secondly and this is quite a neat trick, (this is the simplified version). You basically offer yourself up freely to any entity who is gooder than yourself. This necessarily requires one to be sufficiently good yourself that you would happily give yourself up someone equally, or more good than yourself. Once this level of goodness and conviction is reached, you can do a deal with yourself. You will offer access to yourself on the condition that your alter ego becomes at least as good as yourself. With the selling point being that, such a deal would enable progress and greater access. And of course your alter ego would naturally offer access to itself for yourself, because the result would only be gooder, or at least the same level of good. Then both party’s can become gooder and gooder in a partnership of mutual benefit.
I realise that this might be a non starter, but it works well for me. Although I do have a back up association with the deity Kali*, via an association and practice with a Guru and Ashram offering devotional worship to the goddess Kali**.
I would also say that this path isn’t an important thing to do, for any particular reason and is more a choice for certain people who have a calling of some kind to follow it. Others might follow a more intellectual pursuit, or something else entirely. All equally valid and meaningful.
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kali
**I don’t think it necessary to have such a back up, I just happened to have made and established this connection prior to further work on myself.
Reflecting upon your responses to that particular text, it prompts me to wonder how Kant's objections to the theories of a "rational psychology" relate to explanations that base themselves on some version of that.
That point is also made in many other places, including the issue of method put forward in my quote.
The topic of "rational psychology" is often brought up in the CPR as a fusion of personal experiences with universal conditions. That response opposes, for instance, the presumptions of Neoplatonism and other depictions of what is rational in regard to our existence.
Many of the objections to Kant, as they played out in his lifetime and afterwards, concern his treatment of the "object" as a product of what we do. So, the effort is different from someone who looks at the attempt of explanation as a product of talking per se. I am not up to speed with Buddhist texts, but Zhuangzi put it as every attempt at division.
So, I submit that there is an importance difference there.
OK this is me, fundamental intense shyness. It didn't develop into anything problematic because I managed to get around it with conscious tricks and defence mechanism to ward off the social anxiety. However, I feel that it still exists as a basic part of the inner me. Now, the conscious tricks by which I suppressed the basic shyness are really problematic if I want to reconcile the outer me with the inner me, because they seem to have produced an inauthentic outer me. The outer me is not representative of the true me. I can't erase the conscious tricks, and recoil back into shyness, because they are a very strong part of my character, and actually very necessary for coping with the social aspect of life which is unavoidable.
Quoting Punshhh
.I've already come to take this approach, that our weaknesses are actually strengths. My weakness is that I am a conflicted or divided person. If I look at this as actually a strength, then I see no reason to unify myself. That division within me has now become a strength.
Quoting Punshhh
I like this, but it's going to take a goodly number of readings to fully realize the meaning. I've already accepted the alter ego as the real me, therefore the better me. But the conscious me needs some reciprocation from the alter ego, or else I'd be lost in the social environment. This is where the alter ego needs to become at least as good as the conscious self. So I'm thinking that there must be various aspects of myself to be judged, and the conscious me might actually be the better me with respect to some aspects, even though the alter ego is the more real me.
How can the conscious me request the alter ego to submit, when the logic by which the conscious me recognizes the reality of the alter ego is by assigning to it a higher reality? If I remove that higher reality, then the alter-ego becomes imaginary, a delusion in fact. And, if I assign some sort of equality to it, I lose the grounding for both, and my being in general becomes illusionary. I lose the principle by which i would determine better and worse. So I don't think this sort of proposal would be adequate for me.
I believe, that since I find this divisiveness within me to have become a strength, then attempts to unify might actually be a mistake. Perhaps I can use the divisiveness to encourage healthy competition between the two. Instead of one submitting to the goodness of the other, maybe they can always challenge each other. Then if one appears to be better than the other, the other will need to best up.
The question which comes to mind, do you believe that the alter ego can change itself? And if so, how?
This strikes me as a conversation which might better be conducted in private.
If there is anyone who would like to look into this subject further I would be happy to start a new thread.
You might be right.
Many objections, sure.
What is to be understood by “object”?
And what is it we do by which the “object” is a product?
“….an object is that, in the conception of which the manifold in a given intuition is united. Now all union of representations requires unity of consciousness in the synthesis of them. Consequently, it is the unity of consciousness alone that constitutes the relation of representations to an object, and therefore of their objective validity, and the fact they are modes of knowledge; and upon it therefore rests the very possibility of the understanding….” (B137, in Kemp Smith)
Given scarce objection to the object here, by definition, how is it different from “object”?
Honest; just trying to see what you see.
The passage you quote puts it in a nutshell; All instances of "objectivity" are also moments in consciousness. The emphasis upon objectivity that Wayfarer finds fault with is, by this account, already too "subjective" for some thinkers.
Kant was wrestling with his contemporaries on the question of what was "real" in this context when discussing the existence of time outside of our experience of it. This is touched upon in my quote upthread:
Quoting CPR A36/B53
As the rest of the passage demonstrates, there is an aspect to experiencing an object that points beyond the representations of it. Kant is saying that that element is not a representation in its own right.
And yet I find no reference to Kant’s treatment of what you call the “object”, thus no indication of the ground for peer-reviewed dispute.
The cause of the questioning resides in the fact Kant doesn’t make such distinction, re: object/“object”, which implies he isn’t talking about either one except to define the former under initial conditions for the ensuing exposition in B137. And because he isn’t talking about either one within the exposition itself, I wonder by what ground is there objection to his treatments, and of whatever that treatment entails, why it should be called treatment of “objects”?
My question is repeatable with your “real”. All I wish to be told is the difference between object and “object” in the first case, and the real and the “real” in the second. A matter only of my interest, your interpretive arrangement be as it may.
My interpretive arrangement so far has been to try and make sense of what Kant seems to not explain. When I read certain passages to be restrictions upon how to understand representations, for example, I am not claiming insight into the role of objects in Kant's system.
The "real" involved in this case is not my opinion but a citation of where Kant answered a challenge on the matter by his contemporaries.
Is your question about "object" such that you remove yourself as a peer capable of reviewing the text?
Nope; got nothing to do with the text. By asking what you mean “object” to represent prevents me from prematurely mis-judging your use of it solely from what I think it represents.
I just want to know what “object” gives me that object doesn’t. What do the marks give to object that object doesn’t already have?
What I mean by that is that the properties of space and time that we confer to existing things in an Aristotle or Aquinas set of givens is upset when those are taken to be primarily intuitions that make our experience possible. The reaction by Kant at A36/B53 shows him insisting upon a strong separation from what things are beyond our experience. But it is not an absolute separation expressed in forms of idealism he opposes. But it is a duality of his own making. In that sense, it does not give more than it takes away.
Ok. Thanks.
I'm still reading the voluminous 2025 book by James Glattfelder : The Sapient Cosmos, What a modern-day synthesis of science and philosophy teaches us about the emergence of information, consciousness, and meaning. It's an encyclopedia of current concepts of the Idealistic worldview. The book has chapters on cutting-edge science, such as Relativity, Quantum physics, Information theory, and Complexity science. But it also has chapters on Buddhism, Shamanic traditions, and Psychedelic adventures. So, the label for his worldview is Syncretic Idealism, which some interpret as "scientific spirituality"*1.
Syncretic : a combination, or mish-mash, of various schools of thought.
My personal background is mainly in the scientific aspects of the Mind Created World. But yours is much deeper in traditional Philosophy, including Buddhist insights on mind. So, the Shamanic & Psychedelic explorations in the mental world are exotic territory for me. Glattfelder calls those who experiment with mind-altering drugs : "Psychonauts". And he seems convinced that they are directly experiencing parallel realms of reality (Ideality???). He also thinks Near-Death experiences are previews of the afterlife. But those ideas about Idealism are hard for me to accept.
Today, I just read a quote from Richard Tarnas, historian and astrologer, that sounded reminiscent of your Mind-Created World : "The mind is not the passive reflector of an external world and its intrinsic order, but is active and creative in the process of perception and cognition. Reality is in some sense constructed by the mind, not simply perceived by it, and many such constructions are possible, none necessarily sovereign."
To me, that statement makes sense, insofar as Cognition is a construct, and Worldviews are personal models of reality. But the notion of opening The Doors of Perception*2 to alternate realities, that can be explored by "poisoning" the brain with serotonin agonists, that stimulate "non-ordinary mental states", and that skeptics call "hallucinations", does not compute.
In my profession as an architect, we built imaginary models of potential or possible buildings that do not exist yet in the real world. Although you may imagine yourself walking thru the atrium, the model is not intended to be interpreted as a hyper-real structure that you can inhabit with your disembodied Self/Soul.
Personally, my worldview is both Realistic (physical senses) and Idealistic (mental images)*3. But I'd like to hear from you, as the resident expert on traditional Idealism, what you think of Syncretic Idealism, as a synthesis of Science and Spirituality. Have you ever explored alternate Realities with a mind "cleansed" by entheogens? :smile:
*1. Syncretic idealism is a term used to explain the concept of scientific spirituality.
https://www.instagram.com/reel/DNukwNH0htX/
*2. Aldous Huxley :
[i]Huxley used the phrase to describe his experiences with psychedelic drugs, which he felt temporarily "cleansed the doors of perception," allowing for a greater awareness of the world and human consciousness
https://www.google.co[/i]m/search?client=firefox-b-1-d&q=doors+of+perception+quote
*3. Both/And Principle :
[i]My coinage for the holistic principle of Complementarity, as illustrated in the Yin/Yang symbol. Opposing or contrasting concepts are always part of a greater whole. Conflicts between parts can be reconciled or harmonized by putting them into the context of a whole system.
# The Enformationism worldview entails the principles of Complementarity, Reciprocity & Holism, which are necessary to offset the negative effects of Fragmentation, Isolation & Reductionism. Analysis into parts is necessary for knowledge of the mechanics of the world, but synthesis of those parts into a whole system is required for the wisdom to integrate the self into the larger system. In a philosophical sense, all opposites in this world (e.g. space/time, good/evil) are ultimately reconciled in Enfernity (eternity & infinity).
# Conceptually, the BothAnd principle is similar to Einstein's theory of Relativity, in that what you see ? what’s true for you ? depends on your perspective, and your frame of reference; for example, subjective or objective, religious or scientific, reductive or holistic, pragmatic or romantic, conservative or liberal, earthbound or cosmic. Ultimate or absolute reality (ideality) doesn't change, but your conception of reality does. Opposing views are not right or wrong, but more or less accurate for a particular purpose.
# This principle is also similar to the concept of Superposition in sub-atomic physics. In this ambiguous state a particle has no fixed identity until “observed” by an outside system. For example, in a Quantum Computer, a Qubit has a value of all possible fractions between 1 & 0. Therefore, you could say that it is both 1 and 0.[/i]
https://blog-glossary.enformationism.info/page10.html
But the action of lysergic acid is very different to intoxicants as the amounts ingested are minute, in the micrograms. It doesn't 'flood the brain with chemicals' so much as trigger a kind of chain reaction which can considerably provide and enhance insights well beyond the normal sense of 'existence as usual'. While I wouldn’t ever advocate the consumption of illegal substances I have no doubt that this particular class of substances do indeed open the doors of perception (insights which are of course impossible to communicate or even really remember on a conscious level).
Yes, the Tarnas quote is exactly what I was getting at in this thread. Why this is even considered controversial beats me. It is obvious that our fantastically elaborate hominid forebrain creates our world. It doesn't mean there's no world outside it, but that's not the world we ever know.
I've looked at Glattfelder's books and listened to some of his talks. Overall I'm well-disposed towards him although some of it is pretty far out. He didn't coin the term psychonaut by the way.
If or when "recreational" Marijuana becomes legal in my area, I may give it a try, just to see what I'm missing. Most of the other "street drugs" seem to do more harm than good. So, I'm not inclined to open those particular doors. My naive question is this : do the psycho-drugs actually or metaphorically open your perception to exotic realities or to warped hallucinations?
Glattfelder lists a wide variety of psychic experiences that are "real" to psychonauts : Synchronicity, ESP, Telepathy, Telekinesis, Clairvoyance, Mediumship, Presentiment, Psychic abilities, etc, that he deems worthy of scientific investigation. To explain their marginalization, he accuses scientists of have closed minds ; instead of having good reasons to avoid wasting time on subjective, non-empirical beliefs. And yet, in the last century, academically-trained Paranormal scientists & ghost-hunters have attempted to use empirical methods to study most of those “realities”, but their results have been generally un-reproducible*1, and have led to no practical uses, other than spooky entertainment*2. Therefore, like religious beliefs, such phantom “realities” seem to be a matter of faith, rather than science*3.
He says, "Although the boundaries of physical reality remain solid most of the time, there is not a priori reason radical modulations of sentience should not be able to puncture them momentarily". Does that assertion fit your understanding of the Mind Created World? He goes on to say, "this --- presumably, the fleeting temporariness of glimpses into other worlds --- would explain the difficulty in measuring and replicating such subtle and delicate effects accessible to the human mind only in moments of extreme modes of sentience." Besides, most of the plant-derived drugs may be natural, but their natural function is to kill or deter pests. So, using them to open doors to parallel worlds is un-natural. Can meditation open psychedelic doors?
He goes on to say, "this --- presumably, the fleeting temporariness of glimpses into other worlds --- would explain the difficulty in measuring and replicating such subtle and delicate effects accessible to the human mind only in moments of extreme modes of sentience." Quantum experiments are also fleeting and subject to biased interpretation, but they are reproducible and mathematical. On the other hand, most of the plant-derived psycho-drugs may be natural, but their natural function is to kill or deter pests. So, using insecticides and neuro-toxins to open doors to parallel worlds is literally un-natural. Is Buddhist meditation a safer option for timid psychonauts?
Apparently, the necessity for "radical modulations" --- that may lead to compulsive behavior and addiction, not to mention liver & heart disease & poisoning deaths --- makes other-worldly psycho-adventures just as dangerous as jungle & mountain explorations in mundane reality. Historically, ethyl alcohol (a mild neurotoxin) has been the most common & popular Affect Modulator. But it also modulates unacceptable social behaviors, that provoked wise King Solomon to denounce : "Wine is a mocker, strong drink is raging: and whosoever is deceived thereby is not wise" Proverbs 20:1. Since I am not, by nature, an adventurer, I leave exploits in other-worlds to highly-motivated others. From the sentient safety of my armchair, I know the “secret knowledge” of Amazon Indians --- e.g. ethnobotany --- only by second-hand National Geographic reports. :nerd:
*1. No, paranormal activity has not been scientifically proven;it is considered a pseudoscience by most scientists and academics because there is no conclusive empirical evidence to support its existence. Many experiences attributed to the paranormal have scientific explanations, such as psychological factors (like pareidolia or sleep paralysis), environmental factors (like infrasound or electromagnetic fields), or even misinterpretations of mundane phenomena.
https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-1-d&q=history+of+paranormal+research
Note --- "no conclusive evidence" is not for lack of trying. After centuries of optimistic efforts, Paranormal research is not mainstream, not necessarily due to prejudice, but to lack of corroboration and practical applications.
*2. Paranormal research originated in the 19th century with the spiritualism movement and the founding of the Society for Psychical Research (SPR) in 1882 to scientifically investigate spirits.
https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-1-d&q=history+of+paranormal+research
*3. “The day science begins to study non-physical phenomena, it will make more progress in one decade than in all the previous centuries of its existence.” ____ Nikola Tesla,
https://www.goodreads.com/quotes/139502-the-day-science-begins-to-study-non-physical-phenomena-it-will
Note --- Maybe Elon Musk will invest some of his Tesla profits into Mental, instead of Martial (Mars), exploration of other worlds.
As for the paranormal, I’m an open-minded sceptic. I don’t think it will ever be proven to exist, but I know that telepathy happens, it can’t simply be explained away. I think it’s possible that there are fields other than electromagnetic fields, something like Sheldrake’s morphic fields, but that can’t be detected by electronic instruments.
Me too! Glattfelder has a favorite term to describe the ambiguities & uncertainties of paranormal phenomena : Postmodern*1. He expresses some skepticism toward attempts to prove divine MIND by means of psychedelics and statistics*2. But he remains convinced that subjective Syncretic Idealism will soon be proven to be just as real, if not more, than the objective Reality of empirical Science*3*4.
Toward the end of the book, he quotes "philosophical entertainer" Alan Watts : "God also likes to play hide & seek, but because there is nothing outside God, it has no one but itself to play with."*5
I get the impression that Paranormal Research illuminates the dark corners of Consciousness with black light (statistical uncertainty), revealing formerly invisible things by re-emission of Bayesian belief. :smile:
*1. Trickster God? :
"In another display of postmodern mischief, reality appears to be teasing us by yet again hiding its true nature in a fog of inconclusiveness." {page 558}
Note --- After quoting a skeptical publication on telepathy, Glattfelder says "in this context, it is very hard to assess any claim for or against psi.
*2. "Yet again, psychedelics appear as a panacea for unorthodox knowledge access." {page 560}
*3. "It should be noted that the critics of syncretic idealism can only be taken seriously if they themselves have proficiency in modulating sentience."*4 {page 563}
Note --- Since he doesn't have much to say about Meditation, I suppose he means "modulating" brain functions by artificial means such as psychedelic drugs. Some paranormal researchers have indeed placed their bets on mind-soul-manifesting hallucinogenic substances (entheogens), to reveal the divinity hidden within the human entity.
*4. The phrase "modulating sentience" refers to the concept of influencing or altering the capacity to have subjective experiences, feelings, and sensations. This is a theoretical and speculative topic at the intersection of neuroscience, philosophy, and artificial intelligence (AI). While the total modulation of a biological organism's sentience remains beyond current capabilities, certain processes can alter the experience of consciousness.
https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-1-d&q=modulating+sentience
*5. "Quantum hide and seek" [i]refers to both a metaphor for the elusive and uncertain behavior of quantum particles and a scientific concept used in steganography and quantum computing to hide information. Researchers use analogies of hide-and-seek to describe the nature of quantum systems, where particles can be in multiple places at once (superposition) until observed. /i]
https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-1-d&q=quantum+hide+and+seek
I get the impression that, compared to the "beauties" of the hallucinogenic*1 Psychedelic version of "reality itself", Glattfelder finds the sober view of human social Reality to be depressing. In the Epilogue to The Sapient Cosmos, he adds a "gloomy summary of the status quo". There, he lists a litany of what's wrong with the modern world ; not so much the natural world, but the un-natural un-spiritual environment created by the materialistic mind of technological humans.
He seems to weep for the loss of innocence of the babes in paradise (Genesis), after reaching the age of reason. As usual, that fall from grace is blamed on the serpent of Science, the "most cunning of all beasts". The snake-eyes of objectivity have given us wise apes mastery over the garden of nature, which we have raped & pillaged to gratify our own material desires.
Glattfelder seems to believe that humanity was better-off before science penetrated the "mystical veil" of reality. Before forces & energies replaced spirits & gods. Back when we were helpless animals kneeling before the mysterious powers of the non-self world. Back when we had to bend the knee to Nature, and to Nature's God.
His Syncretic Idealism seems to lean more toward Ontological Idealism (reality itself is mental) than to Epistemological Idealism (all knowledge is mental). But, although I find Idealism to be a good counterpoint to crass Realism, I've never been that romantically idealistic : more Pragmatic than Utopian. I was hopeful that the book would describe a sensible philosophy of Idealism to counter the crass Realism of Scientism. But if it requires dissociative drugs to open that door, I may have to remain benighted in Plato's cave for a while longer. :cool:
*1. Hallucinogenic drugs can cause hallucinations, which are sensations and images that seem real but aren't. People may hear, feel or see things that aren't really there. Some psychedelic drugs cause people to feel out of control or disconnected from their bodies and environment.
https://www.google.com/search?client=firefox-b-1-d&q=on+and+off+psychedelic+drugs
LICK THE TOXIC TOAD TO FREE YOUR MIND
from its prison in mundane reality
I would categorise it into two effects;
Firstly, the awareness of a subtle layer to our reality, which I will call the astral plane ( I know there is a lot of baggage with this word, as is often the case with these discussions), as shorthand for some kind of subtle realm that we are not normally aware of.
Secondly, a release from our rigid conditioned view and ideology of the world. A loosening of the bond and an awareness of something different, although fleeting, distorted, uncertain and undefined, due to the brute action of the chemical.
Both these realisations can be made through meditation and or religious practice. Or just happen through experiences of epiphany. The use of drugs does hasten the process, But I would guard against any use seeking to go further than this. As it can result in a whole range of psychological, or psychiatric conditions, which would prevent further progress. Also I am of the opinion that once these two realisations have been made, there isn’t really much more benefit to be made. The shell of the primordial egg has been cracked so to speak and one will begin to glimpse the chink of light through the cracks.
The symbolism of the Fall is appropriate, considering that the fruit was 'from the tree of knowledge'. Another potent metaphor is that of Faust who sells his soul to the devil in return for knowledge. Mythological but as often the case, these religious metaphors convey something profound about human existence. And I've often mused on the idea that the physicalism sees humans as 'advanced hominids' - it's almost an article of faith (pardon the irony). One of the consequences of popular Darwinism is the belief that we're no different from animals in essence - so why aspire to anything higher?
I have a more prosaic view, although we arrive at a similar conclusion. He says in his Medium synopsis
There is a solid historical basis to this claim (even if it sounds extremely polemical). This is that the Scientific Revolution split the world asunder - into objective/subjective, mind/matter, self/world. This was not a conscious choice nor the doings of any specific individual, although there are several individuals who crystallised these tendencies into the underlying paradigm of modernity (Descartes, Galileo and Locke, to name several). It's also central to the themes explored in John Vervaeke's lecture series Awakening to the Meaning Crisis (in particular, Episodes 20, 21, and 22.)
The upshot was that the Universe comes to be seen as matter acted upon by physical principles which is accorded the status of 'primary reality'. Purpose and meaning are then assigned to the mind, and mind is, through evolution, a product of or derivative from 'the blind watchmaker' (Dawkin's terminology). And, with Descartes, comes the view that 'mind' and 'matter' are of utterly different kinds, with mind being pictured as 'res cogitans' (thinking substance) - which I think is an incoherent picture (i.e. it doesn't hang together.)
It has never been universally accepted, and there are many cracks showing up in it, but that is the 'big picture' view of how the Universe came to be seen as the meaningless collocation of physical forces.
Bernardo Kastrup and James Glattfelder are two of those who are criticizing this picture. (Note that Glattfelder's book was published by Essentia which is Kastrup's publishing house.)
The mind/matter distinction was the keystone of "Neoplatonism", where matter is only to be seen as the extremity of mind informing what matter could be. The interest in opposing that view was not only to say it was the other way around.
By contrast, in Aristotelian philosophy, “matter” was only ever a potential something; outside of form, it had no intrinsic existence. Aristotle’s prima materia was a theoretical posit, not a substance you could pick up and throw. Galileo, however, shifted the emphasis: he insisted on the primacy of the measurable attributes of matter—those that could be captured mathematically. As John Vervaeke observes, matter now also possessed inertia, hence the modern concept of “inert matter.” So here the idea of inert matter, now devoid of intentionality and purpose, but conceived instead as passive, measurable, and defined in mathematical terms.
We have been down this road before regarding the "intrinsic existence" of matter in Aristotle. His speaking of matter as having "to be of a certain kind" has long complicated the discussion.
Your synopsis excludes that part.
Well, Aristotle puts a lot of emphasis on the being in front of you is what actually exists. We have different ideas about how that is possible, but the first thing is the encounter with such beings.
So, that is germane to the issue at hand.
(See Dan Brown’s new book,
‘The Secret of Secrets’
For a similar investigation)
The Occasions of Experience via Whitehead’s Great Poet/Programmer
Like drops of dew upon the morning grass,
Brief moments sparkle, then are quick to fade;
Each “occasion” born, fulfilled, surpassed—
From these small deaths, reality is made.
The universe—a vast mosaic laid
Of prehensions, feelings, pure events;
Each atom, thought, and star in grand parade
Becoming, perishing, in present tense.
No substance fixed beneath the world we sense,
But process flowing through eternal Now;
Each moment grasps the past with reverence,
Then adds its novel aim, and takes its bow.
The concrescence of all things that be—
Each drop contains the cosmos’ memory.
Each moment bears within its fleeting form
The echoed traces of what came before;
Subjective aim transforms the uniform
Into creation's never-ending score.
We are not things but poems being writ,
A string of moments dancing into one;
The many and the one forever knit—
A billion suns comprising just one sun.
[hide="Reveal"]The void of time fills up with occasions bright,
Each grasping, feeling, yearning into form;
The universe—a symphony of light
Where past and future meet in endless storm.
So Whitehead taught: reality’s not clay,
But living moments born and passed away.
The actual world—a tapestry unfurled
Of prehended moments, gathered whole;
Each subject weaves the threads of what has swirled
Into new patterns as the cosmos rolls.
No static substance underlying all,
But drops of experience, self-creating;
Each moment rises, answers to the call,
Then perishes, its being still vibrating.
The great philosopher's vision clear and bold:
Reality is not of things, but acts;
Each ‘now’ contains what every ‘then’ has told—
A living process, not just lifeless facts.
The past is not just gone, but flows within
Each nascent moment, ready to begin.
Beyond the veil of common sense’s reach,
Lies truth more fluid than our words contain;
Each entity, like waves upon the beach,
Is but a ripple in experience’s chain.
The Poet’s primordial vision guides
Each occasion toward its best becoming;
The lure of beauty where all truth resides—
Eternal objects, endlessly oncoming.
The universe is not a clockwork cold,
But living feeling, sentient at its core;
Each quantum flash of being, brave and bold,
Creates itself, then passes through death’s door.
So Whitehead saw beyond the ancient rift—
As moments bloom and die, existence shifts.
Each moment blooms, a pulse in Time’s great sea,
Not things, but acts—events that come to be.
From drop to drop the cosmos takes its shape,
A dance of mind and matter, wild and free.
No static stone, no idle, lifeless clod—
But process moves beneath the soil and sod.
Each flash of being, brief as morning dew,
Is real as stars, is kissed by thought not odd.
These “occasions” rise with feeling at their core,
They prehend the past, yet seek a little more.
Each grasps the world, then yields itself in turn,
A spark that fades, but opens up the door.
They form a web, these nodes of sentient flare,
The past flows in, the future stirs the air.
Reality’s not built of blocks and beams,
But woven through with feeling, time, and care.
The world’s not made, but making ever still,
With every act a push against the will.
No fate is fixed, no god is locked above—
Creation wakes in each occasion’s thrill.
So sip this cup—each moment brims with wine,
Distilled from all that was, in grand design.
A drop contains the cosmos in its fold,
And flickers out, yet calls the next to shine.
The world becomes, it never merely is,
A flux of feeling, not a world of fizz.
No atom sits alone in timeless gloom—
It feels, it yearns, it tells us what it does.
Each moment’s born from many come before,
It draws their echo, adds a little more.
Then perishes, a whisper in the dark—
Yet leaves a trace no future can ignore.
Subject becomes object, tossed in the stream,
Each plays its part within the larger scheme.
No soul stands still, no world remains the same—
All shift and shape as in a woven dream.
From Poet’s lure to matter’s smallest twitch,
Each moment leans toward depths we cannot pitch.
Reality’s a poem never done—
Penned not in stone, but in becoming’s witch.
Not being, but becoming—this we are,
More like a flame than like a fallen star.
We flicker, burn, and pass our light along—
Each life a note in Time’s unending bar.
So here we dance, occasion upon flame,
Each flicker formed with joy, regret, or shame.
Yet in the forming lies the sacred spark—
A fleeting self that bears eternal name.
The stars themselves are thoughts that came to be,
Each nova sings in process, not decree.
A galaxy’s a rhythm, not a rock—
It hums with ancient acts of poetry.
Each quark, each pulse, each curve of stellar flare,
Responds to past and feels the future’s air.
The cosmos is a mind that builds itself—
A scaffold strung with intuition’s care.
No vast machine with cold and mindless gears—
But swirls of yearning shaped by hope and fears.
A thousand billion hearts in every sphere,
All whispering their stories through the years.
The past is real, but not a prison cell,
Its echoes guide, but do not bind or quell.
Each moment holds the power to re-form
The curve of time, the place where starlight fell.
From primal flux to now, the arc has bent—
Not by command, but lure and deep intent.
A One who woos, not rules, the world to grow—
Each choice a note in Love’s great instrument.
So let the comet blaze and atoms spin,
Each dance of dust a tale that dwells within.
No void is empty—everywhere there burns
A silent hymn of process born in din.
Creation is not done—it is the song,
Each verse a shift, each rhyme both right and wrong.
We are the singers, listeners, and score—
The universe becoming all along.[/hide]
This was the emphasis I was thinking of, while not coming at it from a philosophical perspective. What we encounter, fully formed in our world is what is of primary importance and that is what we are evolved to interact with. We don’t necessarily need to look under the bonnet, to see/know what is important.
I was reaching the end & epilogue of Glattfelder's book on Postmodern Paranormal Phenomena, when I began reading Dan Brown's new novel. To my surprise, he introduced the Golem of Prague, based on Jewish folktales, as a central character. And a major theme of the book seems to be Paranormal ESP, as investigated by a Noetic scientist. The real-world Institute for Noetic Sciences was founded by former astronaut Edgar Mitchell, to study Parapsychology, among other "fringe theories".
In his 2017 book, Origins, Brown also dealt with topics on the "fringe" between Philosophy and Science. The Futurist Ed Kirsch made a "discovery" that was said to challenge both Science and Religion : "If there is a divine force behind this universe, it is laughing hysterically at the religions we've created in an attempt to define it". But maybe that "force" would be sympathetic with the childish efforts of its own god-emulating upright-apes --- "poems being writ" --- to make sense our ever-changing world of contrasts & contradictions : of Angels & Demons.
Although some aspects of Kirsch's (Brown's) philosophy may not agree with my own Information-centric worldview, I found it generally compatible. For example, Robert Langdon was asked if he believed in God. He replied : " . . . . for me, the question of God lies in understanding the difference between codes and patterns. . . . . Codes, by definition, must carry information. They must do more than simply form a pattern --- codes must transmit data and convey meaning." :smile:
PS___ Regarding ultimate Origins, a sign on Langdon's Harvard classroom says :
"[i]In my classroom, T > 0
For all inquiries where T = 0,
please visit the Religion Department.[/i]"
Wow! You're on the ball; it only came out about a week ago. Has much about consciousness coming in from the outside.
One contrast I keep in mind is how deeply structured we are by our ancestors. They made their choices and we make ours.
I don't hold that they have a special power over our fortunes or anything of that sort. But their life is vivid in the expression of character and disposition of particular individuals. That view does not mesh well with the vision of souls being their own thing but also conscripted to the "material" world.
Care to elaborate on that?
Yes, just read it again, it is good. I like the implicit suggestion that planets and stars are conscious beings and that each act has a deep creative potential. Along with the idea that each act is/can be informed by distant events.
I don't have to believe in animated-clay Golems or Paranormal Activity, or Parapsychology, in order to enjoy Dan Brown's fiction. I read fiction, in part, not to escape from reality, but merely to vicariously experience experiences that are different from our mundane existence. So, if I saw a clay-monster on the street, I'd assume it was a Comic-Con costume.
Likewise, I don't have to believe in Consciousness as signals from outside the skull in order to consider the philosophical implications of such a state of affairs. The Bible, that I was raised to believe was the word of God, has stories of people receiving divine messages from Angels, Demons, and Deities. But I now consider those stories to be fictional, not actual.
Therefore, while I have given some thought to the notion of brains functioning as radio receivers of messages from God, or from a sentient cosmos ; all I can say at this point is that I remain skeptical. However, I am working on an alternative explanation for the Hard Problem, based on non-fiction Energy & Information*1. For now, I do not accept the currently popular theory of Panpsychism, but I have my own theory of Enformationism, that some might consider equally fringey. :wink:
*1. How Does the Brain Create Mind? :
The Mind is an imaginary model of brain functions
Kastrup’s alternative to ancient Materialism & Panpsychism is similar to the equally antiquated worldview of Idealism¹?. His updated version of the all-is-mind concept is labeled Analytic Idealism, which some have renamed Cosmopsychism.
https://bothandblog8.enformationism.info/page14.html
In Plotinus, the soul animates matter as far as it can. The source is a power that can only go so far because matter is never completely mastered by form. The origin of that soul is from before our birth. Plotinus has also said he has visited that realm through contemplation.
I will leave off from distinguishing this view from Aristotle since years of our debates have become a circle. I will try contesting this view of "matter" with considerations from a modern thinker, Gregory Bateson.
Our ancestors show that our lives are built with components of past generations. We see that most readily through inherited characteristics in our relatives and ourselves in a mirror. Some very old material is moving through. One natural question is how does that element relate to an individual life. Bateson both ties oneself to the ancestors but separates them from our experience:
Quoting Bateson, Form, Substance, and Difference
Whatever opinion may have of this thinking, it is not "a view from nowhere."
That is perfectly in keeping with the ‘mind-created world’. Bateson is one of the sources of ‘enactivism’ and a major influence in The Embodied Mind, which comprehensively deconstructed ‘the view from nowhere’.
I recognize that influence. I submit that it is incompatible with the Gerson view of Platonism.
You seem to want to have both at the same time.
Sure, but that is not a topic of debate in this thread.
So, I should not connect all the things you have said as the continuity of your thought?
I suffer from institutional memory.
Just out of curiosity, what is the difference between a person's created world and a person's perceived world?
The world perceived by a mind has an external cause that may be of a different nature from the mind (classical dualism).
The mind-created world, as I understand the OP, has no external cause and is a monism where everything that exists has mental properties.
Not quite what it says. I don't claim that the mind is constitutive of objects in the way that wood is constitutive of boats or clay of pots. It is an epistemological arrgument.
I acnowledge that the word 'created' might be a poor choice of words in the context. I'm referring more to the role of the mind in constructing or synthesising what we take to be a completely independent and external world.
Was that controversial key-word a Freudian slip, or intentional challenge, to keep this thread going in circles for 70 pages? :wink:
Reality vs Ideality : Divine Creation vs Human Construct vs Cosmic Accident
Nicely put, (I’m not familiar with Plotinus), I would go further. There are a constellation of souls including some who instantiate matter from pre matter. But I would caution that these latter souls are very distant from our own, (“ Some very old material is moving through”, from your post).
Perhaps it is time we consider the role played by the distant past.
The search function on the site is pretty darn good at locating where this has been discussed in the past.
I will withhold from saying more about it in this thread.
Thanks for this, but I cannot see how this is particularly relevant to the arguments, rather than a good go-over of what was put forward as commentary.
The fact remains, Kant's system *does not work* unless there is an assumption that something causes our sensations. That is all I've claimed, and it is literally required to get the system off the ground. This is not an argument from anything particular. His system quite obviously requires it. Kant knew this - which is why his later work treats the noumenon differently*. Here, we can say that Kant understood noumena to be intelligible, but not knowable. He couldn't have begun his first page without this.
You, and others, are quite right that the focus in the CPR, and one of the two fundamental aspects of the noumena is simply a limiting concept for the human understanding. I've not argued against that, either. *But it is quite clear (to me) that by the time he published the Prolegomena, he almost said outright that these 'objects' must be presupposed:
"And we indeed, rightly considering objects of sense as mere appearances, confess thereby that they are based upon a thing in itself, though we know not this thing in its internal constitution, but only know its appearances, viz., the way in which our senses are affected by this unknown something. The understanding therefore, by assuming appearances, grants the existence of things in themselves also, and so far we may say, that the representation of such things as form the basis of phenomena … is not only admissible, but unavoidable.”
"We must therefore accept an immaterial being, a world of understanding, and a Supreme Being (all mere noumena), because in them only, as things in themselves, reason finds that completion and satisfaction, which it can never hope for in the derivation of appearances from their homogeneous grounds, and because these actually have reference to something distinct from them (and totally heterogeneous), as appearances always presuppose an object in itself, and therefore suggest its existence whether we can know more of it or not.”
There are several others of varying degrees of clarity (and from other works). But in any case, this shows a contrast to how he speaks in the CPR where he's essentially saying we are all necessarily agnostic, despite any other claims, as to noumena. We can't know. But later, he's saying we must pre-suppose them (despite, not being able to know them). This is how a shadow works, so is not conceptually controversial at all. For his moral systems, this is also required (with the same necessity - albeit, one which simply follows from concept-to-built-up-concept). The bolded passages are, for me, quite good enough to essentially say "No, thank you" to the objectors so far here.
I hope this clarifies what I'm talking about. It is an extremely discreet issue which, quite frankly, doesn't need much discussion. For my personal part (which is far more open to discussion) this was obviously to me from the first 30 pages or so of the CPR. There couldn't be anything further to talk about unless these objects are pre-supposed. His inability to admit this was the right thing to do in that book (though, i contend it was left open, not denied so this could be a weaker objection than I'm giving it anyway). His later ability to admit to this was the right thing to do in those circumstances.
I suggest I've responded to anything this underhanded post could be meaning underneath, above. Suffice to say this response shows me some pretty damn bad faith. Would you like me to send you a picture of me holding my copy which has obviously been read-to-death? Good lord.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
This doesn't touch the claim I've made, so I have to assume i did it clumsily. The above should clarify pretty well. Insofar as this can be treated, you've not adequately understood even what you've jsut said, it seems. Let me try to make that understandable:
"a person may misjudge what one is perceiving, and this does not imply that the person perceives nothing."
Yes. They are perceiving something. Things are objects. That fact we can't know what/which (and similar questions) doesn't change that part of the position. (and, as above, Kant knows this too).
Good. That's all I needed.
Yes. They are perceiving something.
Good. That's all I needed.
The thing perceived is not necessarily objects. The person may judge oneself to be perceiving objects, but if "objects" doesn't fulfill the criteria for what the person is actually perceiving, then that judgement is wrong. the person is mistaken, and is perceiving without perceiving objects.
I thought Kant had just explained that.
I'm just not very good at this. Wondering about any specifics.
Sorry, I was joking.
It’s difficult to work out what Kant has got to say about it.
I don't think Kant was ever saying that our experiences came only from our minds. The issue I see is how many of the properties we develop in our judgement of appearances can be applied to the things in themselves. Things in themselves are an inevitable outcome of our judgement. He says that in the quoted passage, adding that they are "problematic." The issue of "mind independence" as a cause does not come up for Kant. What Strawson and Allison were debating {in the link I provided} concerns:
Quoting CPR A36/B53
The "physical objects" we experience in our sensations and judgements are representations made possible through combinations of our intuitions of space and time. That space is consistently called the "outer" intuition and time the "inner" demonstrates that Kant was not disavowing a difference between the two. The correlation between what happens beyond our experience and the way we map the world as space would, of course, never work if it did not work. That points back to the repeatability factor central to Hume. What gets Strawson's knickers in a twist concern how time is excluded from what we can ascribe to whatever is beyond our experience.
Note in the quoted passage how Kant confines the issue to whether or not he or others "could intuit himself" by some other means. That does not make our judgements to be without a cause beyond our experience but forces us to include the absence of other "intuitions" into the set of our limitations.
"Required as an assumption" implies that the assumption is a necessary aspect. That is why the sensation is commonly called a representation. It is assumed to represent something.
Consider what Paine says:
Quoting Paine
If these representations are false, it may be the case that the person is not actually perceiving objects, despite believing oneself to be perceiving objects.
Quoting Patterner
I would say that the single most important criterion for "object" is temporal extension.
That error comes up a lot in Aristotle. Perhaps you could point out where that happens with Kant.
I don't quite understand what you are asking Paine.
Quoting Patterner
Any activity I suppose. At each moment it is new and different, therefore there is no temporal extension of any specific thing.
Yes, that is the subject of process philosophy. And, I think it's exactly what modern physics has determined to be the case. So I believe it is likely.
Can you give an example of an activity someone perceives and mistakes to be an object?
Anything perceived as an object, a book, a desk, a chair, might really be activity. Doesn't physics tell you that these supposed objects are just a bunch of activities?
Speaking of the distinction between a Created vs Constructed world, Dan Brown's new mystery/thriller, Secret of Secrets --- I'm almost to the halfway point --- hinges on the competition between Materialistic and Noetic worldviews.
The noetic scientist is publishing a non-fiction non-popular book, asserting that Consciousness is not "created" by the brain, but is a signal received from some external Mind Field. Hence the physical "real" world is actually a model constructed from bits of data transmitted from the noumenal World Mind, and beamed into the brain. For some as-yet-unstated reason, the evildoers seem existentially threatened by an abstruse philosophical theory.
Or, at least that's my personal construct from superficial knowledge of Noetic theory. How does the notion of brain-as-reciever-instead-of-sender fit with the creator/creation topic of this thread? If you think it's off-topic, I may start a new thread. Or you can, if you are more familiar with Noetics. :smile:
Errors of perception, like the one you describe, are a common theme in Aristotle. Dysfunctions caused by illness or old age are brought up in De Anima. Imagination is described at DA 428b in distinction to other kinds of false appearances.
Deciding what is a mistake in Kant is more difficult. We don't have the object of representation in hand to compare with another supposed object in the unexperienced bush.
That's why I was talking about the possibility of mistake. Instead of insisting that there must be real independent objects, because we perceive objects, as Amadeus seemed to be doing, we ought to accept the possibility of mistake.
Kant is right to emphasize that appearances are always appearances of something. But he does not press the consequences of this observation. It sets up a close relationship between appearance and reality and undermines the idea that appearances are entities that exist independently of what they are appearances of. It even suggests to me the somewhat surprising possibility that appearances are, or at least can be, what reveal reality to us, rather than concealing it.
Quoting Paine
"Difficult" is a very mild description for this situation. It suggests that you think that "representation" is not really an inappropriate concept to apply here. But you also (seem to) accept that there is no real evidence for such an object "in the unexperienced bush". So I'm rather puzzled what to make of this.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
It's hard to disagree with that. But if we accept that possibility, should we not, by the same token, accept the possibility that there is no mistake. We could then ask which of those possibilities is actually the case. Or even question the framing of the question.
Quoting AmadeusD
That makes a lot of sense. But you seem to me to be giving with one hand and taking back with the other.
You describe these objects as "actual, physical objects beyond the senses". But since we cannot, apparently, go beyond the senses, these objects turn out to be unavailable to us, which places them beyond our reach. Kant realizes this and so adopts the concept of the object-in-itself or being-in-itself. These concepts are hard to grasp. On the one hand, we know that they exist. On the other hand, we know, and can know, nothing whatever about them. Given that existence is not a predicate, this "knowledge" doesn't seem to amount to very much.
What all this even harder to understand is that physics appears (!) to have provided us with a view of the world that describes objects-beyond-appearances as radically different from what appears to us, on the evidence of what appears to us.
When you say that actual physical objects are an assumption or presupposition, you seem to leave open the possibility that that assumption is wrong - or at least that a different assumption or pre-supposition may also result in a not incoherent alternative conceptual structure. Compare what happens when you abandon the parallel postulate in geometry. We need something a bit stronger than this.
I think the issue is the nature of "representation", and the different types of mistakes which are possible.
Suppose that we consider words as an example of a representation. Mistake could consist of two principal types, mistake in producing (choosing} the representation, and mistake of interpretation. Each assumes a form of consistency whereby inconsistency would constitute mistake.
Mistakes of interpretation are maybe easier to determine, but some, such as those caused by ambiguity, are not so easy because they require an understanding of the intent behind the act of producing or choosing the representation. Other mistakes of inconsistency in interpretation are easier to determine.
Mistakes in producing or choosing the symbol to be used as a representation are more difficult to determine because that requires an analysis of the context, and the intent, to determine whether principles of consistency are being followed.
I figure a representation happens when what is given through sensible intuition becomes an object one can have knowledge about:
Quoting CPR, B138
The intuitions are given sensations without which there would be no objects. The things-in-themselves are the result of our activity of thinking about objects. They are not representations of what is beyond experience. They do reflect the given aspect of objects. In that sense, they point to a cause that AmadeusD is calling for. But I cannot refer to the noumena as a cause even if we speculate about it:
Quoting ibid. B148
Reading on from here through B159, these limits upon representing things beyond experience are shown to apply to experiences of ourselves:
Quoting ibid. B159
That's quite a tall order. But still, if they can all be determined as mistakes, it follows that there must be a truth of the matter, beyond appearances.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
That tells me a lot about what you mean by "representation". You don't mean that the representation is similar to or resembles or looks like its object. So now I need to know what kind of relationship you think there is between the representation and what it is a representation of.
Quoting Paine
Do you mean what I would call an experience? Something that one might be "directly" aware of? Are you gesturing at a "raw" (uninterpreted) experience? I don't see how anything like that could become a table or a chair. I do think that Kant's point about appearances apply also to experiences - they are always experiences of something; it seems obvious that the object of an experience cannot be the experience, but also experiences cannot also be objects of experience. This is really quite bewilderning.
I'm sorry, but the quotations don't help me.
Kant's terminology is intimidating. I think the way Kant speaks in the Preface to the Second Edition is a good outline to his intentions and what he means by experience, intuition, and cognition:
Quoting CPR, Bxvi
The text is linked through the citation. The footnote to this passage speaks of being "imitated from the method of those who study nature." Observe how most of the other footnotes in the Preface make similar parallels.
I don't think so. First, i didn't say anything about how mistake would be determined, only that we ought to believe it is possible. Then, when we look at the primary feature of determining mistakes, mistake is commonly a matter of not producing the desired result. This doesn't imply truth or lack of truth.
Quoting Ludwig V
I think there is a relationship of mastery, like a tool masters the circumstances it is applied to, to produce the desired end. The representation (symbol) is a tool, the living being uses it, and this tool assists the being in survival, as well as making use of its environment toward its ends, and perhaps some other things, dependent on intention.
In general, that's right. It depends on the project. But sometimes the aim of the project is truth, so in those cases mistake does imply the (possibility of) truth.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
H'm. But it is odd to say that the tool masters the circumstances. I always thought it was the user who mastered the circumstances by using the tool. But isn't there a case for describing the tool as adjusted to or fitting in with the relevant circumstances. A carpenter's saw is good for cutting wood. For metal, you need a hacksaw. Hammers for nails (appropriate in some circumstances). Screwdrivers or spanners in others. Certainly, the enterprise is to adjust circumstances in certain ways; but one needs to recognize what can be changed and what can't.
Quoting Paine
That is much more helpful. At least, I seem to be able to get my head round the argument. I wasn't much impressed by the analogy with Copernicus, however. Yet it is an ingenious thought. Maybe there is some sort of parallel. On this reading, my doubts focus on his "a priori" and especially the requirement that the a priori tells us something about the objects in the world. However, I'm delighted to learn that there are objects in the world and that we can know something about them. Some wires may have got crossed between here and the belief that we only know phenomena (are phenomena objects in the world, I wonder) and we cannot know anything (much) about objects or being in "themselves" (unless objects (being) in themselves are not objects in the world.
I believe Kant thought he had uncrossed those wires when he refuted both Descartes and Berkeley with a single blow:
Quoting CPR, B275
That supports the statement at B159 that we can know things in the world better than we can know ourselves.
The need for the a priori is to explain why we are built that way. The need becomes necessary by the "altered method of our way of thinking." Otherwise:
Quoting CPR, Bxvi
The analogy with Copernicus is to demonstrate how mutually exclusive the two standpoints are.
How some of us went from this location to reading "things-in-themselves" as "mind independent" is a long and winding road through perilous terrain. Time for lunch.
Perhaps, but I think it is the tool, as the means to the end, which actually overcomes the circumstances. It is more proper to say that the means is what brings success rather than the will. If it was just the will, you could will yourself to success. Instead, success is highly dependent on the tool employed.
Quoting Ludwig V
Of course. I recognized this type of mistake when I said in the earlier post, "Mistakes in producing or choosing the symbol to be used as a representation". That would be a mistake of trying to use the wrong tool. We were talking about the different types of mistakes which are possible, and whether each type could be recognized.
We don't know anything of objects or phenomena in general a priori—in terms of what commonalities we can know about all objects without actually consulting particular objects in real time, we must reflect on their general characteristics as perceived. That is we must reflect on prior experience of phenomena in order to see what they all have in common.
Kant agrees with that in the first section of the Introduction to the Second Edition, titled:
On the difference between pure and empirical cognition. Experience is prior in time to knowledge but the possibility for experience is prior as a condition.
Quoting CPR, B2
In the Preface, objects of experience are either made present to us through an intuition that has to
"conform to the constitution of the objects" or by means of our processes of reason.
I'm afraid this makes no sense to me. I don't see how any cognition can be "absolutely independent of all experience". Can it be explained?
As a matter of textual interpretation, it is clear that reason is being closely tied to the limits of empirical knowledge. That our judgement is, to some extent, a result of our nature established before our particular experiences is not, by itself, an observation given through experience. Kant calls that part thinking about what occurs "independent of all experience."
So, it is not a claim to a noetic hinterland but a parallel to Aristotle trying to understand the relationship between potential and actual beings.
You mean that we are not born blank slates is not something we can know via our experience of ourselves? Can we not know via observations, both our own and via accessing the records of the observations of others, e.g., via ethology and anthropology, that we and other animals are not born as blank slates?
Also, referring to having a pre-cognitive nature as being a purely mental attribute seems tendentious. Physiological investigations seem to show that what is given pre-cognitively via the senses is processed by the body pre-cognitively, and only ends up being conscious experience on account of processes of which we have no awareness or knowledge in vivo. The understanding we do have of such things would seem to be all a posteriori.
You are putting a lot of theories in my mouth. I am not trying to defend what Kant said but clarify what I heard he was saying. Neither was I trying to defend what Aristotle said.
I am guessing that Kant introducing a new standpoint is neither here nor there from your standpoint.
I didn't mean to suggest you were defending Kant. Perhaps I should have been more careful with the wording.
I think Kant did introduce a new standpoint, and I also think doing that is always worthwhile in moving ideas along. Kant's standpoint seems to me to be superceded today.
The proof that is demanded must therefore establish that we have experience and not merely imagination of outer things, which cannot be accomplished unless one can prove that even our inner experience, undoubted by Descartes, is possible only under the presupposition of outer experience.
I'm very much in sympathy with the sentiment. But Kant was right not to mention Berkeley here. He does distinguish between those experiences which have a cause that is not myself and those that are caused by myself. His criterion is that the latter are less "vivid" than the former.
If intuition has to conform to the constitution of the objects, then I do not see how we can know anything of them a priori.
On my understanding of a priori, we don't know anything about how the world is before we experience it. The clue is in the label - the a priori is what we know before experience. But if it is just a metaphor, we need to be a bit careful in interpreting int. It's hard to see how we could know anything about the objects of experience before experience. On the other hand, mathematics and logic could be seen as telling us about what objects are possible in experience.
I'm fascinated by the phrase "conforms to the constitution of objects"? It's another metaphor. Does it mean "is true of.." or perhaps "applies to.."? Am I wrong to be reminded of the picture theory of meaning, or perhaps of W's idea that language describes the world because it is structured (logically speaking) in the same way as the world.
Quoting Paine
Yes, I get that. I suppose it's not an unreasonable idea. But it doesn't explain the metaphors that riddle his language.
Quoting Paine
Yes, indeed. I hope lunch was good.
Quoting Janus
Yes. Does that fit with the standard analytic view of the a priori? I think not. Yet there is something important here, I suspect.
Quoting Paine
I don't think you can separate experience from knowledge in that way, unless you think you can catch the wild goose of raw experience.
Quoting Paine
Are there two roads to the same destination or different roads to different destinations?
The bolded passage is the slide from something I understand to something I don't. Our experiences of objects are not the objects (dare I say "themselves"). Yet I can see a point here. What we know of objects must be based on how they appear to us. I part from Kant where he says that all we can know is the experiences/appearances. They themselves show us what reality is and that reality is not limited to what appears, what we experience.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I think that this is glass half-full/glass half-empty. I'm very much inclined to represent human beings as iinter-acting with the world, rather than mastering it. The latter version reminds me too much of the Biblical idea that we dominate the world. In some ways, that seems true, especially these days. But climate change reminds us that we don't.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I don't know whether a complete catalogue of possible mistakes is possible. Perhaps it is.
I think it is definitely not possible, that's why we categorize by types, to extend our comprehension of what is possible as much as we think is possible. So we start with the most general "mistake is possible", and we assume this catalogues every possible mistake. Then we divide into different types of mistakes, but we realize that some may complete escape our categories. But if that is the case, then it means that we don't completely understand what "mistake" means. And if we look back at the initial category "mistake" and the proposition "mistake is possible", we can see that there may be some mistakes which escape our judgement of "mistake". There may be some mistakes which we never would know as mistakes. Then we have to admit that "mistake is possible" doesn't capture all the possible mistakes. And that's just the nature of what a mistake is, something which eludes judgement.
OK. It's just that it seems to me that there are always endless ways to screw things up, but very few to get things just right. Though some mistakes may be small enough to be unimportant.
Berkeley is, in fact, mentioned by name at the beginning of the Refutation of Idealism:
Quoting CPR B274
Kant figures his refutation of both is one stop shopping if he can prove the Theorem:
Quoting B275
One question is how far outside of myself have I gotten if it is my intuition of space and time that allows for the possibility for the experience. To argue on behalf of Kant, I think that question gives the Copernicus analogy a job. It is to say you cannot jump back and forth between standpoints. The conditions for objectivity in one cannot be used as grounds in the other. Kant's position reverses the imagery of Copernicus. He is the one standing still while the objects revolve around him. He describes the problem of switching back and forth between views as a misunderstanding of specificity:
Quoting CPR A379
I do think that these issues relate to Wittgenstein, especially his different discussions of solipsism. But I have chores to do. I have to paint a very specific appearance. Maybe later.
Essentially, I agree with you and those final couple of lines sit very well with me. This speaks to the dual aspect I've been vying with. Obviously, "noumena" is a limiting factor for human reason and in the CPR this is essentially all he does with it (though, I have provided some titilating indications otherwise). But logically, and in terms of his description of his system, it requires something beyond the understanding. "Something" to me speaks "object". I don't care what form that comes in. Denying that these "objects" obtain precludes the entire system from doing anything for us.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I can't grasp what the purpose of this response is. From what I gather, this agrees with my quoted reply.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
In the context which we are, this is not a possible situation unless idealism proper (or solipsism i guess). At any rate, it isn't in the system Kant describes.
Quoting Ludwig V
I did exactly the opposite:
Quoting AmadeusD
Quoting Ludwig V
That's true in some sense - except that I accept this, and remove 'physical' "Some object" is good enough for me. Quoting Ludwig V
Bang on.
I did exactly the opposite:
I misunderstood you. I'm sorry.
Yes, I knew that he explicitly criticised Berkeley somewhere. Thanks for the reference.
Quoting Paine
I'm not sure, but I think the correct answer starts from the fact that space and time are infinite. But it seems absurd to say that I have (actually) got infinitely far outside myself just because I have a mathematical function in my head that is infinite.
Quoting CPR B274
I'm pretty sure that Berkeley would not recognize this critique. As I remember it, he argues (rightly. as it turns out) that space is relative, not absolute. He does claim that space is not absolute, but that doesn't mean that he claims that space is impossible. Since he doesn't have a concept of things-in-themselves, it seems a bit of a straw man to space can't be a property (??) of them. It would seem, however, that Kant thinks that space is absolute. How does that square with his idea that space is an intuition? Thinking about this, it seems that Kant's (and Berkeley's) conception of space seems to be that it is something that exists as a vessel or a medium in which objects have their existence. I don't see that. The existence of objects in space and space itself are not two separate discoveries. Each depends on the other, conceptually speaking.
Quoting B275
Well, yes. Except that the distinction between me and objects outside me requires that both are established in the same argument. I don't see how one could establish my own existence first and then establish the existence of objects in space outside me. Now we have to go back to the cogito and its implications.
Quoting CPR A379
Quoting CPR A379
The way he expresses this thought is - a bit awkward, because he seems to allow us to formulate our questions and then ask us not to press them. But once a question is asked, it is necessary to respond, either with an answer or an explanation why the question is illegitimate. Sadly, experience does in fact pose questions to us that invite us to push at the boundaries. My favourite example here is the discovery of pulsars. This happened because a radio signal received by a radio telescope in Cambridge (UK) that in some ways was entirely unremarkable could not be explained, until an entirely new kind of astronomical object - the pulsar - was posited and then proved (by experience with some help from mathematical calculations) to be the explanation. Kant's limit seems arbitrary.
Quoting CPR A379
This isn't psychology as we now know it, is it? Still, that's not important. I have say, I was pondering whether one could argue that appearances exist and therefore are real in their way and consequently things-in-themselves. It seems I've been headed off. But I still need to ask how appearances can be appearances of things-in-themselves and things-in-themselves be completely unknown.
I'm grateful for your patience with me. I may be raising objections all the time, but I am learning as well.
I should not have used a spatial metaphor while discussing space. I meant to say that taking intuition of space and time as a process of my perception raises the question of how "objective" it is. That ties into Kant's beef with Berkeley who treats space as an experienced phenomenon. Kant argues that it is, rather, an a priori condition for sensibility:
Quoting Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics, page 374, or page 69 in the linked document
This view of intuition is at odds with your statement:
Quoting Ludwig V
The "objects in space" appear to us through the function of the intuition. What makes the experience possible is what makes it a priori. The possibility for experience is not experienced. That is why it is said to be "beyond experience." This is the language Janus was objecting to upthread.
Quoting CPR, B2
In the Prolegomena quote above, this corresponds to:
I, too, am learning from this discussion.
I will try to respond to some other of your comments but need to get back to painting a specific appearance.
I saw that, and the first thing that came to my mind was, to say the same thing….I’ll have to think about it.
Probably not what you meant, but, considering the currently discussed author and his original Prussian linguistic tendencies, I might be forgiven.
The things-in-themselves are, by definition, what is not experienced. The appearances do not represent the things-in-themselves ala Aristotle. We investigate the appearances without knowing how they are made or how we came to know them. That is expressed as an unknown ground:
Quoting CPR A379
The various stances taken by the psychologists and the spiritualists in the passage would try to give an account of what objects are in general but do not get us closer to the unknown ground. As the Prolegomena passage emphasizes:
Quoting Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics, page 374, or page 69 in the linked document
While this statement is challenging to understand next to those about what is "beyond experience." It does not involve the questioning of experience as related in your pulsar example.
I started using the phrase from reading:
Quoting CPR A379
That gives me confidence that the door I am painting today is the same one I was painting yesterday.
But I like your interpretation. That I might be starting to pun in a Prussian manner is food for thought.
Years ago, I found it much more advantageous to shy away from the A edition. Read it for context, but not study it for comprehension. I mean…there’s a reason the Good Professor made changes, so I just figured it best to go with what he himself thought as better.
Sidebar: the “a” in “….specifically a wholly distinct appearances…”, is a translator’s (not author’s) footnote indicator belonging to “specifically”; it isn’t the indefinite article of grammar spellchecker wants it to be.
I think it potentially very confusing to think of “I” as an appearance, as mentioned in A379, however specifically distinct it may be, especially if one has already understood the transcendental aesthetic in which appearance is only that empirically/physically/materially real thing from which sensation follows necessarily. One would naturally surmise that “I” is certainly no real thing therefore should not have been considered as an appearance at all.
But an appearance to the senses is that by which they are affected. To be consistent, then, regarding appearance, if I am an appearance it must be that I am an affect on myself, which, of course, is that very specific distinction he meant to convey in the text but only makes perfectly clear in a bottom-of-the-page asterisk.
Still, I’m sure you’re aware, all that is revised in the B edition, 157, where “that as I appear to myself” reduces to “only the consciousness (…) that I am”, which releases appearance as previously given in the Aesthetic, from the intuition which is proposed as necessarily following from it. And, which is kinda cool, by doing that he tacitly supports Descartes’ sum while not being quite so supportive of the “problematic” idealism explicit in the cogito ergo… part. Also, he belays the whole existence thing, relegating it to a category where it belongs, rather than connecting to the “I”, which is only a transcendental thought to which existence proper does not belong.
(I am)….not because I think, but because the (consciousness of thinking) represents that I am. Or something like that…. “synthetic original unity of apperception”, is what he’s trying to establish to modify or amend or basically replace the whole original cogito idea.
If you haven’t already, scroll all the way to the end of the text you’re referencing, to the translator’s comments, by text page-grouping, to see that Kant had trouble with this whole thing….getting what he wanted to say across to his readers. And if he had that much trouble with getting it out to us, it’s not hard to image how much trouble we have taking it in.
Or…it’s just me and I’ve completely missed the mark. (Sigh)
Space and time are big issues in philosophy, and I'm not an expert. But I do agree that we do not experience space as a phenomenon. I wouldn't say that it is a condition for sensibility, but rather a principle of interpretation of the phenomena.
I'm afraid, though, that I simply have no grasp of what he means by saying that it is an intuition. Is it something like a brute fact?
My other problem is how we can conceive of space without objects in it, when we cannot conceive of what I call objects without their spatial dimensions and position in relation to each other. The mathematical representation of space - as a graph with three axes and an origin seems to separate space from what it contains, but I think that is an illusion. The graph has no meaning except as a way of locating objects.
I realize that a priori means before experience, but what does the metaphor mean here? (I realize that it is a deeply embedded metaphor that has become a regular way of speaking. But I detect an ambiguity here, whether before means a stage in a process or a position in a structure, supporting or enabling experience. My metaphor for understanding the a priori is framework vs content, setting up the rules of a game vs playing the game. I think that that Kant thinks that the a priori tells us something about how the world is - about possible worlds.
Quoting Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics, page 374, or page 69 in the linked document
My word. That is a surprise. He sounds like a radical 20th century analytic philosopher.
Quoting Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics, page 374, or page 69 in the linked document
This just defeats me. Perhaps you can paraphrase it for me?
".... space ..... can be known by us, because .... ... and makes all intuition of the same (i.e. all perception and experience) ....possible."
Well, yes, with reservations.
Does "space .... and all its determinations a priori," mean Geometry?
What does "(sc. space)inheres in our sensibility as a pure form before all perception" mean?
"... experience, according to Berkeley, can have no criteria of truth, because its phenomena (according to him) have nothing a priori at their foundation"
"...space and time .... prescribe their law to all possible experience a priori, and at the same time afford the certain criterion for distinguishing truth from illusion therein."
That's roughly the definition of the a priori, using a metaphor, which I think clouds his meaning. The kind of law that is a prescription defines the possibility of breaking it. But if the a priori defines possibility, there is no possibility of breaking it.
I would need some argument to accept that space and time are the criterion for distinguishing truth and illusion. I would have thought that non-contradiction and identity would be essential - or is that what he means by the "pure conceptions of the understanding."?
Quoting Paine
That's all right, then.
Quoting Paine
I see from later comments that you are painting a door. That's a hard task, because a vertical surface promotes drips. I was, however, rather surprised. I always thought that the only way you could paint an appearance was by painting a picture.
Quite right about the 'a' being a footnote and not an indefinite pronoun. One of the hazards of copying and pasting text here. I try to clean those up as a rule. With Kant, it is like herding cats.
Your points about how the use of appearance became more strictly expressed through later works is well taken. Thank you for connecting the A379 language to that of B157. The corresponding pages of the Editors Notes are 739 and 727. For others following the linked edition. It is from those notes that I remembered the passage from Prolegomena above.
I have been reading what is said in A379 through the lens of the Refutation of Idealism given in the B edition. I was thinking that the specificity is still focused upon the difference between what is given through inner and outer intuitions when the Theorem states:
Quoting B275
That also, as you said:
Quoting Mww
I will have to mull over whether the Theorem is "not so supportive" or a thumb in the eye to the other part. I have been leaning toward the latter.
One element in both the A and B editions that is fairly consistent is the term 'transcendental object.' It is used 28 times in the text (according to my find-in- page function). The meaning as the "unknown ground" for both the inner and outer seems to be preserved at each passage.
I will continue to think about the role of the "I am" that you illuminate.
Before trying to respond to that, it would help to know which thinkers you are well versed in. Kant was using the language of his contemporaries. I know some things about them and their differences but studied Ancient Greek philosophy before and more rigorously than turning to Kant's time. I am still a stranger in a strange land.
All the thinkers Kant responded to had different ways of framing what is intuition, phenomena, ideas, logic, and categories. They were arguing within a set of parameters. The problems we have looking in from outside is that we cannot share that set without problems of translation.
With that said, where are you coming from?
I'm fairly typical of people educated in the 20th century English-speaking philosophical tradition. But with an emphasis on ordinary language philosophy and Wittgenstein (especially the later Wittgenstein) and Locke, Berkeley and Hume, so very sceptical of analytic philosophy. Some Ancient Greek Philosophy, but mostly early to middle period Plato and Aristotle's ethics. Some continental philosophy, especially existentialism. I was not active philosophically from 2000 to 2020 so considerably out of date.
Quoting Paine
I'm not surprised. There's always a delicate balance to be struck there.
Thank you for the report. I will work on painting a picture.
Here's a question I would like to put to you.
I found the following in SEP - Kant
That makes a lot of sense to me, and would resolve many of the objections that I've been raising. What, if anything, do you think of it?
The writer of the article is assuming that things-in-themselves are present whether we experience them or not. That is not what Kant says in the quote given in the preceding section:
When the writer says in section 3,
experience is taken to be a matter of contact with either one or the other kind of object. The narrowness of that reading is what I argued against in my comment to you here. There is a ground where the inner and outer are thought to be in one world, but it is not presented as only things outside of us. The writer is unknowingly presenting a two-object interpretation: Objects in the world and our representations of them.
The writer continues the misunderstanding in 3.1. What is being called a "two object interpretation" by the "so-called Göttingen review by Christian Garve" is what Kant vehemently denounced in the Prolegomena passage I quoted previously
namely as appearance or as thing in itself…”
(Bxxvii)
In other words, the Critique does teach the twofold aspect, but not of the object. It is the two-fold aspect of the human intellectual system as laid out in transcendental philosophy. It is by means of that system that an object is treated as an appearance in accordance with sensibility on the one hand, or, an object is treated as a ding an sich on the other, in accordance with pure speculative reason.
All that is perceived must exist, but it does not follow that only the perceived exists. Because it is absurd to claim only the perceived exists, insofar as subsequent discoveries become impossible, we are entitled to ask….for that thing eventually perceived, in what state was that thing before it was perceived?
Why? To defeat Berkeley’s “esse est percipi”, as prescribed by that “dogmatic” idealism predicated on subjective conditions alone.
I believe the briefest explanation provided by Kant on the role of intuition as a possibility for experience is where he distinguishes intuition from thinking. In the section titled: [u]On the original-synthetic unity of
apperception[/u] (at B132). The terms used there are related to one another and thus given definition.
At B137, the term object is introduced:
Quoting CPR B137
It is in the context of this unity where the dual aspect referred to by comes in to play. The passage continues to show how space is not just a concept:
Quoting ibid. B138 underlined emphasis mine
Yes, we know, or can discover, what manner of existence things have for us. We can also ask what manner of existence they could have for other percipients or absent any percipients at all—but about that question we can only assess what seems most plausible given our understanding of our own experience.
Can’t argue with any of that. Except that absent any percipients thing; you seem alright with it, so I’ll leave it be. I know what you mean.
That points to the structure of the Critique establishing limits as starting places before building upon them to introduce new thinking. For instance, the conditions described at B132 to B138 are observed but qualified by B165 or the Result of this deduction of the concepts of the understanding:
Quoting CPR B165 to B167 underlined emphasis mine
The reference to epigenesis separates this view from Descartes and Berkeley who only offered versions of the real as reductions to a single ground for experience.
I'm sorry I've taken so long to reply. Off-line life, which we choose to call real, intervened. I need to take more time to work through what you have posted. So, for the moment, a thought about something else.
Quoting CPR, Bxvi
My puzzlement about what "conform" means continues. It occurred to me that taking into account what Kant may have been reacting to might be illuminated by looking again at Aristotle. (It is possible that he actually had Aristotle in mind, but I'm not historian enough even to suggest that.)
SEP - Aristotle's Theory of Mind
If I remember right, Aristotle thinks that our minds cannot have any inherent form, because that would prevent it being able to grasp any external object that had the same or similar form. So Kant's Copernican move makes sense. Possibly. But I think the comparison helps.
Quoting Mww
This seems very plausible to me. But since it is a question of how the object is treated, I wonder what ground there is for talking of two different kinds of object. Put the question this way, what determines whether a given object is treated in accordance with sensibility or in accordance with pure speculative reason. Or is it like the difference between smells and sounds, where the difference is guaranteed by the nature of the "intuition"?
Quoting Janus
I'm not at all sure that the latter alternative will stand up to Berkeley's "master argument". (He concludes too much in his conclusion that the tree doesn't fall unless someone perceives it. The tree falls and if some one had been there, they would have perceived it.)
All good, except….
Quoting Paine
….I think “observed” is out-of-place here. The listed pagination concerns the analytic of logical functions, not the aesthetic of empirical givens.
I have the feeling you appreciate the precision in recounting the text, with the same precision with which it was written, and meant to be understood.
But, as with , I know what you mean.
————-
Quoting Ludwig V
A given object is always treated in accordance with both sensibility and reason. What determines that such should be the case, is nothing but this particular version of speculative metaphysics.
An object in general, or a merely possible object, without regard to any particular one, constructed by the understanding hence that object not given to the senses but still related to possible experience, is called an empirical conception and is treated a priori by pure theoretical reason. For example, justice, beauty, geometric figures, deities, and the like.
That object without any empirical content whatsoever, and no possibility of it hence entirely unrelated to possible experience, both constructed and treated by pure speculative reason, and is called a transcendental object or idea. For example, the categories, mathematical principles, inferential syllogisms, and the like.
These are not proper objects, of course, not existent things, but merely indicate a position in a synthesis of representations in which they are contained. Rather than being objects as such, they are objects of that to which they stand in relation. Object of Nature is an appearance, object of intuition is a phenomenon; object of understanding is a conception; object of reason is an idea. Explanatory parsimony, if you will.
That’s what I get out of it, anyway. Loosely speaking.
Correction noted. Explanatory parsimony rules the day. I may use that tight wad in other shops.
It may be a loose way of speaking, but it make sense to me. Thanks. Very helpful.
I will pursue my Buddha nature by not commenting on the SEP article.
The receptivity of perception in Aristotle can be seen as a parallel to that of the intuition of sensibility. But where Kant directly rebukes Aristotle is over his use of logic at A268/B324. The disparaging remark occurs in the section titled: On the amphiboly of the concepts of reflection through the confusion of the empirical use of the understanding with the transcendental at A 260/B316. This topic concerns your question:
Quoting Ludwig V
Kant demonstrates how the categories and grounds are different for the two. The sources for the difference has already been established by previous deduction. The "conformity to objects" of Bxvi is the issue at the quote provided previously:
Quoting CPR B165 to B167 underlined emphasis mine
The confusion Kant works to undo in the amphiboly is achieved by defeating Leibniz and Locke with one sweeping roundhouse kick:
Quoting CPR A270/B326
If you continue reading to B344, the object of the Preface has been put in its transcendental place:
*Paine checks his pockets to see if he still has enough left over to buy lunch*
That is enough to tell me what I need to know.
Quoting Paine
I don't read that as critical of Aristotle, so much as critical of "schoolteachers and orators". I was also very impressed that Kant (seems to) retain some concept of form and matter. How he reconciles that with the new science I cannot imagine.
Quoting Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics, page 374, or page 69 in the linked document
I can understand the a priori as about the possibilities of experience, and then it makes sense that the senses are about actual experience. But now I don't understand why he says this. I suppose that pure understanding/reason is not the same as the mixed understanding of possible experiences. But then it seems odd to me that he seems to think I must grasp all the possibilities before I can grasp any actual experiences. Surely understanding some possibilities would be enough.
I'm bit preoccupied with his concept of the a priori. I thought I might find it helpful to look at what other contemporary philosophers have had to say about it. I did some research in SEP. I didn't find it mentioned in the articles on other major eighteenth century philosophers. There's a precursor in Locke, (distinction between demonstrative and probable reasoning) taken up by Hume; Leibniz is quoted as saying "An idea is true when its notion is possible and false when it includes a contradiction"; Spinoza seems to have been very pre-occupied with necessity. I don't suppose you know where something like our idea of it first occurs?
Quoting CPR A270/B326
Yes. I guess his great contribution was to break the empiricist/rationalist dilemma by showing that both are necessary. Which should have been obvious all along.
I greatly appreciate all the work you are doing with me. But as I get deeper, I find it harder to keep a grip on any one topic. (You may have noticed that my replies are getting slower and slower.) Yet obviously it is a system and one really needs to understand the whole thing. But I think I need to take a break for now. No doubt I'll return to him at some point in the future.
For the moment, I'm going to read the Prolegomena and the Refutation of Idealism. If I can get my head around those texts, I'll have learnt a lot.
The term comes from Aristotle. a priori is Latin for what comes earlier or first. a posteriori is what comes later or behind. The Greek words are ???????? (proteron) and ??????? (husteron).
What is primary is what is sought throughout Aristotle. In Metaphysics he says:
I am not a Kant scholar who knows all the places Kant mentions Aristotle but his intellectual milieu in Konigsberg is said to have been steeped in the tradition. Kant's terms can be said to move across the background of their Aristotelian versions.
There is a book I plan to read concerning this topic: Kant and Aristotle: Epistemology, Logic, and Method By Marco Sgarbi
I need to get more chores off the honey do list first.
Of course it is. It's clearly a precursor. I'm not sure it's exactly our idea or Kant's idea. That quotation doesn't mention experience, which I think is the key idea for us.
Quoting Paine
I didn't know that. It isn't a surprise, though.
Quoting Paine
I know that list. But I've not heard it called that before.
I am surprised by your lack of surprise. The shared use of terms by the two authors is clearly evident in comparisons of their texts. That includes the term 'experience', that invokes what is called empria by Aristotle which led to the word "empirical."
It's based on my interpretation of references in Berkeley and Hume to "the academics" or "the schools" or "schoolmen". Aristotelianism as such is usually though to be over by 1700. That doesn't mean that nobody studied either Plato or Aristotle after 1700, and Aristotelianism was a major opposition to the new science and Enlightenment.
Pedantic note. The Greek for "experience" is "empeiria". Probably just a typo.
Afterthought - Aristotelianism died out by 1700. Berkeley would have been a young man (student) at that time, Hume would have been students less than 50 years later. There were likely Aristotelians still living then.
Yes, a typo.
It is off topic to this OP, but I often wonder about self-identified schools of thought and the range of vocabulary shared amongst different views represented through them. I won't try to talk about that in this thread.
Yes, the vocabulary must be really important. People usually identify schools by their shared doctrines, but actually, I think it is just as much about their disagreements. That's what the shared vocabulary enables. There's also the social dimension.
:up: :up:
https://news.harvard.edu/gazette/story/newsplus/new-way-to-map-the-unique-brain-organization-of-individuals/
@wonderer1 @Patterner @Wayfarer
The mind can only be what it actually is. What is 'appears like' isn't anything. It does things. Whether there's a dualist element or not, that's the case. It isn't a 'thing' to be misinterpreted as best I can tell. You can't be deceived about what you mind. Just what it's giving you.
What's the point of this post? I thought AI posts are banned from TPF.
They create their world - meaning, they enact or bring forth a meaningful environment through their embodied activity. That is a fundamental point of enactivism, 'a theory of cognition that emphasizes the dynamic interaction between an organism and its environment, positing that cognition arises from the organism's actions, not just from internal brain processes. It posits that the mind is not separate from the body but is fundamentally constituted by the brain, body, and environment interacting in dynamic ways, a concept known as the "embodied mind". Instead of passively representing the world, enactivism argues that organisms actively "enact" their world through their sensorimotor activity and that their subjective experience is shaped by these embodied actions.' (definition.)
The linked version of the essay on which the OP is based also mentions the 'lebenswelt' concept derived from phenomenology. Lebenswelt means life-world: the world as it is lived, experienced, and made meaningful by embodied, language-using beings like ourselves. Meaning is not a layer added on top of a neutral, value-free physical world, nor do words function by “corresponding” piece-by-piece to ready-made objects. Rather, meaning arises within the whole fabric of practices, situations, skills, expectations, and shared forms of life that constitute our lived world.
A word has meaning not because it mirrors a thing, but because it plays a role in this life-world — in the ways we perceive, act, communicate, and make sense of what matters to us. That’s why Husserl, and later Wittgenstein and Merleau-Ponty, insist that understanding is rooted in our participation in the life-world, not in some point-for-point mapping between language and “objects out there.”
So, surely there are cat worlds and bunny worlds. This does not mean there are multiple separate physical universes, but that each kind of organism inhabits a differently structured field of significance (also known as a 'salience landscape'), determined by its embodied capacities. But 'if a lion could speak, we wouldn't understand him' (Wittgenstein) and we'll never know what it's like to be a bat (Nagel.)
Sorry. My response appears above. The world I create is lopsided.
It could also be noted that the derivation of 'world' is from the old Dutch 'werold' meaning 'age or time of man.'
And "universe" is derived from the Latin "universum" meaning the entirety of existing things, which would include the world.
I think you're overfond of using words implying that intent is present (e.g. "create" "enact") without any reason to do so. You need not respond.
If "intent" is defined by purpose, then all living things act with intent, because they clearly act with purpose. So I don't see why you have a problem with "create", which simply means to cause the existence of. Do bees create their hives? Do birds create their nests? Do human beings create their world? Why not?
Although I will grant that 'create' carries connotations that are perhaps a bit too strong. 'Mind constructed world' would be nearer the real intent, but it doesn't have the same ring to it.
So, each of us cause the world to exist? I suppose it would be more accurate to say that each of us causes a world to exist, though, as each of us has a mind, each mind therefore causing its own world.
I don't think anyone claims we physically cause the world to exist, building it as bees build a hive and birds build a nest, but perhaps I'm wrong,
as Wayfarer seems to think we (I don't distinguish between myself and my mind) construct the world, or each of us causes a world of our own.
Perhaps I'm wrong, but I've been under the impression that the characteristics or capacities of our minds under discussion are those that operate or obtain regardless of any intent on our part to use them. For example, to the extent my mind is involved in seeing or hearing, I normally don't will myself to see or hear. I just see or hear. Sometimes I look for something, or try to hear what someone is saying, and in those cases I may be said to intend to see or hear though I think it would sound odd, but I hear and see things without intending to do so merely by being alive. I can't help but do so.
I interact with the rest of the world and experience it merely by being a living human being, but I don't think it's correct to say that I intend to do that when I don't. Similarly, I don't think it's correct to say that I create something merely by being alive.
If you read the OP you will see it says no such thing.
‘Let me address an obvious objection. ‘Surely “the world” is what is there all along, what is there anyway, regardless of whether you perceive it or not! Science has shown that h. sapiens only evolved in the last hundred thousand years or so, and we know Planet Earth is billions of years older than that! So how can you say that the mind ‘‘creates the world”’?’
Well, you could say that, but in general, we each produce a world which we assume is shared with others, and that produces an illusion of objectivity. So the world i produce, like the world you produce, is a shared world. Through this illusion we each call our own world, "the world" and think of it in this way. Then we sometimes argue about what is the fact, or the truth about certain things within "the world", each believing that my world is the world, even though we disagree, and it would be necessary to resolve the disagreement to support this assumption of 'the world".
Quoting Ciceronianus
"Physicality" is part of that world which you produce, and also part of the world which I produce. You and I both have a different idea as to what "physicality" is, so it's one of those things which we might argue about, and need to resolve if we want to support the assumption of "the world". That disagreement, and argumentation is common at TPF.
With respect to making homes, we each do what we can to make ourselves comfortable in our own individual little worlds. Often, we assist each other in this effort, but sometimes, I making myself comfortable interferes with you making yourself comfortable. This interaction produces, and reinforces the illusion that we share a world which is "the world". However, the fact that we must interact with language and communication, extensively, before we can even get a very minimal understanding of how the possibilities of this supposed "world" appear to the other person, indicates that "the world" really is an illusion.
Quoting Ciceronianus
Intent is actually built into all those capacities, as they are all directed for various purposes. Your ability to "will" is just one of these capacities, purposely directed by intent. So intent underlies the will, and willing is one type of intentional act. But intent, as purpose, extends far beyond willing. This is evident in all your intentional acts which do not require willing, habitual movements, etc..
Quoting Ciceronianus
You have, inherent within you, intent, just by being alive. This is not something you willed to have happen. It just comes along with being alive as part of the package. You could put an end to this with suicide, but otherwise you cannot will your intent to go away. As it is impossible to not act at all, the best you might do to release yourself from intent, would be to try to act in a completely random way. But even that would be intentional So when you say that you can see and hear things without intending to, this is a self-deceptive illusion you create for yourself, by restricting "intention" to a conscious act of willing, and not allowing that there is intention, purpose, behind all your subconscious acts as well.
Quoting Ciceronianus
The subconscious, unconscious, is a vast part of your living existence, which your conscious mind does not access. Since your conscious mind does not access it, your conscious mind does not know how intent is active in this vast part of your existence. Intent enters into your conscious mind, and you experience it as such, just like you experience all your sensations, so why not assign to it just as much reality as you do to your sensations? You assume that there is "a world" external to you, which is responsible for causing your sensations, so why not assume an internal world which is responsible for causing your experience of intention?
It is very correct to say that you create something just from being alive. That is why you need food and oxygen. Even at the most basic physical level, the cells are always dividing, creating new cells. So it's very clear, and correct, to say that being alive is to create, as the latter is the necessary condition of the former.
For the record, I don't assume there's a world "external" to me. I'm part of the world, like everything else. I'm not sure what you mean by an "internal world." It wouldn't be surprising if you assume there's one though. It seems you think worlds abound. You have a rococo conception of reality, or realities.
But regardless, I think you define and use "intend" and other words in ways I think are so beyond ordinary use I don't think further discussion would benefit either of us.
OK. But I think when we claim each of us create or construct the world, and cats and bunnies do so as well, the world tends to multiply.
When we speak of a cat’s world or a bunny’s world, we’re not multiplying worlds in any real sense. We’re pointing to the fact that every organism lives in its own Lebenswelt—a lived world structured by its own embodied capacities, needs, and modes of attention. That’s exactly the point enactivism makes: worldhood is always enacted from within a perspective and can never be surveyed from outside.
So the worry about “many worlds” arises only when we tacitly assume an external vantage point ‘outside’ our actual perspective from which to count them—yet that vantage point is itself just another construction in the human life-world. It’s that taken-for-granted constructive activity that the OP is about.
This doesn't change anything. It's just more evidence that your world is not the same as my world. Therefore it's more proof that "the world" is actually a false conception. No matter how much the belief that there is just one world, is a shared belief, it's contrary to reality, as demonstrated by what you wrote here.
Quoting Ciceronianus
To properly study philosophy, it is of the utmost importance that we do not adhere to "ordinary use" for our definitions. Ordinary use is so full of ambiguity that attempts to apply logic would be fruitless.
In fact, I think we agree on several things discussed here. But I'm uncomfortable with your terminology in some cases, and concerned about what I think are inferences which I believe are unsubstantiated.
I think ambiguity and misconceptions arise when ordinary language is misused in philosophy, myself.
I don't see how ordinary language could be misused, because the nature of "ordinary language" is that there are no regulations to distinguish between use and misuse. That's why deception is common with ordinary use. Philosophers strive to exclude such misuse, and that's what separates philosophical use of language from ordinary use of language.
Yes. That's why I'm very keen on enactivism.. The dominance of "internal brain processes" is the result of the "theoretical stance". Enactivism needs to locate that as a derivative or specialized way of thinking that depends on ordinary, active, life.
Quoting Wayfarer
It's not just that. It's that it doesn't address the fundamental point that we are "thrown", as they say, into a world. It is what we are lumbered with, what we have to learn about before we can act coherently. There are no fresh starts.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
The strange magic of evolutionary theory is that it creates a sense of purpose, of intent, that does not depend on any conscious activity. Whether, and how far, that coincides with un- or sub-conscious activity, I couldn't say. But I don't think that it makes philosophical sense to say that an unconscious purpose is just like a conscious purpose, but unconscious. It needs a bit more explaining than that.
Quoting Ciceronianus
I think that "Lebenswelt" does have some sense to it. But it is odd to say that each living thing creates its own. It would be better to say that each living thing has an associated lebenswelt which arises as a result of its existence. What is more difficult to understand is "the world" etc.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I don't think it is necessarily wrong to develop variant uses of ordinary concepts for philosophical purposes. But it would be a mistake to think that philosophy can just sail off on its own, losing contact with the ordinary world and ordinary language. Ordinary language, because it is the first language we learn, is the inescapable bedrock of everything else.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Why can't our individual worlds all share in the public world?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
That doesn't mean there are no rules. It just means that the rules can be misused and misinterpreted. Some of these misinterpretations become new, or extended, uses. Others are ignored or suppressed because they are not accepted (taken up) by the ultimate arbiters of correct and incorrect - the community of users.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Yes. We can't take the whole of ordinary language for what it is and do philosophy. We have to use it somewhat differently. But we need to link back to ordinary language (or experience) or world, or philosophy becomes a pointless exercise.
I'm reminded of this, from Schopenhauer (I don't know if he was aware of evolutionary theory):
This expands the "sense of [unconscious] purpose, of intent" into the moral sphere as well, as so many contemporary exponents of evolutionary explanations do.
Yes. Dual intent/purpose is certainly at work. So is manipulation of our desires. Life's quite bleak from the evolutionary point of view.
What evolutionary theory provides in relation to intent, in my opinion, is a better understanding of how intent underlies all living beings, and how conscious intention is just one specific manifestation of that more general purpose (intention) which underlies all life.
Quoting Ludwig V
Sure, a bit more explaining would be useful, but it's really not difficult to understand through the use of a few examples. It is very common for the more specific to be a type of the more general. So for example, the human being is a type of animal. Likewise, walking is a type of activity. In the same way, we can understand that consciously willed acts demonstrate a specific type of intentionality. In reference to the examples now, walking is a consciously willed act which is a specific type of intentional activity, whereas growing is a type of intentional activity which is far more general. And, the human being is a type of animal which we know has a far more developed capacity for consciously willed acts, in a very specific way, in comparison to the more general intentionality of other animals.
Quoting Ludwig V
This is exactly what I disagree with, seeing things in the opposite way as this. I believe that philosophy forms the bedrock usage, and ordinary language sails off, losing contact with the philosophical roots. This can be understood historically. Ancient philosophy established the conventional meaning of many common words in modern society. Those with ruling power, the Church for example, historically enforced rules of language usage and this created a class distinction between the illiterate and the literate. The Church took its rules of language use very seriously, as is evidenced by The Inquisition. Eventually though, the human will for freedom of speech and expression overcame this, allowing language to fly off in all sorts of different directions. However, it's not difficult to see how strict enforcement of basic grammar is the only way to provide a foundation for higher education.
Quoting Ludwig V
This is a good question, commonly asked because "the public world" is often taken for granted. Because of that presumption, what is taken for granted, the answer is most often not well understood.
The answer itself, is that we do not have acceptable ontological principles required to support the reality of a united, shared, "public world". We must start with the individual mind as the most immediate, and this often leads to some form of idealism. However, we do have very good reason to accept the minds of others, as well as the medium between us, which separates my mind from your mind.
The problem though, is with the assumption of unity, required to create "the public world". Yours and my minds are separate, allowing us each to have private thoughts, so there is necessarily a medium which separates us. But these are terms of separation, not terms of unity. So until we can show that the medium which appears to separates you and I, in actuality unites you and I, we do not have the ontological principles required to support the reality of a united, shared, "public world".
This is the ancient problem of the One and the Many. Our inclination is to take "the One" for granted, as the united whole, the universe. But empirical evidence demonstrates to us that "the Many" is what is real.
Quoting Ludwig V
The nature of "ordinary language" is that the users are free to decide which rules to follow, or whether even to follow any rules. This freedom leaves any rules as ineffective, effectively not "rules". Imagine if the speed limit signs on the highways were just there to inform people what speed someone, somewhere, thought people might like to drive at, but had no power of enforcement, allowing that people would drive whatever speed they wanted anyway. We couldn't call these signs "the rules", because "the rules" implies principles which people are obliged to follow.
Quoting Ludwig V
This is very ambiguous. These words "language", "experience", and "world" have very different meaning. And, the scope of all three together is very wide. However, the three together do not cover everything, so that implies that we could still do meaningful philosophy without referring to any one of the three. The philosophy might refer to "mind", or "concepts", "objects", and many other similar things, making it very meaningful without reference to the things you mentioned.
I suppose some might find it a kind of comfort -- the idea that we can't help doing what our biology (or unconscious, if you prefer) insists on. But this is so manifestly untrue that I've never really understood the appeal.
I don't quite see this. By "obliged," do you mean "forced"? Not many sets of rules come with their own enforcement. Or, if it's merely a matter of "Either follow them or face the consequences," then this applies equally well to ordinary language, which exacts stern consequences for the non-followers. In this, they're no different from road signs.
I don't see that there are any "stern consequences" in the case of ordinary language. It's just like in my example of the speed signs, where there is no stern consequences for driving fast. People use language any way they please, and unless they go beyond the boundaries of hate speech, or something like that, there are no stern consequences at all for stepping outside the norm. In fact, many even get rewarded as trendsetters or "influencers".
I'm reminded of a powerful quote I read in novelist John Fowles ('The Magus') excursion into philosophy, The Aristos. I read that book in my 20's and have never looked at it since, but it contains a compendium of quotes from Heraclitus, one of which was:
Interpretation: Awake = awake to the Logos, the shared reality, the unity-in-difference of nature.
Sleeping = enclosed in private illusion, a subjective world made of projections and habits.
It is a classical 'axial age' declaration that might easily have been found in the Upani?ads or the early Buddhist texts.
But is is nothing like 'scientific objectivity', even though that is arguably descended from it. It is more thorough-going, pertaining to the entire life of the individual, not simply to the exercise of rational powers in respect of a specific scientific question.
So the reason our individual worlds do not automatically converge on the public world is that our ordinary state is one of confinement within a narrow, self-referential viewpoint (described in phenomenology as the egological or natural state). Awakening, for Heraclitus, means breaking out of that confinement and aligning oneself with the deeper order that is common to all (although in his case, that consisted of severe asceticism and seclusion from society.)
The probability of that is extremely low. The vast majority of people speeding would have no consequences. And even if not speeding, one could still die in a crash. So that is really not relevant.
Quoting J
But people do it all the time, and some, instead of being ostracized, become trendsetters and influencers.
Quoting J
No, the point is that there is not any rules which we must follow, and no real punishment if we do not follow the rules which are there.
Quoting J
Right, in the case of language, you can still use it freely without following rules. By the passport analogy, you can still play the game, even without the passport.
"intentional" in some sense, I suppose. I would prefer "purposive". It's a process of developing a functional mechanism and the process is set up by DNA (roughly) and includes control mechanisms. But it's very different from purposive activities at a conscious, everyday level. Our growth processes are not controlled by the conscious being that is being created. That would be impossible.
Quoting J
Yes and no. We can't help eating and drinking in a sense, but there is a huge super-structure of activity at the conscious level. The basic biology is realized - catered for - in many very different ways, depending on the environment, cultural and physical. (It's very hard, to impossible to separate the biology from it's superstructure.)
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I don't see how that's possible. We don't learn philosophy on its own. We have to learn ordinary language first. The same applies to very many, if not all, specialized languages. To put it another way, we expect everybody to speak ordinary language, because that's what we all use all day. Could a child learn physics first and ordinary language afterwards? I think not.
I think there's a specialized use of "foundation" here, which is part of the way that we think theoretically. So there are questions about the foundations of mathematics or logic that are quite different wha similar question mean in the context of house-building or institution-founding.
My point here is that "foundation" sometimes means "beginnings" and sometimes means something that one can only really understand when one has already understood what is "built" on the foundation.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
If there is a medium that separates us, it also, at the same time, unites us. It's just a change in perspective. London and Edinburgh are separated by a bit more than 300 miles. At the same time, they are joined by those miles.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
I guess you mean by "obliged" that there are penalties if inflicted on you if you do not follow them. If you kick the ball when you are off-side, the referee will impose a penalty. But sometimes, there are just consequences when you do not follow them. If you break the rules of chess in a formal game, there will be a penalty. If you break the rules in an informal game, there are no penalties, except the consequence that you are not playing chess. Your opponent may or may not be pleased by your action, and that reaction could be regarded as a penalty.
But you have a point. There are no formal rules in ordinary language. The so-called rules of language are, perhaps more like habits. I do agree that they are certainly not particularly like conventions, in the sense that there is no agreement to use words in particular ways and we follow them without being able to articulate them.
But it is useful to think of language as a set of rules - grammar. This is a process of articulation and codification after the event. One use is to teach the language to new users who already speak a language. It is a hard road, and is usually supplemented by the informal learning that children rely on. Another is that it allows us to develop the idea of logic and so to improve our thinking and calculating ability.
Quoting J
Yes. If I say "Julius Caesar is a prime number", the penalty is that I haven't said anything. But sometimes, when people break the rules, we find an interpretation that makes sense. "Trieste is no Vienna" is, strictly speaking, meaningless, but in fact we can make sense of it. Sometimes, a look can speak volumes, though normally you can't say anything by looking.
Or, as I suggested to @Metaphysician Undercover, if you continue to say such things you may well be institutionalized.
Quoting Ludwig V
Sure. The evolutionary thesis isn't usually applied to the stuff that's biologically obligatory, like breathing or digesting. There, it's just taken for granted that we have no choice, as organisms. It becomes inadequate when applied to most of the rest of our behavior. Our status as Homo sapiens gives us certain drives, certain tendencies to behave, but they rarely -- or so I hope -- determine my behavior unthinkingly. Schopenhauer and Nietzsche were making what I regard as polemical points, in opposition to the rationalizing tendency of the philosophy that was current. I find it difficult to think they really believed it, about themselves.
Yes, of course that's true. I intended to high-light the point that "penalties" might or might not overlap with consequences and that although they might be different in some respects, they are also the same, or likely to have the same effect on the relevant behaviour - to discourage it.
Quoting J
Yes. Actually, it occurs to me that the biologically obligatory activities are in a somewhat different category from the evolutionary purposes. The former serve the interests of the individual. Evolution serves the interest of the species.
Quoting J
I've always thought there is a big rhetorical element in much of what they say. But I've never heard anyone else suggest it. It makes sense to me.
I look at this perspective as very problematic. "Purpose" is usually defined by "intention", and "intention" is defined by "a goal", or "aim". This implies that "intention" is the broader term because some goals or aims may actually be without real purpose, but acting purposefully always implies a goal. It appears like you want to make "purposive" the broader term, and have two types of purposiveness, one of which does not involve intention. But this makes that second type of purposiveness unintelligible.
You propose a type of purposiveness which is not set toward any goal or aim. It's just a "functional mechanism", a "control mechanism", which does what it does, without any further goal, or aim.
But this is completely contrary to what evolutionary theory demonstrates to us. Evolutionary theory shows us that these mechanisms do have a goal or aim. Some have survival of the organism as their aim, and some have reproduction as their aim. Therefore it is contrary to evolutionary theory to remove intention from these mechanisms. They clearly act with a goal, or aim, and therefore are intentional.
Furthermore, your proposal is contrary to the spirit of evolutionary theory, which strives to show how the various parts and activities of the different living beings are all connected at a fundamental level. But you propose a division of separation between "purposiveness" at the conscious level, and "purposiveness" at the level of the DNA. And this drives a wedge of unintelligibility between these two, within an individual living being. So within myself, for example, I have purposiveness within my DNA, and also a completely separate and unrelated purposiveness within my conscious activities. How is that reasonable in any sense, to drive such a wedge and produce a dualism of purposiveness within an individual being? This is why I say that this proposed division of purposiveness would leave one type as unintelligible. Unless one is understood as an extension, or subtype of the other, then the one is left as aimless and unintelligible.
Quoting Ludwig V
I don't see why this is difficult for you. You do understand that there is a separation between the act of teaching and the act of learning, do you not? When people learn to talk, they learn by copying, they do not learn by definition. However, those who teach do so on principle. So the teaching may be based in philosophy, while the learning is not. The children do not necessarily "learn philosophy" even if philosophy is the reason for the specifics of what is being taught. That is why philosophy is prior, it guides the teaching, while the learning is based in the activities of the free will. What is learned is "ordinary language", what is taught is principled speaking (philosophy). Therefore ordinary language is based in a foundation of philosophy as the guiding principles, what you call rules, even though the learner may refuse the rules.
Quoting Ludwig V
I explained to you the principles of separation. You are claiming that the principles of separation also serve as unification. That is what I insisted, is unjustified. Obviously, "300 miles" refers to a spatial separation between two distinct and separate places. Please explain how you conceive of "300 miles" as a union between these two.
Quoting Ludwig V
This may be useful for some purposes. But in philosophy when we want to understand the true nature of something, what is conventional for other purposes might mislead the philosopher. That is what I think is happening here. This idea, which is useful for some other purposes, is misleading you in your philosophy.
I don't think you're getting the point J. Most likely, you could keep on saying this, and never get "institutionalized". And, people very often get institutionalized for other things. Therefore there is no necessary relationship between saying things like that, and the punishment you propose. There really is no "stern consequences" for common misuse of language.
I've been away for a time.
By way of explaining how we differ, I wonder if you can elaborate on how you think the capacities of our mind you've referred to in our past exchanges came to be if not through our interaction with the rest 9f the world?
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
To me, they look stern. Not to you. That's OK. We're both just speculating.
I see that misuse often produces rewards, like in the examples I mentioned, of trendsetters and influencers.
There's a misunderstanding here. Our digestion has the function of extracting nutrients from food and disposing of the waste. That is the goal or aim of the system, isn't it? Our balance organ controls our actions so that we don't fall over. That is it's goal or aim.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Yes I am suggesting exactly that. Evolutionary purposes are an extension of the paradigm of conscious purpose. I hate to complicate things even more, but I am also suggesting that the purposes of our physiology are not evolutionary, but are about establishing and maintain our bodies. That's also an extension of conscious purposes. This in the context of unconscious purposes, which was raised earlier.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
"conventions...might mislead the philosopher" tells me that sometimes it doesn't. So it makes a good starting-point.
I don't see that I'm being misled by the idea of language games.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
So what is learned is not what is taught? I think, however, that you are forgetting that many people, perhaps most people, do not learn language by being taught. They learn it from interacting with their environment. Actually teaching language is a different kind of exercise.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
H'm. How on earth did people get on before philosophy was invented? Not that I deny that philosophy of language is useful. I just don't see that it is useful in the way you suppose.
Quoting Metaphysician Undercover
Not quite. "300 miles" is a distance which can be regarded as a measure of the space that separates them, or a measure of the space that unites them - they are both in the same state, though not in the same country. Separation and unity are two sides of the same coin.
Right, therefore intention is implied. Is that difficult to understand?
Quoting Ludwig V
I would make the opposite conclusion, The conscious mind, along with the purposes which it determines, are an extension of the underlying, unconscious intention. The latter being more fundamental, therefore the base, or foundation for the former.
Quoting Ludwig V
How does "maybe right, maybe wrong" make a good starting point? Wouldn't it be better to find something more sound as a starting point?
Quoting Ludwig V
What's the issue here? "What is learned is not what is taught", is completely consistent with "many people ... do not learn language by being taught". Why do you think I am forgetting the latter? I even said that people learn language by copying. That's implied when I say learning is guided by the free will, not the teacher.
Quoting Ludwig V
I suppose, what is implied is that philosophy is prior to language. Is that difficult for you as well? Art appears to be prior to language, so why not philosophy as well?
Quoting Ludwig V
You have not explained how "space" unites, and you seem to be having difficulty understanding the problem. Take your example, "two sides of the same coin". We could measure the thickness of the coin, and say for example X mms of coin separate the two sides. The distance here is the measurement of an object, and we say that the two named thigs, "the sides" are both parts of the same thing. In this way, we have a distance which unites, by saying that the two are parts of the same thing, "the coin", and what is measured is "the coin".
In the case of measuring the distance between two cities, we have two distinct things, and a measurement of "space" between them. To make this similar to "the coin" we need to assume substance between the two, which unites them as one object. We could say for example, that the two cities are both a part of the same "country", and what we are measuring between the two cities is "the country", rather than "the space". Then we have a principle of unity, like "the coin", it is "the country", and it is not accurate to say that we are measuring "the space" between the two, we are measuring "the country" which lies between the two, just like we measure "the coin" which lies between the two sides.
This brings us squarely to the issue of the op. Suppose the two cities are in different countries. Then we might say that what we are measuring between them is "the world". Now we have assumed a principle of unity, "the world", and we are measuring the distance between different parts of "the world". Notice "the world" is just an assumption, a principle we take for granted, which provides us with unity. But "the world" is supported by "the earth" as a real object in this case. "The universe" is also a principle which serves that purpose when we extend ourselves beyond our own planet. However, if what we measure between the parts of the universe is assumed to be "space", then we assume that the parts are distinct objects, and we forfeit the principle of unity. In this way we invalidate the principle of unity, and "the universe", as well as "the world" are no longer supported ontologically.
I suggest, that this is what relativity theory does for us, it invalidates "the world", and "the universe" replacing it with a law, a principle, that states that the laws of physics will be consistent in every inertial frame. The problem is that this law is not true, as spatial expansion demonstrates. So what we are left with is a false proposition, "law", which support "the world", and "the universe". That's very clear evidence that "the world' is just a mental construct.
How comforting it must be to think the world is only a mental construct, and how blithe you must feel when you hear of those who claim to suffer in it!
Perhaps, by denying the reality of the unity which is the prerequisite presupposition for "the world", I allow that there is a very real separation between me and others who are suffering. I can also separate myself from all the wrong doers. At least i am afforded some comfort that way.
[s]And I'll be away until Monday next (I've responded to this comment due to monitoring the discussion.)[/s] :chin:
The interaction is not something I deny. Look at the paragraph under the heading All in the Mind?
The physicist who argues that there are no objective laws of physics
article pdf | Daniele Oriti on Google Scholar
For me, all we are, all we do, all we know, is derived from our interactivity with the rest of the world. I suspect there's a lot we don't know about the universe, though, and that interaction may include aspects of which we're not yet aware.
From the passage above your post - why do you think the speaker says "It (physics) is screaming at us that observers really matter"? What is the point do you think he's making?
I think the point he's making, if I understand it, is an error because he treats the "observer" as separate from the "observed." Certainly we matter, because we're part of the same world. So, there are no laws of nature or physics separate from us but that's because we're not separate from nature--but that doesn't mean we make the laws. Make any sense?
You speak a lot of sense.
I would add that there are likely things we are not aware of about ourselves which are with us at all times rather like the way we see our shadow cast by a light. Or even that we are the shadow cast by that we don’t know.
Quite right! But this is one of the major points of contention that quantum physics threw up. Albert Einstein, for one, never accepted the questioning of this separation which for him was an absolute presupposition of science. That was behind his legendary remark 'does the moon continue to exist when nobody is looking?' I think the rhetorical import was 'Of course it does!" But he had to raise the question because it is what the findings of Neils Bohr and Werner Heisenberg seemed to call into question. Sir Roger Penrose, to this day, loudly and often declares that quantum physics must be wrong, on just those grounds.
I may be making myself misunderstood. The error I mean is to treat the "observer" as in a separate world from the "observed." They're not one and the same, though.
No doubt about that. But one needs more than that to refute the opposition, which will repeat its mantra "Give me evidence" - and of course that requires looking and not looking at the same time. So the standing of that response is not just that of a straightforward assertion. The interpretation of the language here needs to be laid out in a different dimension.
He argued that quantum mechanics (specifically the Copenhagen interpretation associated with Bohr and Heisenberg) was an incomplete theory because its mathematical description (the wavefunction) does not account for these definite, pre-existing properties of individual systems. Bohr, the chief architect of the Copenhagen interpretation, argued that quantum mechanical elements do not possess definite properties until a measurement is made. The act of observation, through interaction with a classical measuring device, is what forces a quantum system to acquire a definite state (the "collapse" of the wavefunction). Einstein believed that a complete theory must provide a description of reality that is objective and local. That was behind the Einstein-Podolsky-Rosen (EPR) thought experiment (1935), where he used the concept of entanglement to argue that particles must have definite, pre-existing properties before measurement, or else quantum mechanics violated the principle of locality. As is well-known, experimental evidence after Einstein's death did confirm that quantum mechanics violated the principle of locality, the subject of the 2022 Nobel Prize.
It is a mistake to separate the observer from the observed. The nature of an experiment is that we do something to the world, in a precisely designed way, and we observe how the world responds. Understanding the design, and the procedure, is just as important as observing the effects.
Yes, quite so. Two my eyes, this debate looks like a microcosm for idealism vs realism. But with a difference, that in some sense it is for real. But then I ask myself How is that possible unless reality and our ideas are really in conflict? We have come up with some new ideas - wavicles, entanglement, etc - and no doubt more will be required.
Quoting Ciceronianus
It's quite simple really. From one point of view, the teams on the field are separate entities; from another, they are a unity - together, they are a fight, or a match. (From a third point of view, each team is made up of 11 individuals.) Each pair of shoes is a unity of two individual shoes. I don't see a problem here.
The problem, I think, comes when we ask which of these points of view (if any) reflect how the world really is. Is there any way to make the case that some points of view are ontologically privileged? -- that is, that they describe the world more accurately than their competitors?
Take a weather map, a geological map and a road map of the same territory. They are not competitors, and they describe different aspects of the world. The question of which is the most accurate doesn't apply. They are all about truth, but not about the same truth. The question which is the best map depends on the context - what you are doing, what your interests are.
Some puzzle pictures can be taken in more than one way. Again, those questions don't arise - the interpretations are not in competition with each other.
The territory and the picture are such that they can be represented in more than one way. That's the reality. There's no way to make a choice.
On the other hand, I'm not at all sure that the "interpretations" model applies to this debate. Some form of realism seems to me much more satisfying than anti-realism or idealism. The latter seems to be make far too much of our limitations and failing to recognize that our senses and our language are very powerful tools.
That's a new one to me.
Yes. This invites a couple of responses:
First, are some truths more "natural" or "about the world" than others? It is true, for instance, that several stars, when grouped together, make a constellation. But that is so because of something we humans do. It is not actually a feature of the natural world (using a common sense of what is natural).
Second, how far can this be pushed? See Ted Sider's ideas about "objective structure." His "grue" and "bleen" people divide up the visual world in a bizarre way, yet everything they say about it is true. Sider argues, and I agree, that nonetheless they are missing something important about how the world really is.
Quoting Janus
Interesting point. In general, I think scientific realism had better include some truths about the role of consciousness -- it would be drastically incomplete otherwise. But what are these truths? Stay tuned . . .
I’ve been studying Michel Bitbol on philosophy of science, and he sees many of these disputes as arising from a shared presupposition: treating mind and matter as if they were two substances, one of which must be ontologically fundamental. In that sense, dualists and physicalists often share two assumptions—first, that consciousness is either a thing or a property of a thing; and second, that physical systems exist in their own right, independently of how they appear to us.
On Bitbol’s reading, quantum theory supports neither position. It doesn’t establish the ontological primacy of consciousness conceived as a substance—but it also undermines the idea of self-subsisting physical “things” with inherent identity and persistence. What it destabilises is the very framework in which “mind” and “matter” appear as separable ontological kinds in the first place.
Because both dualism and materialism tacitly treat consciousness as something—a thing among other things—while also presuming that physical systems exist independently of observation, the observer problem then appears as a paradox. The realist question becomes: what are these objects really in themselves, prior to or apart from any observation?
This line of thought aligns closely with what has humorously been called Bitbol’s “Kantum physics”—a deliberate play on words marking the Kantian dimension of quantum theory. Just as Kant argued that we know only phenomena structured by our cognitive faculties, Bitbol argues that quantum mechanics describes the structure of possible experience under the conditions of measurement. It is less a picture of an observer-independent world than a framework specifying how observations arise from our experimental engagement with it.
See The Roles Ascribed to Conscousness in Quantum Physics (.pdf) He's also done a set of interviews with Robert Lawrence Kuhn recently.
This is a real problem. I don't know the answer and perhaps there isn't one - or not just one. In this case, we should compare constellations with another case. I suggest the solar system as being an actual feature of the world. ("natural" just makes additional complexity). These cases could also usefully be compared with the sun. My first instinct is to say that the solar system is maintained by a collection of what we call "laws of nature". The sun falls into the class of concepts of objects (medium-sized dry goods is not particularly helpful in this case, but indicates what I have in mind).
Quoting J
I agree with you. My first stab at identifying what is missing is that this notion of truth is very thin. It is neither use nor ornament. It consequently doesn't have a future in our everyday language. I don't rule out the possibility of concepts like these finding a use somewhere some day. On the other hand, I'm a bit doubtful whether "how the world really is" is a useful or usable criterion for what we are trying to talk about.
I had a look at the article you linked to. It's very promising, so I've saved it. The concluding paragraph has a lot going for it.
The first task is to clarify the sense of "fundamental" in this context.
We certainly a conception of mind vs matter that not only distinguishes them, but shows their interdependence - co-existence in the same world. The concept of categories was supposed to do this, but it seems to me to posit them as separate without explaining their unity.
Quoting Wayfarer
That's the beginning of a diagnosis of the problem. But it doesn't help much in trying to resolve it. Your realist question doesn't help either. Trying to describe objects "in themselves" apart from any observation is like trying to pick up a pen without touching it.
I would be interested in that.
It's the familiar problem of trying to find terminology that isn't hopelessly vague and/or controversial. "Actual feature" is fine with me, though "actual" has some of the same issues as "natural." But short of coining new terms and defining them precisely, what's to be done?
Quoting Ludwig V
I agree, we can mount a pragmatic case for why certain uses of "truth" are to be preferred. Sider is coming at it slightly differently; he wants to say that our usual construals of how the world is are useful because they're true, not vice versa -- but the problem is, truth isn't enough. What the grue and bleen people say is also true. Your idea about "thin truth" is on this wavelength too, I think. Sider brings in the idea of fundamental truths, truths that are about "objective structure" -- the latter phrase I find problematic, but surely he's right that there are orders of truth, some more fundamental than others to understanding. It's not enough just to say something true -- we want the true things we say to create a picture we can also understand.
Quoting Ludwig V
Sure, same point as above. What the hell do we call it? An approximation would be "the world without perspectives or observers" but that description is starting to sound almost quaint. But are we ready to abandon the difference between "making a mistake" and "getting it right"? If these two possibilities still make sense, then whatever marks the difference is what we mean by "how the world really is" -- not much help, is it.
This seems particularly important to me. If you say "There are no fundamental notions," you have nonetheless made an important statement about what is and isn't fundamental.
Quoting Wayfarer
Yes. If we can find a way to re-stabilize this so that "mind" and "matter" still refer, but not to irreconcilable ontological kinds in the ways that now seem unavoidable, we'll have come far.
That doesn't tell me anything much. Do you have anything more to add?
Quoting J
I'm not sure what you mean by "scientific realism", but the study of consciousness seems to be irrelevant to most of the hard sciences, and we do have cognitive science and psychology to deal with consciousness, among other things. I'm not sure it qualifies as a science, but we also have phenomenology.
Quoting Wayfarer
I don't see it as a question of substances. I think that way of thinking is anachronistic. We don't need to talk about 'physical vs mental'. Existence or being is fundamental. First there is mere existence of whatever, then comes self-organized existence (life) and with that comes cognition. Self-organized existents are able, via evolved existent structures known as cells and later sensory organs composed of cells to be sensitive to both the existents which constitute the non-living environment and of course other living existents that share the environment with them. Science shows us that the ability to model that sensitivity has evolved to ever-increasing levels of complexity and sophistication, with a major leap coming with the advent of symbolic language.
Is consciousness a thing? Not if you mean by 'thing' 'an object of the senses'. Digetsion is not an object of the senses either yet consciousness, like digestion, can be thought of as a process, and processes may be referred to as things.
Quoting Wayfarer
I agree that quantum theory supports neither position (re fundamental substances). I don't agree that it undermines the idea of self-existing things, meaning things that exist in the absence of percipients. I also don't think it has anything say about mind and matter being different ontological kinds, as that is merely a matter of categorization. They are different kinds of things, since matter is thought of as constitutive and mind is thought of as perceptive. Matter is thought of in terms of particles or building blocks, whereas mind is thought of as a process. I don't see that QM dispenses with the idea of building blocks at all, although obviously the old 'billiard ball' model is no longer viable.
That precise point is written all over the history of quantum mechanics. The customary dodge is 'well, there are different interpretations' - but notice this also subjectivises the facts of the matter, makes it a matter of different opinions. If you don't see it, you need to do more reading on it. The fields of quantum physics are in no way 'building blocks', which is a lame attempt to apply a metaphor appropriate to atomism to a completely different conceptual matrix.
The whole debate between Bohr and Einstein, whilst very technical in many respects, is precisely about the question of whether the fundamental objects of physics are mind-independent. This has already been posted more than once in this thread, but it still retains relevance:
From John Wheeler, Law without Law:
‘what we consider to be ‘reality’, symbolised by the letter R in the diagram, consists of an elaborate paper maché construction of imagination and theory fitted between a few iron posts of observation’.
A clear a statement of 'the mind created world', as I intended it, as you're likely to find anywhere.
I don't have the time to search for specific citations to present, but I know from having watched many interviews with Quantum Physicists that the idea of particles as real entities is still a live option. So, I asked Claude, and this is the answer I received:
Hi Claude, I wonder if you can tell me what the consensus is today in Quantum Mechanics as to whether fields are composed of particles?
[b][i]This is a fascinating question that remains actively debated among physicists and philosophers of science. There isn't a firm consensus, but rather several competing views:
The main perspectives:
Fields as fundamental - Many contemporary physicists and philosophers view fields as real, continuous entities, while particles are merely useful approximations in specific contexts
In this view, what we call "particles" are actually excitations or disturbances in underlying quantum fields.
Particle ontology - Some defend a moderate form of object realism with respect to particle-like entities, particularly when distinguishing between quantum field theory as a framework versus specific theories like the Standard Model.
Mixed or functionalist approach - Some recent proposals argue for a mixed ontology of particles and fields, suggesting both are legitimate descriptions that serve different functional roles in the theory.
Key challenges to a particle interpretation:
The evidence weighs against viewing fields as "composed of" particles in any simple sense. The number of particles and their energy-momentum are not invariant in curved spacetimes, particularly in the presence of black holes, while what remains invariant is the energy-momentum of the fields
MDPI. This suggests fields are more fundamental.
Current state of debate:
The question remains philosophically complex. As of 2024, there's active debate about whether this is even the right question to ask - some argue we should focus on how particles and fields function consistently within quantum field theory rather than which is "more real."[/i][/b]
In any case even if energy fields are fundamental, and matter and energy are equivalent, and fields exist, then it follows that something exists independently of minds if QM is actually showing us something about objective reality. On that view embodied minds and bodies and entities of all kinds as well as perception and thought itself would also be "excitations in a field".
The other point is that, if you think science shows us only things as they are apparent to us, then the idea of independent existents cannot be ruled out on that view. You might say that all we know is that there appear to us to be independent existents, but what appears to us cannot answer the question as to what is independently of us and so we cannot know whether there are or are not such entities.
I am not interested in defending one view or the other, but only in establishing what can, with intellectual humility and honesty, be said.
As to the Wheeler diagram, it says nothing about whether the ways in which the world can be divided up are more or less in accordance with the actual structure of the world.
By "scientific realism," I meant to denote the common-or-garden-variety conception of science. It may be flawed or dead wrong at the quantum level, but we all know it works at most other levels. And by "works," I only mean that it generates predictions that prove remarkably accurate, and at the same time provides us with a powerful measure for what it means to be right or wrong about the physical world.
So, could there be such a practice that, taken all in all, didn't include a theory of consciousness? I don't see how. You're right that, in any given hard science, we may not need that theory; we can assume the fact of consciousness. But if our goal is to give a complete account of what there is, then to leave consciousness out would be laughable. This tells me that we're still in early days of forming such an account. You say that we have cognitive science and psychology to deal with consciousness, and in a way we do, but neither field provides a grounding theory of what consciousness is, or why it occurs. Like the hard sciences, consciousness is accepted as a given (or, for some, deflated or reduced or denied).
So, one of the most extraordinary and omnipresent facts about the world -- that many of its denizens have an "inside," a subjectivity -- still awaits a unified theory. I know many on TPF doubt that science can provide this. I'm agnostic; let's wait and see.
I'm a little inclined to be on the side of thinking that a unified theory is impossible, but I'm not adamant about it. It seems to me that we understand things via science by being "outside" them, by being able to analyze and model them in accordance with how they present themselves to us. I don't find it plausible that how they present to us is determined by consciousness, but I think it is more reasonable to think that it is determined by the physical constitutions of our sensory organs, nervous system and brain, as well as by the actual structures of the things themselves.
The problem with trying to model consciousness itself is that it is the thing doing the modeling, and we cannot "get outside of it", so we seem to be stuck with making inferences about what it might be from studying the brain being the best we can do, or going with what our intuitions "from inside" tell us about its nature.
This is what I was talking about in the other thread, (Cosmos created mind), I am interested in developing ways to break out of this straight jacket. But I don’t have the philosophical language to ground it in digestible philosophy. It just comes across as fanciful wishful thinking.
I see two initial problems, firstly the problem of how a mind can talk about itself with itself and not be convinced that it’s impossible to do it impartially, or that it’s an insurmountable stumbling block.
Secondly how we break out of the state that the world presents us with to some kind of objective starting point, or foundation.
In mysticism (my brand of mysticism) the first problem is covered extensively with a series of processes and practices. But which comes across to a philosopher as dogmatic spirituality, or wishful thinking.
Secondly I have developed a series of conceptual tools by which one can break out of the straight jacket of the world being the way it presents to us. Which again comes across to philosophers as woo woo, spirituality, or wishful thinking.
Yes, but the physical constitutions themselves are parts of the structures of the things themselves. Even the mind, via the brain, as used in our day to day thinking is shaped, framed by these structures. Sooner, or later we have to start considering something that isn’t shaped in this way, in consciousness, but is nevertheless shaped by other as yet unrecognised structures. This is usually described as the soul, although I prefer to describe it as the higher mind.*
Unless we go there, no one is going to make any progress on putting together a unified theory.
* by higher mind, I mean a part of our mind that is recognised as conceptually free, or independent of the mind clothed in the world that we inhabit mostly in day to day life. Like a kind of Platonic region, concerned with pure thought, being etc.
I always feel somewhat dimwitted when I read this objection. It's clearly cogent and important for many who think about consciousness. Yet I can't see the force of it. Why can't a conscious mind model consciousness? Why would it be necessary to "get outside of" our own mind in order to do it? Perhaps even more significantly, why is "modeling" even necessary? Why do we need "intuitions from the inside"? Why can't we just explain it, without worrying about whether we can somehow experience our explanation at the same time? We explain many things that are inaccessible to us. We don't need the experience of being a planet in motion in order to explain planetary motion. Why is consciousness different?
To summarize my questions: Why can't subjectivity be explained objectively? Why conflate explanation with experience? You can't experience your subjectivity objectively, true, but why would that be necessary in order to explain subjectivity in general?
As I say, there must be something obvious here I'm not seeing.
Quoting Adam Frank, Astrophysicist and Zen Practitioner
But people can talk about their minds?we do it all the time. But we do so from the perspective of how things seem to us. And how all things in that context seem to me may not be how they seem to you?even though there will likely be commonalities due to the fact that we are both human.
Individually we inhabit the inner world of our own experience?yet that experience is always already mediated by our biology, our language, our culture, our upbringing with all its joys and traumas. Our consciousness is not by any means the entirety of our psyche. There can be no doubt that most of what goes on in us is below the threshold of awareness. If Jung is right there is a personal unconscious and a collective unconscious, that some recent theorists believe is carried in the DNA?like a collective memory.
I don't know if you have heard of Iain McGilchrist, but his neuroscientific investigations have led him to believe that the right hemisphere drives the arational intuitive synthetic mode of consciousness and the left the rational analytic mode. His ideas are presented in The Master and His Emissary. It makes intuitive sense to me, but it is (at this stage at least) obviously not a falsifiable theory of the human mind, and even if it were it still wouldn't answer the deepest questions about the relationship between the mind and the brain.
In any case if his picture is right, when we try to force the "right' mode of understanding into the 'left' mode of thinking we inevitably lose the creative "livingness" of our intuitive understanding. The rational left mode demands logical validity, and intersubjective confirmability, as is the case with science, but our individual intuitive understandings cannot be experienced by others?they have their own, and so the attempt to develop an overarching theory seems to be doomed to fail.
That doesn't mean there cannot be expressions which evoke sympathetic responses by those of like mind of course?but I think that's the best we can hope for.
The point of falsifiability is not that it's the gold standard for all true theories. The point is only that it allows for the distinction between genuine empirical theory and pseudo-theories. The original examples that Popper gave were Marxism and Freudianism - very influential in his day and often regarded as scientific — when, he said, they could accomodate any new facts that came along. But conversely, that doesn't mean that rationalist philosophy of mind can't be true, because it is not empirically falsifiable. That is to regard empiricism as the sole criterion of validity, which wasn't how the distinction was intended by Popper.
I've noticed and read about McGilchrist but haven't taken the plunge - too many books! But I'm totally sympathetic to what I take to be his orientation.
Falsifiability and confirmability are the gold standards for scientific observations, hypotheses and some scientific theories, and I was discussing the possibility of a scientific theory of mind or consciousness.
So, for example, Take the thesis that all swans are white, it will be falsified by discovering one swan of another colour. On the other hand in the case of the opposite thesis that not all swans are white, it will be verified by discovering one swan of another colour.
The other consideration when it comes to theories of mind or consciousness, is that we develop them natively in terms of how mind and consciousness intuitively seem, and the ways in which that seeming is mediated by culture, language and biology itself seem too nebulous and complex, as well as different in individual cases, to be definitively unpacked.
Also there is the general incommensurability of explanations given in terms of reasons and explanations given in terms of causes.
Quoting Wayfarer
It's not a matter of strictly rational, i.e. non-empirical, theories being true or false, but of their being able to be demonstrated to be true or false. Even scientific theories, as opposed to mathematical and logical propositions and empirical observations, cannot be strictly demonstrated to be true. "Successful" and thus accepted theories are held provisionally unless observations which cannot be fitted into their entailments or that contradict them crop up.
Quoting Adam Frank, Astrophysicist and Zen Practitioner
This is a good point. But doesn't it apply to any attempt at an objective viewpoint, not to viewing consciousness especially? If I understand the point that @Janus and yourself and others are making, there's supposed to be something different and special about the problem when it comes to consciousness. Frank seems to be saying that all objective reality is "kind of a meaningless concept" -- that we delude ourselves about attaining God's perspective. That may be. But I want to understand why there's a special problem about subjectivity, viewed as a phenomenon we all know to be as real as anything else, and therefore want to understand.
Quoting Janus
My response here is similar: Yes, there is a problem about perspective, and whether how things seem to me will be the same as how things seem to you. But why isn't this just as much of a problem for understanding trees as it is for understanding consciousness? We'll always struggle to find commonality of perspective. The result may be called objective, or intersubjective, or merely agreed-upon, but we recognize that it is very different from "J's opinion" about something. Don't we want something similar, in the end, as we inquire into consciousness?
It seems, again, to come down to a difference between experience and explanation. I can never experience your subjectivity, but why would that mean I can't explain how it comes about?
The reason is that if we are standing in front of a tree we can point to its features and we will necessarily agree. I say it has smooth bark, and if I and you are both being honest we must agree. I say the leaves have toothed margins, and again we must agree. I say the trunk diameter at base is 400 mm, that the leaves are compound or that they they single but opposite, and again we must agree if we are being honest. If we are suitably trained we will agree as to what species the tree is, and if one of us or both or not we can refer to a guide to tree species and identify the tree. We can agree even about more imprecise aspects, such as that it has a dense canopy or not, a columnar form or a wide-spreading form and so on.
Quoting J
If you study the brain you can theorize about how it comes about, but that theory will never be provable, as is the case with most, if not all, scientific theories. The difficulty will be to explain why mind or consciousness seems intuitively to be the way it seems, and how could we ever demonstrate whether or not that "seeming" is veridical or not? It seems to me that whether it is veridical or not is the wrong question because the seeming stands on its own as what it is and cannot be compared with anything else. To try to do so seems like it would be a kind of category mistake.
I understand what you're saying . . . but is it really so different? We are both "standing in front of" consciousness. We can point to its features. We may not necessarily agree, but I think that's too strong anyway, when it comes to trees. We're likely to agree that the bark is smooth, but maybe not. We're much more likely to agree about something measurable, such as the tree's diameter. But again, compare with consciousness: We'll probably agree that each of us conscious at the moment. I'll describe what happens when I imagine something; you'll compare and contrast. I describe how I tell the difference between a memory and a fiction, and you may well agree. We may find that perceptual experiences are necessarily the same. Etc. Is it really so unlike talking about a tree? We seek a common perspective.
Ah, but surely the big difference is that it's the same tree for you and me, but not the same consciousness. Hmm. Are we sure about that? Or to put it another way: If I have a sample of substance X before me, and describe its features, and you have a sample that may well be substance X as well, and you describe its features, and the descriptions match up -- are we going to end the discussion by saying, "But of course we can't be sure we're both really talking about the same thing"? I don't think so. Surely the burden of argument would go the other way: If my subjectivity is indeed not the same thing as yours (other than numerically), explain why not. What might cause such an odd circumstance to arise, given that we're both human beings who understand each other quite well, when it comes to consciousness-talk?
Quoting Janus
Yes, this is important. A genuine explanation of consciousness has to do more than explain how it coincides with brain activity, and why such activity is required -- thought that's a hard enough task. It also needs to explain why subjectivity is the way it is, or (as you prefer) the way it seems to us. And yes, the fact that we can put the question either way leads to your puzzle of whether, in this case, it makes any sense to even separate what seems from what is veridical.
But . . . couldn't we raise all the same questions about any phenomenon? The trees seem a certain way to us; but are they really that way? It's not clear what sense to make of such a question. Similarly, conscious experience tout court seems a certain way to us; but is subjectivity really that way? I don't know where to take that. All I know is that the question appears, to me, the same one we could ask about any of our experiences. The fact that it's about consciousness itself doesn't change that -- or at least I don't see how.
Notice that Adam Frank specifcally refers to broad philosophical questions: 'there is a whole class of problems that are at the very root of some of our deepest questions, like the nature of consciousness, the nature of time, and the nature of the universe as a whole.' My reading is that in all these cases, we're thinking about something that can't be treated in an objective manner, because we're not outside or apart from what we're thinking about.
We are outside of or apart from the subjects of the natural sciences. As Frank says, 'billiard balls' - and a whole bunch more, up to and including space telescopes - all of these are matters of objective fact. Less so for the social sciences and psycbolpgy. Perhaps not at all for philosophy.
The phenomenology I'm reading is very much concerned with this, but reference to it is hardly found in English-language philosophy.
The only way the veracity of philosophical arguments is demonstrable is through their logical consistency and their ability to persuade. But they can't necessarily be adjuticated empirically. Case in point is 'interpretations of quantum physics'. They are not able to be settled with reference to the empirical facts of the matter.
Exactly, that is just what I'm always saying in my discussions with you. The only point I would challenge would be that persuasiveness could be thought to be a good measure of veracity. The question would be "persuasive to whom?".
In any case the point about arguments (presuming logical consistency which really says nothing about truth) that are not decidable in any terms other than persuasiveness is that their ability to elicit belief or disbelief is a subjective matter. Again that says nothing at all about the truth or falsity of such an argument.
When it comes to beliefs that cannot be proven or empirically demonstrated to be true or false, a better measure, which could perhaps be empirically investigated, might be whether or not holding such a belief was beneficent or maleficent in terms of inducing flourishing and happiness or stagnation and unhappiness. But again, that might depend heavily on the diverse dispositions of different individuals.
Interesting question. Given that the brain is the most complex thing known, our consciousness may possibly be very different, but it's impossible to determine other than by subjective reports, and given the generality of sharing the same language differences might be glossed over.
In any case we were discussing, not how consciousness seems to us, but whether or not it is conceivable that there could be a completely satisfying explanation as to how the brain produces consciousness (if it does). By contrast we have a very good model of how seeds develop into trees, but even there there are gaps. No one really knows how DNA could have a blueprint that alone determines morphology, and that is an interesting area currently being investigated by Michael Levin, who proposed the ingression of intelligence from what he calls a platonic space that is not a part of the physical world. The truth of such an idea would seem to be impossible to determine though...like, for example the multiverse hypothesis.
Quoting J
As you go on to say, it's hard to make sense of such a question. And the same could be said about how consciousness seems. At least with the tree we have well researched, cogent models that explain how it reflects light, which enters the eye...and so on...you know the story. On the other hand we say we know how consciousness seems, and give accounts of that, but how can we tell whether language itself is somehow distorting the picture via reification? How would consciousness seem to us if we were prelinguistic beings? That's obviously a rhetorical question.
Hopefully to the person one is trying to persuade. But relativism does seem impossible to avoid.
I don’t think this is such a big issue (although it may be a stumbling block empirically), yes it’s true that there is no way of making a direct comparison between minds. But it may be the framing of the question that’s at fault. Rather like what J said.
For me this question is tackled by changing perspective. We know that we are (biologically) a colony. Indeed, we are largely clones (I am aware of sexual variation and heredity). Our constitution is identical, similar to how it is for trees. So it might be worth viewing people as one being (colony) divided into units within a colony. So we are identical, like trees, but with variation in the shape of the tree, or the variety (let’s put speciation to one side for now), some seed might fall on fallow ground some on fertile ground etc.
Now this brings collective consciousness more to the fore. If we treat humanity as one being, the question of what someone else is thinking disappears. If you think about it 99.9% of what we do is identical, with variation, as in trees. Variation in thinking and knowledge, indeed belief might be of little import and as a whole, the colony includes the full spectrum of thought and mental activity and each individual contributes in their own unique way.
Personally I go further and regard the entire biosphere as one colony with each kind of plant, or animal expressing a different aspect of the whole. A lot can be worked out about each from comparison with others. All animals and plants (leaving viruses etc to one side for now), are colonies of identical cells, with very slight variation and where the differences to be found between different kinds encoded in the DNA, not in different cell architecture, (in multi cellular organisms the DNA dictates different roles for cells, which will cause them to adapt to perform different tasks, like people playing different roles in society).
This enables me to view one being (colony) interacting with one material (the world). One being and one neumenon. One soul approaching one (instance of) neumenon producing one being. One undifferentiated soul* approaching one undifferentiated neumenon, resulting in, well the history of the world.
* replace the word soul with your own preference.
The practitioner of meditative practices knows about this and experiences, at some point, being, being absent our conditioned world.
Quoting Wayfarer
. . . you (or Frank) are pointing to this continuum, as it moves from hard science to social science to, perhaps, philosophy through phenomenology. The provocative question is, Can you justify drawing a line where you do, at "matters of objective fact"? I'm pretty sure I understand why you want to do this, since scientific realism does seem to have earned the title of "being objective" in some important sense. And yet . . . doesn't this whole discussion remind us that the line may not be that clear? Maybe we need a terminology tweak, some other way to talk about this crucial difference that doesn't invoke "objective fact."
Quoting Wayfarer
Yes and no. As I suggested to Janus, we are in one sense outside of consciousness, in that we are self-reflective, and can observe our own minds and subjectivity, and seek agreement from others. Is that "outside enough"? You would say no. This is the infinite regress problem. If I am observing my consciousness, I must be leaving something out, namely the observer's stance. Very well; I take a step back and include the observer; I observe myself observing my consciousness, and I also continue to observe my consciousness. But that leaves out the observer who's observing the observer who's . . . etc. ad infinitum.
I don't find that persuasive. I would need to know what is being left out of an account that stops at the first step. One of the features of consciousness is self-consciousness, and self-consciousness is iterative. End of story. Do we deepen our understanding of this feature by trying to push further and further into it?
Now of course, if you define "objective manner" as "not from my subjective point of view," then it's true that we can never observe consciousness objectively. But why do this? Every single thing a scientist observes is from their subjective point of view. The goal of science is to find ways of negating the idiosyncratic or incorrect observations that may occur, and finding intersubjective agreement. I don't see how observing consciousness is any different. If it's different, it's because of what is observed, not the nature of the observation. The phenomenon of consciousness is subjective, in that it only appears from a point of view. There wouldn't be any consciousnesses if their weren't any conscious beings. That is not true of trees or stars, presumably. But how significant is this difference, in terms of problems or methodology?
Quoting Janus
Right, we don't have such a thing, and no one can say for certain whether we ever will. As you know, I'm a cautious optimist in that regard, though I'm pretty sure that "produces" will turn out to be the wrong term.
Quoting Janus
A fair point. Maybe this is a good place to remind ourselves that there are other ways of "observing consciousness" than doing phenomenology. Deep meditation is also a type of experience that pares down subjectivity to some sort of essence that is surely prelinguistic. So I don't think your question is merely rhetorical. It's very hard to answer, though! My cat knows the answer, but is unable to tell me.
I don't know how to compare the extent of the differences between people and the commonalities. I don't think we are one "hive mind" at all?look at the great differences between cultures, and the polarizations within particular cultures. I think we do basically understand others (well perhaps some people do that better than others) and I don't think we are locked in our own little solipsistic worlds. I even think it is possible that we share some kind of collective unconscious, as Jung suggested, but the work involved in bringing anything from that to consciousness precludes the vast majority, even if they thought about the possibility, from doing that.
I don't even believe that each cell is identical to all the others. Like the leaves on a particular kind of tree, each has the same metabolic function, but no two are exactly the same. I don't know, of course, but I suspect the same is true of individual cells. I see Nature as endlessly creative and diverse.
Quoting J
Yes, I agree meditation is a way of (potentially) getting free for a time of the discursive, analytical mind and seeing what is there 'beneath' that superficial layer of consciousness. The problem is that we want to translate whatever we find there into the terms of discursive, analytical consciousness, and that doesn't really work very well. Poetry is a better language for that, I think.
I think it's generally recognised that the objective sciences proper begin with Galileo. with mathematical idealisation, the primacy of observation and experiment, and the distinction between primary and secondary qualities. All of these were a crucial step toward defining an objective reality independent of subjective human perception. This was completed with Newton's publicaton of Principia 54 years later. Together these were the bellwethers of the Scientific Revolution. They displaced medieval science, with its reliance on authority and archaic notions of teleology.
Also of note that Auguste Comte's introduction of the idea of the positive sciences, and the application of scientific method to society and culture. He envisaged culture evolving through three stages, the theological (dependent on God or gods), the metaphysical (dependent on abstract causes and essences) and the scientificI (dependent on objective observation, experiment and the discovery of inevitable natural laws.) Though Comte is not often mentioned, his influence is fundamental.
I think the acceptance of the universal nature of objective laws was the hallmark of modernity proper. And that Heisenberg's introduction of the uncertainty principle at the Fifth Solvay Conference in 1927marks the end of m odernity proper and the advent of post-modernity, where the idea of universal objectivity had been undermined by physics itself. The problem that quantum physics threw up was precisely that it threw into question the clear separstion of observer from observed.
Consider that an heuristic principle or rule-of-thumb, rather than a fully elaborated historical theory. But I think it marks the boundary between the acceptance of universal objectivity and its eclipse.
We have the concept 'objective' and it generally denotes whatever actually is independent of human perception, thought and judgement. We don't have to know just what it is, but our experience shows us that it is. It also doesn't follow that human perception, thought and judgement have no access to what is. We think that way because we rationally conceptually distinguish human experience from what is and then imagine that they are separate, which leads us to think our experience may be mistaken. But this is just a thought construction, like any other.
So, there are two points here. First, it seems inescapable, given human ignorance and confusion regarding what is really real, to think that there is nonetheless a reality, and that it should count as an objective reality. It is arguably not the objective reality as envisaged by naive realism. It may not be in itself like any system humans have envisaged. That may be because our envisaging is always in terms of our dualistic thinking. Or it may be that our intuitions do show us something of the Real. How can we know which is true?
It seems undeniable that the world presents itself to us, and to other animals, and that there are commonalties between the way animals perceive the world and the way we do. For instance we see trees bearing fruit, and we pick the fruit and eat it. Birds and other animals, including even insects, also perceive and eat the fruit (much to our dismay sometimes). This shows that we and these other species see the fruit and understand it as a source of food.
This suggests the existence of an actual world that is perceived by all and is independent of all in itself. It is also possible that consciousness is in everything, and we and the animals all see the same world due to some kind of entanglement. Or it is all in God's mind. We can imagine many possibilities, but how to tell between them? They might all be wrong, or not so much wrong, as inadequate to the reality.
It seems odd to even have to say that we and the animal share a world as well as each of us inhabiting our own perceptual Umwelts, as obvious as that seems to be. It is perhaps when our discursive, analytical minds start working on this basic perceptual human reality that we can cook up all kinds of weird and wonderful schemes, without realizing that all of those are only artefacts of the discursive mind?our rationality perhaps leading us astray.
Consider mathematics. It is said that mathematics is objectively true, but if 'objective' means 'inherent in the object of cognition', then I wonder if that is the proper word. Not that I can suggest an alternative. Transcendentally true might be one, but then 'transcendental' has a specific meaning in mathematics. But the very absence of alternative terms for 'objective' indicates a gap or absence in modern thought.
Quoting Janus
But is mathematics independent of human perception? Yes, in that mathematical proofs are not dependent on your or my assent or agreement (C S Peirce). But no, because they're only comprehensible to a rational mind capable of grasping mathematical proofs. They're not objective, but are the means we use to determine what is objective, through quantitative analysis. I think the problem here is confusing what the domain of necessary facts with that of empirical observation. Objectivity properly speaking pertains to the latter, mathematical proofs to the former. (It was Kant who identified the connection between the two by way of the synthetic a priori.)
In our post-theistic culture, there is no longer any sense of a transcendent guarantor of the veracity of natural laws ('ideas in the Divine intellect'). So we can only fall back on objectivity as the only criterion of truth - hence the gap, lacuna or absence. One of the main causes of the 'predicament of modernity'.
As a consequence, the modern mindset is deeply committed to the idea that real knowledge must come from outside the self. It must be grounded in an external, shared world (the object). Alternatives like "axiomatic" or "necessary" knowledge are seen as less grounded because they are generated internally by reason and logic, even if their conclusions are unimpeachable (hence indeterminable by empirical means.)
The fear is that if we admit that some truth is not "objective," we fall into a philosophical void where all truth is personal or cultural (relativism). By insisting on using "objective" for mathematics, we are creating a linguistic shield to protect it from being dismissed as merely a matter of convention or opinion.
In essence, the difficulty in finding an alternative highlights that we haven't yet settled on a concise, positive term that acknowledges the relational or rational nature of certain truths while retaining the unassailable veracity we associate with the term "objective."
You offer psychological explanations for what is generally believed by materialists in terms of "commitments" and "fears" and you say this constitutes a predicament of modernity. I think this is a projection, and I think the real problem is that our society is polarized. There is still plenty of religion around?in terms of traditional religious cultures and syncretic new age beliefs, and the religious are often opposed to the materialists and vice versa. Why can people not accept that we may have different faiths in the presence of unknowing?
For me, the real problem is the dogma or rational-based insistence on there being "One Truth" for all, rather than a more relaxed pluralistic acceptance of different worldviews, and the understanding that good, sensible ethics is not wedded to any particular system of metaphysical thought.
No, I'm not at all sure. I see mathematics along Husserlian lines as necessary structures of intentional consciousness. So neither 'in' the mind nor 'in' the world. That's the rub.
Quoting Janus
The 'jealous God' dies hard.
Yes, and this is why we still need a term to use that can refer to such facts, and differentiate them from opinions and mistakes. But how does "objective" square with this?
Quoting Wayfarer
The catch, presumably, lies in "universal". Some things remain objective, according to this account, but others are undermined because there is an observer/observed problem. OK -- how does one draw the line? At what point does the involvement of the observer undermine objectivity? And when that line is crossed, what is the "proper description" for truth?
BTW, I substantially agree with the thrust of this, but we need to be really clear on what we're committing to.
Note, I said "may be, to be sure" not "is, to be sure". I think the notion of "intentional consciousness" is somewhat vague. If mathematics is not an inherent aspect of the mind nor of the world, or of the interactions between mind and world, then from whence does it come? We know number is inherent in the world of experience simply because there is diversity, and there can be no diversity without number.
Potted histories don't really explain anything.
I still recommend The Blind Spot. I posted this link on the Forum in 2019, well before you joined, and it was thoroughly bollocksed by everyone, a complete pile-on. Nevertheless, it went on to become a book, and in my view an important one.
Quoting Janus
That's a very deep question. I'm studying Husserl's philosophy of mathematics. Husserl sees mathematics as absolutely necessary, ideal truth that is constituted by the universal structures of intentional consciousness, making it the transcendental condition for the possibility of objective science itself. But at the same time, he critiques Galilean science (in his Crisis of the Modern Sciences) for over-valuing the abstract and objective, at the expense of the subject to whom mathematics is meaningful. That is why Husserl and phenomenology forms the basis of many of the arguments in the Blind Spot.
I am not seeing how that is different than saying mathematics is constituted by mind.
Thanks. I'm reading it now. So far, there are a number of important insights offered, and I can see why you value it. I also see a number of weak arguments and unquestioned assumptions. I'll say more after I finish and reflect.
Those differences don’t preclude what I’m suggesting here. Yes there are many differences even between individuals in a family. But these differences are on the surface, the world of surfaces that we know. I’m implying there is a uniformity beneath the surface. If we look at biology we can start to see the uniformity. If we list the organs in the body we will find that they are present in most animals without exception. This is even more so when we look at internal cellular structure. Cells as we find them now have changed little in their essential structure for over a billion years.
Each tree has a unique pattern of branches and twigs, the possibilities for variation are almost infinite, so we can conclude that no two trees in the universe will be alike. But this is an approach which only sees the variation. I’m suggesting an approach from the opposite direction, that of unity, unity in life. Rather than looking for infinite variation, to look for unification. If one is able to view all life on earth as one being, one is able to follow a line of reasoning stripped bare of many of the tripping hazards in these discussions. I don’t like to get bogged down in discussions about DNA, but in essence all DNA is the same, it’s only the sequence that differs, the encoding. This encoding determines everything about the variation in the body of the being in question. Perhaps there is a uniformity beneath the workings of the DNA, there is probably a whole world to discover about how quantum theory can be applied to this. Not to mention discoveries about how life first developed and can be synthesised.
I’m only suggesting this in viewing the one being (our biosphere as one being), as a whole, this being lives in a solipsistic world in it’s interactions with the neumenon of the world. All individual animals and plants are living in different aspects of that whole experience. It is solipsistic in the sense that it is an isolated arena, that of a planet in space (the sun does exert some influence).
Quite, but not just unconsciousness, but a common arena of activity. A common landscape, scale, temporal manifold. Take two people sitting in a restaurant eating pasta. They may have different hair clothes sauce on their food. But so much of what is going on is a shared experience and circumstance, one which may well require an underlying unity of being for it to happen.
None of this precludes what I am proposing. It is a diversity within an isolated arena of activity.
Language and politics vary tremendously, but hearts and lungs are the same everywhere.
Right, but I don't see that as "uniformity, but as similarity. By 'animals' I presume you mean invertebrates. If evolution is right, then all we animals without exception, and even plants and fungi, share a common ancestor. We find repetition and difference.
Quoting Punshhh
I don't think that is in line with current understanding in biology. It's now thought to be also a matter of which genes are activated?eopigenetics. Also Michael Levins works suggests other factors in play.
Quoting Punshhh
Yes, it is true that we are corporeally isolated from the rest of the Universe here on Earth. I am certainly not denying that we (all organisms) share a world that is in itself (as opposed to the myriad experiences of it or "Umwelts"), independent of all of us.
Quoting Punshhh
I think that shared experience requires an actual world, which is in various ways perceived by all.
I've lost track of what we were disagreeing about, or whether we were disagreeing at all.
Physical Vs Mental
The problem(or absurdity) that I arrive at with an actual physical existence is that space would need to be infinite whereas with a mental existence there would be no actual physical space but just the illusion of it. The latter, as far as I can tell, is an internal mental unfolding of four-dimensional reality that occurs within the 'mind' of the primordial(or absolute).
This results in the absolute being the only 'real' existence functioning beyond our reality as a 0-dimensional to 1-dimensional temporal construct where the three spatial dimensions are then fabricated to render the illusion.
I quite liked the way the thread had become a peaceful, friendly, discussion about the topic. So I went off peste about the idea of a general theory of consciousness, or mind.
What I was suggesting is that there are ways to look at the issue which do accommodate idealism etc, but which take a new approach, as opposed to the orthodox materialism, reductionism, dualism, versus monism etc etc. I gave one example, to view all life as one being, as a starting point, there are many more.
The question in the first sentence presupposes that there is some way we can know how the world really is. But there isn't. Or rather, how the world really is depends on your point of view.
Quoting J
I haven't said that there are no fundamental notions. In some cases, there clearly are. In other, there don't seem to me. Much turns on what you mean by fundamental.
Quoting Janus
We need to resist the temptation to think that there is just one answer. In some cases, how we think of the world does reflect the actual structure of the world. In others, it doesn't.
Quoting Janus
No, we don't. We inhabit the world in which we live. Inner experience is what reveals that world to us.
Quoting J
No, truth isn't enough. But the truths we recognize reflect our interests and our way of life. That's the something more you are looking for.
Quoting Punshhh
You could start there. But you could also start from viewing the world as one being. But the starting-point will depend on the project, so it's more a matter of what you do next.
Quoting Janus
Definitely.
Quoting Wayfarer
It is true that the new science was set up to remove the subject from the description of the world. But it failed, of course, because the presence of the subject is revealed in the description.
Quoting Punshhh
I think the problem may go deeper than that. As things stand, if you developed a new approach, a label would be slapped on it, and it would join the list you gave. It's easy to see why - a label is very convenient short-hand and makes it easier to argue about it in the familiar confrontational, binary, ways.
I think the question presupposes not so much that there is some way, but that the question can be meaningfully asked, and is important. We want to know whether any point of view can be said to describe the way the world really is. You may be right that there is not. But we both know there's a lot more to say than just "depends on your point of view." If my point of view is such that aliens have secretly replaced my family, that is not how the world really is.
Quoting Ludwig V
Sorry, I didn't mean "you" but rather the British "one." There are those who argue against the idea of fundamental notions.
Yes, the meaning of "fundamental" is in play here. For Sider, what's fundamental is structure, grounding. Maybe we should have a new thread focusing on his ideas.
Quoting Ludwig V
Perhaps. That's the standard quasi-pragmatic or perspectival response. If we compare a "bizarre truth" such as the grue-and-bleen people say, with "The sum of the angles of a triangle is 180 degrees", we're supposed to conclude that the only reason the latter truth is more important than the former is because it reflects our interests and our way of life. Sider would disagree. So would I, in many but not all cases.
Quoting Ludwig V
What I meant was that each of inhabits an individual Umwelt. Others of course appear there. We know that others have their own Umwelts, and we also know they see what we see, and from this we know (leaving aside radical scepticism which is fuelled by mere linguistically imagined
possibilities) that there is a real world distinct from all our Umwelts. We experience, and only experience, that world via our Umwelts (world models). So for me it is meaningless to say that our experience gives us no true picture of the real. It doesn't give us a complete picture, but that is a different consideration.
So here are some reflections on “The Blind Spot”:
Frank focuses on two “intractable problems,” scientific objectivism and physicalism. He’s very good on physicalism, giving us (as many others have) the philosophical reasons we should not be physicalists. What’s interesting is that one of his main arguments against physicalism ought to give him pause when he talks about objectivism and experience. He say, “If ?physical reality’ means reality according to some future and complete physics, then the claim that there is nothing but physical reality is empty, because we have no idea what such a future physics will look like . . .”
I think much the same thing can be said concerning Frank’s conception of “experience” -- that it is an empty claim, because on his usage we have no idea what “non-experience” would be.
We need to look carefully at what Frank means when he talks about “experience.” He never quite gives a precise definition, but consider this: “Scientific investigations . . . occur only in the field of our experience. . . Experience is present at every step,” including the abstract: We experience models and theories and ideas just as we experience sense perceptions.
This seems tendentious to me. Generally speaking, that is not how we use the word. I don’t say, “I experienced a theory last night.” We usually divide our conscious life into what we personally experience, and what we might know or theorize that is beyond that experience. To understand is, in a trivial sense, to have an experience, but the tension lies in the fact that the very concept of “understand” is supposed to transcend that experience. If it doesn’t, then we haven’t actually understood. Are there perspectives on the Pythagorean theorem, in the same way there are perspectives on sunlight?
So we need to be able to say that we can understand things we can’t experience, that understanding is not a form of experience except by fiat. Now it is possible to stipulate that “experience” needs to cover absolutely everything, but then Frank’s point becomes merely a linguistic one. Yes, if experience means everything we know, then we can’t know anything we don’t experience. But we want a metaphysical conclusion, not a linguistic one. Is it in fact the case that we can’t know anything that isn’t experienced? Is knowledge itself an experience? My having such knowledge, perhaps, but the knowledge itself? Is “objective knowledge” really the same thing as “knowledge I don’t experience”?
Now I have no real argument with what Frank says about the God’s-eye view and “unvarnished reality.” I only point out that this isn’t what we mean when we talk about objectivity. Trivially, we can’t know what things look like when there’s no one to look at them except God (and even God can be left out, so no one at all is looking). But that is not because our experience somehow changes them. It’s because the concept is empty, since it lacks any intuitions. At least since Kant, we’ve had to acknowledge that “how things really are” in that sense is unknowable and/or meaningless. But when a chemist shows me the molecular structure of water, I don’t for a moment believe she is talking about that kind of objectivity. I suppose we could add a footnote to every single statement of objective fact which said something like, “But this of course depends on whether there are really atoms and fields and . . .” but again, this strikes me as way beside the scientific point.
Frank’s position leads him to say, “?Objective’ simply means something that’s true to the observations agreed upon by a community of investigators using certain tools.” Why? Because “science is essentially a highly refined form of human experience.” But that can’t be the whole story. Even leaving aside my objections to Frank’s totalizing use of “experience,” we’re asked to accept that, were the observations and tools of our community of investigators different, we would have a different set of objective facts. This is surely wrong. The scientific project is a two-way, up-and-down street. Scientists begin with their tools and observations, yes, but then compare their experimental results and theoretical postulates, and revise accordingly. Something is not “objective” because everyone currently agrees about it. Pushing back hard on this is central to what science does.
I’d like to quote Thomas Nagel here, because as usual I find his take on this problem to be closer to how I understand it. This is from The View from Nowhere:
We should note that Nagel qualifies this in an important way. “Something will inevitably be lost,” he says – namely, what it is like to have the subjective experience. “No objective conception of the mental world can include it all.” But do we ask the objective viewpoint to include everything, or only (only!) to understand everything? This is where I think Frank goes wrong. He conceives of “experience” in such a way that there is no differentiation between these two modes of grasping reality.
Lastly, I think Frank is biasing the case when he speaks about science as if it’s a finished project. He says things like “Science has no answer to this question” and “Science is silent on this question” as if we should then conclude than ignorance and silence are the end of the story. Why? Why would anyone think we were anywhere near the end of scientific inquiry? We’ve all noticed this tendency in loose talk about Modern Science and its supposed pinnacles, but I’m surprised Frank indulges in it.
Well, that’s a lot, but I wanted you to know that I read the piece carefully, and I appreciate your pointing it out to me.
True - but I think this comes from the way the term has been used in phenomenology and in consciousness studies discourse. Me, I think it's actually a more familiar term for what elsewhere might be better designated 'being'. But then, the term 'being' is (as Aristotle famously says) 'used in many ways', so you already have considerable risk of equivocation.
But then, the next section is devoted to the 'Parable of Temperature', which begins with the sensation of hot and cold, but then proceeds through a series of abstractions to the point where the thermodynamic termperature is said to be more fundamental than the experience of hot and cold
Quoting J
Who is this "we?"
Sir Roger Penrose, surely an esteemed scientist, is actually a good counter-example to the claim that objectivity no longer means anything like “unvarnished reality.” Penrose has repeatedly argued that quantum mechanics must be wrong or at least deeply incomplete precisely because it fails to give a clear, observer-independent account of 'what is really there'. In other words, for him the problem with quantum theory is not empirical adequacy but that it is ontologically opaque. That suggests that the demand for a God’s-eye level of description is not a straw man imported by philosophers — it is alive and well inside physics itself. In that sense, what Frank calls the “blind spot” is not a misunderstanding of science but a tension within the scientific community itself (and Penrose is far from alone in this demand.)
Furthermore, quantum physics, in which both Adam Frank and co-author Marcello Gleiser have expertise, is an excellent case in point about the limitations of objectivity and the role of consensus. The fact that there are competing and incommensurable interpretations of the same objective set of facts is illustrative of that. People talk of the 'many worlds community' (of which David Deutsch is the patron saint.) They devote a whole chapter to qm and to the vexed question of interpretations (noting that none are necessary to actually applying it.) They point out that many scientists will defend the (to me, obviously preposteious) 'many worlds interpretation' BECAUSE it appears to support complete objectivity. '“Objectivist ontology became king as scientists grew accustomed to assuming that the creations of their mathematical physics could be treated as timeless laws held in the “mind of God” and viewable from a perfectly objective, perfectly perspectiveless perspective—a “view from nowhere.” Thus, when quantum mechanics appeared from the same experimental workshop that had created the triumph of classical physics, many scientists believed their job was to defend the ontological heights and equate reality with the abstract formalism." So, no, I don't believe their interpretation is at odds with Nagel's, in fact Nagel is cited repeatedly in the text. I think they're converging on a similar point.
But thanks for those detailed comments, it's reminded me to return to this book for a more thorough reading. Because I've been predisposed to it, I've skimmed quite a bit, but they really do put a lot of flesh on the bones.
This is the nub of the issue, there is an entire perspective, or vista involved in experience which is missing from the objective account. “What it is like to have the subjective experience”, “what it is like”, only hints at it, but is itself conceptual language, talking about concepts to other concepts. In order to understand the experience, one has to be the being experiencing it. And by being, I’m not talking of the mind*, I’m talking of a living creature. Also the use of the word subjective, is confining experience to thought and reflections on thought. Experience doesn’t at first include thought, that comes later, although thought itself is an experience, it is experience of a reflective activity in the brain following experiences.
To illustrate this, I will go back to the tree, what is it like to be a tree? Many people will say, a tree doesn’t have a mind, a central nervous system, so doesn’t have experiences and without a brain, it can’t [I]know[/I] what it is like. That it’s meaningless to ask the question, one might aswell ask what it is like to be a stone. They are missing the point and in doing so, throwing the baby out with the bath water.
Who are we to say a tree doesn’t have experiences, it shares the same biology as us (short of having a nervous system) it is alive, responsive, can be healthy, can be diseased. It has a presence during storms, heat waves, a lifetime of seasons. It is there, is reacting to, is growing through all these events and circumstances. These are events being [I]experienced[/I] by a living being. Not only this, but as a being, the tree will have an inner life, a feeling of being alive of being a me, a myself, just like we do. It doesn’t require a brain to know what it is like, or to have experiences.
Now apply this logic to a human and we might be getting closer to what it is like to experience something, including experiencing subjectivity.
*I don’t confine mind to thought, thinking. For me it is in a real sense, the whole being of a living entity. So there is a kind of thinking going on in a being, independent of the brain, in the biological activity in the body. The thinking going on in the brain is a more integrated intelligent expression of this.
(I beg moderator indulgence for this presentation, it is highly relevant to the remark that prompted it and besides is of very high-quality.)
The "we" is aspirational, I guess: I'm addressing those of us who think there is a problem about objectivity, but aren't willing to say that either it doesn't exist at all, or that it has to be synonymous with a God's-eye view. You're right that this "we" has not cleared the field of other viewpoints, but I suggest that in many ways it's the standard fallback position for non-technical thinkers (and non-arrogant scientists).
Quoting Wayfarer
Here my question is about your "they" (though I may just be misreading you). Do you mean Frank and Gleiser, or the scientists referred to in the quote? I think you mean F&G, in which case I'd ask you to expand on this. Yes, I see that F&G disagree with the "ontological heights" scientists who try to save the appearances of perspectiveless classical physics. But how is this not at odds with Nagel?
I don't know which texts of Nagel's F&G may be citing, but in the passage I quoted from View from Nowhere, Nagel describes a project of "forming objective concepts that reach beyond our current capacity to apply them. The aim of reaching a conception of the world which does not put us at the center in any way requires the formation of such concepts." He doesn't then come out and say that such a project will bear fruit, but I read him as suggesting that it will, and that we ought to pursue it. Otherwise, why write the book? Similarly, "we should also be able to apply the same general idea to ourselves, and thus to analyze our experiences in ways that can be understood without having had such experiences. That would constitute a kind of objective standpoint toward our own minds."
"Kind of" is murky, but wouldn't F&G have to deny that even this modest version of an objective standpoint is not only impossible but misleading?
The question comes down to what a "perspectiveless viewpoint" could mean. Frank thinks it's a contradiction in terms -- that because everything is experience, then everything is subjective. Nagel (and I) think it's both possible and appropriate, once we sort out how to understand the difference between an experience and a piece of knowledge. Or to be more precise, Nagel wants it to be possible, and insists there is no structural and/or transcendental argument against its possibility.
Presupposing that the question can be meaningfully asked is not the same as knowing how to answer it. Perhaps you are thinking that we can work out what will count as an answer and go on from there. It may be possible, but it doesn't exclude the possibility that it cannot be answered because nothing would count as an answer. On the other hand we can answer lots of questions about the world and, for me, these count as telling us how the world really is. What is puzzling is why you think those answers do not count.
Quoting J
That's not quite what I mean by a point of view. It is a conclusion which you have no doubt reached from some point of view. Most likely, you have adopted a way of interpreting the information that you have, so let's allow that is a point of view. The issue then comes down to your principles of interpretation and how you are applying them. Certainly, it is not likely that a direct challenge to your conclusion will be particularly persuasive. Changing the subject might help.
Quoting J
Structure and grounding are not the same thing. There such things as self-supporting structures that do not require grounding or even require not to be grounded. Planets, for example, and space-ships.
Quoting J
I'm open to ideas. Actually, in this case, I would suggest that it is important that "The sum of the angles of a triangle is 180 degrees" is embedded in a complex web of beliefs, whereas "grue" and "bleen" don't seem to be embedded in anything.
Quoting Janus
I can buy that.
I don't think we're that far apart on this question. There may, as you say, be no answer at all to the question, which, just to jog our memories, was:
Quoting J
The "if any" was meant to acknowledge your point: No answers may be forthcoming, and that could be for (at least) two reasons: We can't find the answer, or the question is badly put because it implies that "how the world really is" is meaningful when in fact it isn't. I'm not sure I know how we would "work out what will count as an answer," exactly, though I rather like putting it that way because it's a reminder that there's probably no way to simply discover the answer.
As for the kinds of answers we do have about the world, I certainly think they count, but it's not obvious what they count for. If we decide that "how the world is" is a matter of semantics, and we ought to just go ahead and allow that our current best objective knowledge is about how the world really is, then that knowledge counts for a lot, maybe everything. But I'm arguing that it's an open question whether we need to do that.
Quoting Ludwig V
I know, but I deliberately chose an outrageous example so I can illustrate the idea that "point of view" is uncomfortably ambiguous, though it gets invoked constantly in these discussions. As you say, my deluded self has "most likely . . . adopted a way of interpreting the information that you have, so let's allow that it is a point of view." But is a point of view merely a perspective, any perspective? How is what I do when I take a deluded point of view different from what any non-insane, objective, scientifically respectable point of view does? I think it's a lot different, myself, but why? What makes objectivity different from "just what I think"? Surely it has something to do with the way the world is . . . and maybe we should just leave out the "really" part.
Quoting Ludwig V
Me too. As Nagel says, how the world appears to us is part of what is real.
Sorry, forgot to respond to this. Sider doesn't mean grounding in any physical sense. Rather, it's a question of what must be metaphysically fundamental -- what concepts give rise to, or secure, other concepts. Jonathan Schaffer's excellent essay, "On What Grounds What," gives a clear picture of these issues, influenced by both Sider and Aristotle.
Yes. Questions need to be nested in a considerable web of beliefs. There's quite a lot of different things that can go wrong. The fact that there's so much debate suggests that something is wrong here. "Real" is being used outside or beyond the structure that it usually carries with it.
But sometimes there does seem to be a meaning to it. For example, there is a real puzzle about how to make sense of the physics of colours and sounds in relation to our experience of them - and why not add pain, for that matter. It is, to me, unbearably paradoxical to assert that there are no colours and sounds in the world, and yet colours etc. are not objects in the world. The facts suggest to me that those sensations are produced by the interaction of our sense organs with the world. But then, how to make sense of the fact that we see colours and hear sounds at spatial locations - not in our heads or eyes.
Quoting J
"Point of view", "perspective", "interpretation", "presupposition" are all involved here. It wouldn't be hard to work out distinct senses for them in this context, and it would help to prevent people over-simplifying things. But I'm just as lazy as the rest of humankind.
Quoting J
I didn't think he did. On the other hand, metaphors affect our thinking, so it is worth paying attention to them. However, I don't think that "metaphysically fundamental" helps much. I'm trying to suggest we should pay attention to different kinds of case. Russell's project, for example, was (if I remember right) about the foundations of mathematics. That's completely different from the Wittgensteinian idea that the foundation of mathematics is our practices of counting and measuring things.
Thanks for the reference. I'll certainly look at it.
I have a weakness for reading last paragraphs first. So here we go - three different metaphors in two lines - and still the assumption that any one of them applies universally. ?
I think that's an important point. We can say that what is beyond the possibility of experience, whether in principle or merely in practical actuality cannot be real for us except in imagination, and hence transcendental idealism follows. But that argument seems to me to be a kind of "cooking of the books" and for the sake of honest intellectual bookkeeping we should admit that we do think that whatever is beyond our possible experience is real in itself, with the other category being whatever is amenable to experience, which is thought of as being real for us.
I think that is a very common way of thinking?people think of God like that. We cannot prove or know whether God exists, but if he exists he must be real and if he doesn't exist then he is imaginary. So we would then have empirical realism and transcendental realism, two different categories of the real, the nature of the latter of which we are terminally ignorant about iff we don't allow that what is real for us tells us nothing about what is real in itself. That question is the one which cannot, even in principle, be definitively answered?if we hold a view about it we take a leap of faith.
The question then becomes as to whether there can be any worthwhile point arguing about which faith is true.
Let's focus on what the basic argument is about. What I'm saying is that the authors ('they' - Adam Frank, Marcello Gleiser, Evan Thompson), cite and endorse Nagel's The View from Nowhere:
That passage you quoted above from Thomas Nagel's 'View from Nowhere' is from his chapter on Mind, and the difficulty of framing an objective view of consciousness, given its first-person nature. But it doesn't really conflict with anything in the essay or the associated book. They're approaching the same kinds of questions from separate angles, but I don't see any inherent conflict.
Quoting J
In the essay, the context is as follows:
This is not 'science has reached a dead end', or that 'silence is the end of the story'. The point is polemical: to illustrate how these fundamental elements of experience are outside the scope of science. It is in keeping with the whole thrust of the work: that science is grounded in objective analysis, that is, analysis of those things, states, processes that can be made objects of analysis. The argument is that this involves the process of abstraction - the bracketing out or exclusion of factors that are not part of the specific process that science wishes to study. This process of abstraction then becomes internalised as part of the 'scientific worldview' - and voila! No subject! No experience! All that remains are the equations and abstractions that describe - very effectively! - how stuff happens.
This is very much the same territory as that explored by Husserl in the Crisis of the European Sciences.
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I don't think Husserl's grand aims for phenomenology as a universal science really took off, but it made a mark, and this book is in that lineage.
This is what is in question, I think. Nagel, in the passage I quoted in response to @Wayfarer, doesn't think this follows. And I don't see why it must, though no one would deny that we learn more about an experience if we're the ones having it.
Quoting Punshhh
This is good. We equate mind with subjective experience much too facilely.
Quoting Punshhh
Or at least they may be. Unless we stipulate a certain meaning for "experience" which we're not entitled to ("everything that happens to an entity is an experience"), I don't think we can know whether a tree has them.
The problem of Scientism seems more far-reaching than I had previously understood. It is very obvious in the religious sphere, it is fairly obvious in the logical sphere (Ayer, Tarski, etc.), but as I read Simpson's Goodness and Nature I find him illustrating convincingly that Scientism is also a dominant confusion in ethics (with the 20th century figures of Moore, Stevenson, Hare, Anscombe, Foot, Lovibound, Lee, and Warnack; as well as the earlier figures of Bacon, Descartes, Hume, Kant, etc.).
The meta-ethical confusion seems to bear directly on "the meaning crisis," given the way it precludes non-scientific human acts in a very forceful way, beginning with any acts that pertain to "values" or "oughts."
It is worth noting that one could revise the so-called "Hume's law" as follows: One cannot get meaning from an 'is'. Such is the point at which we've now arrived. When meaning (or anything else) is separated from 'is' (being), it inevitably suffocates. To say that meaning does not come from being is little different than saying that meaning does not exist. Contrariwise, anyone who leads a meaningful life would of course reject such a "law."
The Scientism angle is based on the idea that science is super important, and that its value derives from its neutrality or meaninglessness. If science had an intrinsic meaning—so the story goes—then it would lose its neutrality and it would no longer be super important (...and nevermind the fact that the import/value with which science is imbued by our culture is chock full of meaning).
Yes, I’m not denying that. I was emphasising the importance of mind as body and that different kinds of body have different kinds of experience, unique to them. I agree that rational intelligent minds can observe other kinds of bodies (minds), but it’s always an observation from the perspective of the experience of different kind of body, (third person) when it is done. Also, I think we can (we have the capacity to) as rational intelligent beings break out of our inherent perspective and develop understanding of other experiences.
But surely it has the experience of being a tree? Yes, I know we never be able to know for certain, but it has a shared presence with us is our physical domain. A domain where there is a common scale, a tree is approximately ten times our height and lives about as long, or a few times longer than us. Senses and reacts to stimuli in that environment which we sense and react to. If there is mind of some kind in the body of the tree as there is in our bodies, surely there are experiences being felt. Albeit so far removed from our kind of experience, that it may be inconceivable to us. For example, it is known that trees in a forest communicate with other trees. They may have a feeling of being in a group, chemical messages are being sent through the group. They may be detecting the presence of destructive fungi at one end of the forest and sending messages about it to other parts of the forest etc.
I once watched a documentary on a child with CIP (congenital insensitivity to pain). While fascinating, it was tragic. Apparently the kid would run into walls and not realize they were severely hurting themself, resulting in innumerable medical visits and related costs.
Point being, just because that human being is unable to "feel" (yet does have the "hardware" per se to) and another living being that is also unable to feel (and does not have the necessary "hardware), do you see the connection? I can't prove it, and admittedly, I probably wouldn't want to go out on a limb suggesting otherwise, but it was discovered that plants communicated by what was previously undetectable means only semi-recently. Who knows what other secrets and untold truths may exist beyond the thin veil, the tiny tip of an iceberg, that is human understanding.
Yes. I strongly dislike using "real" in serious philosophy, but we can't simply erase hundreds of years of usage. We need it, or something like it, for some of the important things we talk about. Just make sure you define it as "according to X . . ."!
Quoting Ludwig V
But notice that, if one says, "There is little that's helpful in the term 'metaphysically fundamental'; we should instead look at things case by case," one has nonetheless said something metaphysically fundamental! -- indeed, something of great importance. This is what Sider means when he says, "If nothing else, the choice of what notions are fundamental remains. There’s no detour around the entirety of fundamental metaphysics."
Quoting Ludwig V
:grin: I wonder if it's possible to write about metaphysics at all without using metaphors. Better not to mix them, though, I agree.
And we can even put a highly skeptical slant on "real for us" and insist that this is a kind of bastard child of true Reality, consisting of illusions and "perspectives," without changing Nagel's point. Illusions actually happen; if we see something illusory and believe it is (deeply) Real, this is an experience we have. It has to be explained, just as much as anything else, if we want to give a complete account of the world we encounter. Of course, when we start parsing "real" in a way that requires a capital R, we start to confuse ourselves.
Now when I see the thread again, and by looking at the the title of the thread, "Mind created world" - sounds wrong and not making sense.
The world cannot be created by mind. The world exists before mind. Mind perceives the world. Hence it makes sens to say - perceived world. There are parts of the world which cannot be perceived, but intuited, believed or imagined. These part of the world is added to our perception via our intuition, belief and imagination.
No one can have the total perception or knowledge of the world. It is always partially perceived world, and everyone's perception and knowledge of the world is private to their own mind.
Creation sounds literal or poetic than logical, philosophical or scientific. Artists could create art objects by mimicking the real world. Ordinary folks perceives the world, scientists observes and investigate the world, and philosophers reflect and analyse the world. The world is the preexisting space we all live in. Without the world, nothing can exist.
Yes. And as I understand him, Nagel is acknowledging the difficulty but arguing that it's possible, at least in part. That's because, when he uses the term "view," he's making the distinction I described earlier, which Frank does not, between understanding and experience. To my mind, this definitely puts the two men at odds, though they do share a number of common concerns.
Quoting Wayfarer
Maybe polemical is the right word. I agree, Frank isn't giving an interim report on what science has learned so far. I was saying that that's what he should be doing -- but he (and you) believe that we can demonstrate why science will never, on principle, be able to say anything about those elements of experience.
If one conceives of science in the way he does (based on what I regard as a somewhat dated historical account), then sure, science is limited in that way. But I'm not at all convinced that such a definition really captures the essence of scientific inquiry. There's way more to say about that, and probably more than you'd want to hear from me, but I'll just add that the pressure point lies here: "Science is grounded in objective analysis, that is, analysis of those things, states, processes that can be made objects of analysis." You're stipulating that subjective experience can never be made into such an object, and I'm saying that it probably can be -- that we shouldn't leap from our current (primitive) understanding of the concepts of "subjective" and "objective" to conclude that our concepts are not only adequate, but force a philosophical conclusion.
Yes, but firstly the child in question is either diseased, or has a disorder. So is a person with all the apparatus, but it doesn’t work properly. Animals with central nervous systems will rely on them for the experience of feelings etc. I’m talking of organisms which don’t have a disorder and will have alternative, or primitive feelings. Secondly, by feelings, I don’t mean like our feelings. With a central nervous system and an advanced bran. But primitive feelings, more like a state, rather than a subjectively defined state within an integrated person. Perhaps a tree knows in some way if it is not any more healthy, that it is diseased. Knows that there are other trees and plants in its environment and communicates with them. All this might well go on in what we would describe as an unconscious way. But perhaps that is our failing, that we think that consciousness requires sentience and other states that we see as normal.
Imagine that a tree in a forest has a sense of holding hands (roots) with the other trees around it. A sense of communion, a knowledge of this state and a response to it. Trees and other plants might experience movement, agency through growth, they do continue growing their whole life, where as we stop growing in adolescence and experience it in an entirely different way.
You wouldn’t want it to snap off, it could hurt (the tree).
Wouldn't last long on the veldt.
Quoting J
You said the same in the thread on first- and third-person perspectives. Your use of 'primitive', even with scare quotes, implies that this, too, will somehow be unravelled by the inexorable march of science. But there's a logical contradiction which you're not seeing. Subject-object relations are fundamental to embodied existence - we are embodied subjects, and, to us, beings other than ourselves, and the entire objective domain, are 'other' to us. (What's the philosophical term? Alteriety? As opposed to ipseity, the sense of oneself.)
Quoting J
So, please do tell. What would be an alternative to Frank's 'dated historical account'? You don't have to spell it out, a reference will do.
With respect, what you're not seeing is that this is only a logical contradiction if we define the terms in such a way that it is. Logic tells us nothing about the world; it only tells us what terms can be sensibly used together, given their definitions. Sure, if "subjective" and "objective" can only mean what you say they mean, then they can't be used in certain ways to say certain things without contradiction. But I'm questioning that use as too narrow. Specifically, I'm suggesting that understanding a number-theoretical statement, for instance, is not a subjective experience in the same way that eating a chocolate is. In such a case, the apparent bipolarity of subjective and objective starts to break down, it seems to me. This is a deep problem in how to understand the role of rationality (or call it hermeneutics, perhaps) in human experience. I think the possibility remains open that we can understand subjectivity without requiring that everyone have the same subjective experience, or that we somehow simultaneously inhabit objectivity and subjectivity, as defined in this way.
"Subject-object relations are fundamental to embodied existence" -- yes, they are, but that doesn't mean we understand them, or understand what we mean when we create this bipolarity, whether it is mere appearance or reflects something more. Do you believe it reflects a genuine metaphysical fact? I don't know if it does. I'm asking for more humility in the face of what we don't know. As philosophers, we should be suspicious of any position that says, "We know it to be the case that something is either A or B."
And actually, I don't think the march of science, by itself, will change how we understand subjectivity. It seems to me that what usually happens is a kind of two-step between scientific inquiry and philosophical analysis. As we learn more about what science discovers, we find we require new ways to talk about it (science tends to talk in math). So our concepts broaden, and innovate.
Quoting Wayfarer
What I find a bit dated is statements like this, as a description of what a scientific materialist must believe: "The scientific method enables us to get outside of experience and grasp the world as it is in itself." My reference would be to Kuhn, who I think shook this up pretty definitively, mid-20th century. I'd also reference my conversations with two scientist friends, but that's merely anecdotal. For what it's worth, they're both interested in philosophy of science, and enjoy chewing these things over with me, and I've asked them about the God's-eye view. It makes them smile. I've never heard either of them claim they were trying to grasp the world as it is. As best I can tell, they're trying to solve equations and make reliable predictions. Perhaps if I pressed them, they'd own to wanting something more . . . but as they're both physicists, they're hyper-aware of the role of the observer.
Logic may well be formal and content-neutral, but it does not operate in a metaphysical vacuum. It still presupposes a thinker and something thought. The subject–object distinction is therefore not just a quirk of how narrowly we define certain words; it is assumed by logic itself. It was implicit throughout much of traditional philosophy, but made explicit in phenomenology in particular.
Also, subjectivity obtains across different registers. There is the “merely subjective,” such as my personal taste for chocolate; and there is the intersubjective, which takes account of subjectivity without reducing it to what is merely personal. And yes, we can “understand subjectivity.” But we can only ever be one subject; the only instance of subjectivity we directly know is our own, and that by being it, not by knowing it objectively.
As said in the Brihadaranyaka Upani?ad '“You cannot see the seer of seeing. You cannot hear the hearer of hearing. You cannot think the thinker of thinking. That which is the Self is not grasped as an object; it is the ground of all grasping.”
As for Frank’ book, it is a philosophy of science book. It isn’t aimed at Kuhn, Feyerabend, or Polanyi—or likely even at readers who take those figures seriously. Its target is metaphysical realism, which presumably those you are speaking too don't hold to.
This is a good point. You're right to question whether "subject-object" might not, in some cases, capture a genuine metaphysical structure.
Quoting Wayfarer
Well, then I think we're on the same page. I agree, and my suggestion is that all we can require of scientific inquiry is to (eventually) understand subjectivity. I could quibble a little, using Nagel's point about self-reflection as "a kind of objectivity," but that's a somewhat different issue. Again, it all comes down to the difference between experience and understanding. To my mind, science (and other similar, rational practices) can give us understanding without needing to experience the impossible. And of course, where you and I and Nagel are all in accord is in the tremendous importance of including subjectivity in the world of what is, without reduction or waving-away.
Quoting Wayfarer
Fair enough.
Logic is actually not content neutral, although there are lots of folks on TPF who refuse to admit this. Heck, if logic were content neutral then logicians wouldn’t constantly be arguing with one another over logic. Simpson’s paper, “Schopenhauer and Wittgenstein on Self and Object,” is a great expose of logical non-neutrality in Wittgenstein.
Quoting J
This is wrong, plain and simple. It’s actually a bit strange that you would say this. If you understood what you were doing in all of your threads on Kimhi, or Frege, or Rodl, you would understand that you were probing various ways in which logic is metaphysically laden, which is to say that the logical system that a logician dreams up will tell us a great deal about his views of the world.
Consider the "ground" as that which remains even during a deep sleep with no dreams, which is akin to a successful meditation state, and that our night dreams that seem so real probably tap into the same ground as when we are awake and all seems so real.
That is what is said by religions like Buddhism and Hinduism—that we live behind a veil of illusion, "maya". But there the illusion is the illusion of subjectivity/ objectivity, of separation—an illusory artefact of the discursive, dualistic mind. Nonetheless that illusion is a part of reality—That we have the illusion is not itself an illusion—the idea is that it shuts us off from a larger, non-discursive, ultimately non-dual Reality.
I doubt whether a complete account of the world we encounter is possible—it is always going to be a work in progress, and always limited by its very discursivity. For me the notion of reality with a capital R denotes the fact that our judgements, our accounts, although they are A reality, are not Reality in its fullness, but merely judgements and accounts. The map is never the territory.
Quoting Leontiskos
It seems to me this is really a pretty trivial strawman. Of course we can say, in one sense that meaning comes from being—simply because everything comes from being. Also the meaning in people's and other animal's lives comes from those lives, obviously—and life is being, but it is not merely being in the sense of sheer mere existence. The point is that the idea of meaning does not come from the mere idea of being.
That's a great way of putting it. (And we see again how binaries like illusion/reality can rapidly become so equivocal as to be unhelpful. "Are illusions real?" "Well, yes and no . . . stipulate how you want to use the terms!")
Quoting Janus
I kind of do too, but it feels important to hold it up as a desideratum. Even unreachable goals can be motivating, and express something aspirational about the overall human project of knowledge.
Quoting Janus
"Life is meaningless" is surely a mood everyone has felt at some time. How can we fall into such a mood? (other than reading Sartre's Nausea :smile: ). Usually by noticing, often with horror, that the values we hold, and organize our lives around, cannot be discovered in the world in the same way we discover what Heidegger called (in Manheim's translation) "essents" -- rocks and birds and math problems and everything else that has being but not being-there-for-us (Dasein, more or less). But as you say, living as a human is more than that, or at least so some of us believe.
Totally agree. I'm with Peirce on the idea of metaphysical and scientific truth as something asymptotically approached by the community of enquirers.
Quoting J
Right, Heidegger captures that mood nicely in his idea of Vorhandenheit translated as 'present-at-hand" in its contrast with Zuhandenheit, translated as 'ready-to-hand. When we are dealing seamlessly with the world the ready to hand becomes transparent, and the meaning of things is found in their use as "affordances". The hammer and nails "disappear" when we are in that 'flow' state, and it's when something goes wrong and we suddenly become aware of the hammer as just a brute object, a bare existent, without meaning other than to be analyzed into its components, that we fall into a state of "rootlessness" (my word, not Heidegger's) wherein things become meaningless objects.
As a musician you would be aware of that meaningful flow state. Meaning is found in feeling, if we attempt analyze it, it disappears. For me, to live fully is to live a life of intense feeling, with the intellectual concerns informed by, not separate to, that life. I tried reading Nausea once—I wasn't able to get far with it. On the other hand I love Camus' works, which are explicitly about finding the deepest meaning without the need for transcendence.
It isn't very good, as a work of art. But it does capture that "draining life of meaning" feeling.
Quoting Janus
It's a problem for philosophers, isn't it? We tend to overdevelop the intellect, maybe especially in the moral sphere. You can read volumes and volumes about ethics and never find a discussion of what compassion is, and why it's central to our lives.
@Relativist @Apustimelogist - interested in your reactions to this. (It's in a paper I'm writing an article about, 'The Roles Ascribed to Consciousness in Quantum Physics'). I think it goes to the heart of the disagreements or should I say the incommensurability of our respective viewpoints.
If it's a process, then it isn't some "misleading name we give to the precondition for any ascription of existence or inexistence."
"[I]phenomenologists are settled in the first-person standpoint, whereas physicalist researchers explore everything from a third-person standpoint. "[/i]
Sure. But the 1st person standpoint is not analyzable. It just treats 1st person-ness as a primitive.
"[I]From a first-person standpoint, anything that exists (thing or property) is given as a phenomenal content of consciousness. Therefore, consciousness de facto comes before any ascription of existence."[/i]
OK, but does this lead anywhere? Other than the fact of one's own existence, what else can one infer? (by deduction, induction, or abduction)
Bitbol says it's 'misleading' precisely because it is reifying to designate 'consciousness' as an object of any kind, even an 'objective process'. To 'reify' is to 'make into a thing', when consicousness is not a thing or an object of any kind.
He's saying, before we can say anything about 'what exists', we must first be conscious. Or, put another way, consciousness is that in which and for which the experienced world arises. It is the pre-condition for any knowledge whatever.
After the quoted passage, he goes on:
So, here he's saying, that from the customary, 'third-person' perspective of naturalism and natural science, only 'objects of perception' are philosophically significant - what is objectively the case. So from this viewpoint, consciousness can be said to exist (or not exist) insofar as it can be described as correlate or product of such objectively-existing processes (the 'neural basis').
Quoting Relativist
Basically, you're asking 'so what?' Which is what thought you'd say. But this kind of point is, basically, the division between Continental and English-speaking philosophy, in a nutshell. Phenomenology and the existentialism that grew out of it, are not concerned with scientific objectivism, but with lived existence and meaning, as providing the context within which the objective sciences need to be interpreted.
(I've recently had a Medium essay published in Philosophy Today, which you can access here, if you're interested. It's a brief intro to this philosopher, Michel Bitbol. )
The quote you asked me to respond to did not mention process. He alleged consciousness isn't "comprehensible". My position is that it IS comprehensible in terms it being a process. A process is not an existent. "Runs" are processes, not things.
Quoting Wayfarer
This seems trivially true. Only conscious beings "say" anything; What you mean by "the experienced world" is more precisely: conscious experience of the world; so again: trivially true (consciousness is needed to have conscious experiences).
"Exist" is the wrong word for process. "Occur" or "take place" are more precise. Neural processes take place, and may very well account for consciousness. IMO, the only real difficulty is accounting for feelings. Given feelings, consciousness entails processes guided by feelings, and producing feelings.
Quoting Wayfarer
It's perfectly fine to concern oneself with "lived existence and meaning", but it doesn't falsify a "3rd person" approach.
Not when consciousness is treated as an object (per Materialist Theory of Mind) :brow:
It’s not about falsifying the third person perspective, but pointing out its implicit limitations.
Materialist theory of mind does not entail reifying the process of consciousness- considering it a thing.
Quoting Wayfarer
I brought up the limitation of the 1st person perspective, by asking you:
Quoting Relativist
I don't see how you can even satisfy yourself that solipsism is false. On the other hand, analysis from a third person perspective has been fruitful.
We can learn more about the nature of consciousness (including accounting for first-person-ness) from this third-person approach than we can by pure, first-person introspection.
That is exactly what this does. and when I posted it, you agreed with it.
Yes, almost always. But philosophy is one context in which they are not. Consider the context of the discussion you quoted: We're trying to decide whether an illusion -- a mirage, say -- ought to be counted as part of "reality," understood as the totality of all that happens to us. In one sense, no, of course not, because the mirage appears to be one thing -- an object in the world -- when in fact it is something utterly different -- a brain glitch. But in another sense, we can't leave it out of the account of our experience of the world. It has to be explained, just as much as any other item of experience. So there is justification for applying this word "real" to all genuine events, regardless of whether they are what they seem to be.
And this is why I'm so down on terms like "real" -- you have to take precious time spelling out in which sense you're using them.
You are misrepresenting what I said. Here it is:
Quoting Relativist
I have consistently said that processes are not things (objects). That's why I agreed consciousness is not a thing
Physicalism entails that mental activity (including consciousness) is produced by physical things.
Reminder: I do not insist that every aspect of the natural world is discoverable through science. It may very well be that there are aspects of mental activity that are partly grounded in components of world that are otherwise undiscoverable. This is worst case, but it is more plausible than non-physical alternatives.
I’m well aware. But I have also repeatedly shown why the treatment of mind or consciousness as an objective phenomenon (even if described as a process) is itself a problem. Notice in the Armstrong quote that the complaint is, why should consciousness not be regarded as amenable to the same methods that have been so successfully deployed in physics and chemistry? Why should it require ‘special treatment’? Your response is to concede that consciousness may indeed imply ‘something non-physical’ - but this also misses the crucial point of phenomenology. This is that consciousness in never something we are outside of or apart from. Until that basic fact of existence is understood we’ll continue to talk past one another.
I didn't say, "non-physical", I said it may be partly due to "components of world that are otherwise undiscoverable."
You haven't established that this is a problem, just that there's something unique about first-person-ness that third-person description cannot capture.
I suggest that this uniqueness is due to there being aspects of consciousness that are not describable in words: there are non-semantic mental attitudes (dispositions, beliefs, feelings...). So it's a "Mary's room" issue: one can't convey redness in words, nor can one convey particular pains, or feelings of anxiety, or many other things.
It's also complicated by the complexity : the brain is doing many things concurrently (processing input from each of the senses, bodily sensations - pains, hunger, triggering of memories, autonomic functions,....), and nearly everything can affect everything else, in a feedback loop that never ends. We're all unique: we start out with physical differences, and we are changed (uniquely) by every experience we have.
All this is enough to explain why I can never know what it's like to be you (or a bat). So this uniqueness of each individual's first-person-ness seems a red herring. What is relevant to judging physicalism is considering whether or not some identifiable mental process is consistent with a plausibly physical functionality. As a former software guy, I look at in terms of whether it is programable. Most things seem to be, but feelings do not- and I freely admit this is a weakness. But it is not sufficient to defeat my judgement that physicalism best explains all facts I'm aware of.
Every third-person account you appeal to is already framed from a first-person point of view.
A description of the brain is still a description to a conscious subject. Nothing in that description — however detailed or computable — entails that there is anything subjectively real arising from the material facts.
That’s the point physicalism doesn’t touch. It doesn’t matter how much complexity you add or how programmable the processes may be. A functional specification is not the same thing as the reality of existence — and existence is the philosopher’s concern, not the engineer’s abstraction.
So this isn’t a “Mary’s room” or communicability issue. It’s the basic fact that:
• third-person descriptions are always about objects
• consciousness is the condition for any object to appear
Until that is accounted for, saying physicalism “best explains all the facts” simply assumes what is in question. And as a software guy, you must recognise the impossibility of writing a true functional specification for the unconscious and preconscious dimensions of mind — without which consciousness would not be what it is. As Penrose notes, subjective understanding is not algorithmically compressible.
But since you continue to defer to your preferred “best explanation,” this will be my final word to you on the subject. At least we’ve made it clear where the difference lies.
Hmm, okay i grok.
I guess I'm not finding it hard to grasp the problem. If someone told me "illusions are real" i would simply say "no they aren't" because that's not what "real" means. "illusions occur in reality" makes sense to me. illusions are real" is an oxymoron to me. I understand though, that this is then an argument about my use of 'real' there :P So, fair enough.
Good essay!
So, we don't do consciousness; consciousness does us. We are scripted actors in a play? Seems like a material universe would do the same, in a way, as quantum fields making us. Of course, consciousness as primary would make the quantum fields and their physics.
You miss the point. If the processes can be programmed, then an artificial "mind" could actually be built that had 1st person experiences. You conflating the specification with the actual execution of the program. That's analogous to conflating the bits in a jpg file with the image that it helps convey.
Quoting Wayfarer
You have identified no facts that can't be explained.
Quoting Wayfarer
What makes you think the background mental processing couldn't be programmed? It's algorthimically complex, involving multiple parallel paths, and perhaps some self-modifying programs. But in principle, it Seems straightforward. .As I said, feelings are the only thing problematic.
Quoting Relativist
I generally agree with your argument and find Wayfarers stipulative point about the fact that all attitudes are first person attitudes to be either irrelevant or trivial.
That said the one thing I wonder about with your saying that an artificial mind could be built that has first person experiences coupled with your saying that feelings are the only problematics is whether it would be possible to have first person experiences sans feelings.
Thanks! But I'd be very careful with interpretation. That essay took quite a lot of reading of Bitbol, and he's very careful in the way he expresses himself. The expression 'the primacy of consciousness' doesn't really imply that consciousness is causal. It's more that before anything can be given, there must be a subject to whom it is disclosed. The resemblance to Descartes is clear, although in a footnote I point out that Husserl and Bitbol break with the 'substance' idea of Descartes.
You say 'feelings are the only thing problematic' as if that's a minor footnote, but feelings - qualia, first-person experience - is the whole point at issue! So, why keep saying I'm the one 'missing the point', when this is the point? The very thing you constantly minimize, deprecate, even while acknowledging that it can't be explained - central to the entire debate. 'Oh, that doesn't matter. It's only a minor detail.' Like, 'hey, nice dog you got there!' 'Yeah, shame it's dead' :rofl:
I guess you are right. But I didn't think of it in those terms. It was simply an observation about the conceptual (and engineering) resources we have available.
Quoting Wayfarer
People often speak as if actually experiencing something gave one some knowledge that was not available to anyone who had not had the same experience - Mary's room. There's supposed to be a puzzle about whether that knowledge is of the same kind as third person knowledge or not. I think it is not, and only dubiously described as knowledge. However, actually experiencing something can make it real in a way that nothing else can. That's not an addition to third person knowledge, but something quite different.
There's a story, possible apocryphal, about WW2. When the US entered the war, a lot of people who had absolutely no experience of the sea or ships were drafted into the Navy. There were problems with sea-sickness. The scientists said that nothing could be done. So a number of them were put on board a ship and taken across the Atlantic, in bad weather. Six months later, there were sea-sickness pills.
Quoting Wayfarer
I'm not sure that calling consciousness a precondition for acts of consciousness like "ascription" helps very much. Surely consciousness can only exist when acts of consciousness are possible. But what might it mean to ascribe a motive to someone unless there are other people. How can even ascriptions of motives to myself be meaningful unless they can also be ascribed to others?
It is a puzzle. Third person and first person stand-points seem incommensurable, yet inter-dependent.
Quoting Wayfarer
You (Bitbol) are trapping yourselves in a binary choice, which does not exhaust the possibilities. In fact, it makes a lot more sense to me to think of consciousness and its (intentional) objects as co-arising.
Quoting J
Yes, of course that's true. We don't necessarily get it from scientific or other theoretical stances, since it is a methodological decision to treat the world as meaningless; theoretical and scientific projects are not set up to answer such questions. So the experience of meaninglessness is just a part, or a phase, in the meaning of our lives.
Quoting Janus
This is a part of Heidegger that I can get my head around, and I think he is quite right.
Quoting Relativist
It is a methodological decision to represent our mental processes on the model of the information technology that we already understand. Nothing wrong with that. But it means that feelings can't be represented. They require, it seems to me, a different methodology.
Exactly what he would say. Phenomenology 101
To be discoverable, there needs to be some measurable influence on known things. So there could be particles, or properties, that have no measureable influence on particles or waves we can detect. String theory may true, but there seems to be no means of verifying that. If it IS true. there could be any number of vibrational states of strings that have no direct measurable affect on anything else.
Fair point, but until we have such a methodology, this comprises an explanatory gap. IMO, it's a narrower explanatory gap than alternative theories - so I justify accepting physicalism as an inference to best explanation.
It's a point I've acknowledged from the very beginning of our conversation, months ago. As I've repeatedly pointed out, every theory of mind has explanatory gaps. I accept physicalism as inference to best explanation - it accounts for all known facts, more parsimoniously than alternatives, with the fewest ad hoc assumptions.
Critically, qualia do not falsify physicalism. I've provided two ways they could be accounted for:
-illusionism (see this): the notion that, although qualia have a causal effect (i.e. they aren't epiphenomenal) the "experience" of a quale is illusion.
-there is some aspect of reality that manifests only as qualia, and is therefore undetectable. As I've mentioned to you before, Michael Tye proposes such a theory in "Vagueness and the Evolution of Consciousness".
You have neither falsified physicalism nor proposed a theory that is arguably a better explanation, so you have given me no reason to change my view.
I think one could reasonably reject physicalism because of the explanatory gap, but then he should reject any theory of mind that has an explanatory gap - which is all of them (i.e. reserve judgement).
:up: :up:
No, and I fully expect that nothing ever will. It’s not the kind of view which is amendable to falsification, as it is a metaphysical belief.
You will notice, incidentally, that I do not advance a ‘theory of mind’.
Quoting Janus
I actually don't like the term "first person"?it is so humancentric. I also don't like the "dimensionless point" model of subjectivity.
The related question that comes to mind is whether you think consciousness is possible absent feelings and whether you equate consciousness with first person experience. Is it possible to have feelings without a sensate body?
Sorry I overlooked your question. A being that was built,which lacked feelings is generally referred to as a "Zombie." The being would have experiences, that created memories that might affect its future behavior - so in that sense, it would be a sort of first-person experience. It could behave in ways identical to humans - reacting as we do to bodily injury; crying at a funeral, having the outward physical effects of sexual arousal..., and learning to behave differently based on the experiences.
But it wouldn't be the sort of experiences that we have (IMO). It seems to me that feelings are the direct impetus for all our intentional behavior. This seems to be the relevance of the so-called "first-person-ness" of our minds: feelings are exclusively first-perseon experiences. Zombie behavior could be perfectly understood from standard programming. Real human behavior would need something to produce feelings.
Yes, but it's a cautious belief - I know it's not necessarily true - it will always ONLY be a best explanation. I don't think you'll admit it, but it's rational to accept best explanations as provisionally true. Compare it to a belief about a historical fact deduced from data too limited to be conclusive.
I know, and that's why you aren't in position to refute my "best explanation" analysis. I think I said as much, months ago.
Yes, I understand. I didn't know where Relativist was going with the idea that there may be things with [I]no[/I] detectable effect.
Quoting Relativist
Wouldn't it have to be a subject, to be considered 'a being that has experiences'? Experiences are not standalone events. They are experiences for someone. If there is no subject, then at best there are internal state transitions, information processing, memory registration, and behavioral dispositions — none of which by themselves amount to experience in the first-person sense.
Isn't the whole point of the 'philosophical zombie' argument that there would be no objective way of determining whether it really was a subject, as distinct from merely emulating subjectivity? Thereby showing that subjective awareness is not something objectively discernable.
It's a metaphysical underpinning for that methodological assumption: the world is a natural one, evolving entirely due to laws of nature; that everything that exists is an object with properties and relations to other existents. So what it explains is the nature of what exists, and what to expect as new discoveries are made.
It provides a broad, consistent perspective for evaluating philosphical claims. I defend its implications: e. g. compatibilism, a natural (evolutionary) basis of morality, the nature of abstractions (including mathematics), a theory of truth, and quasi-necessitarianism. Any forum topic I comment on will always be based on this position, unless I'm just entertaining other possibilities to see where they lead.
I don’t recognise the cogency of “evolutionary morality.” Evolutionary theory explains how biological traits are selected and propagated; it does not generate norms or obligations. Even Richard Dawkins has been explicit on this point: “survival of the fittest” is not, and must not be treated as, a moral maxim.
Likewise, I hold that mathematical entities such as numbers are real but not physical. They are not located in space-time, do not enter into causal relations, and are not products of evolutionary history, yet they retain objective necessity and normative force.
These are not peripheral disagreements but principled objections to the claim that physicalism explains morality, mathematics, or truth rather than redescribing them in ways that vitiate their real attributes.
I don't expect them to be recognised, however.
And I only wanted to make it clear that I don't think you have. But, sure, let's take them up elsewhere.
What part of your original question did I not answer? You had asked:
Quoting Wayfarer
I gave you a pretty thorough answer.
I started by saying it's possible there is some aspect of reality that accounts for feelings, that is otherwise undetectable. This doesn't justify believing there is some such thing, but it counters the notion that physicalism is impossible if feelings cannot be accounted for by known aspects of reality.
It's a bit like dark matter. There were measureable gravitational effects that were inconsistent with General Relativity. Naively, this might be treated as falsification of GR. But GR explains so much, and it made many verified predictions. So dark matter was proposed to explain those apparent anomalies, despite there being no direct evidence of it.
Similarly, physicalism is successful at accounting for almost everything in the natural world - so it seems more reasonable to assume there's something we're missing than to dispense with the overall theory.
I agree with this admission and your position on philosophical zombies. It does leave a rather large gap for “non-physical alternatives” to creep in though.
I tend to steer clear of the division between physical and non physical, because I don’t see why there is necessarily such a distinction. The so called non physical mind and physically existing things, though appearing entirely separate, may be part of the same external manifold that we are not aware of, which may be undiscoverable, but in which the two are grounded.
I too picked up on this. I had thought we were not allowed to admit undiscoverable components.
I would point out, though, that something that is undiscoverable in one arena, or domain. Might be discoverable in another, so is really a meaningless statement absent a contextual arena, or domain.
Quoting Punshhh
I start with natural: That which exists (has existed, or will exist) starting with oneself, everything that is causally connected to ourselves through laws of nature, and anything not causally connected (such as alternate universes) that is inferred to exist, to have existed, or that will exist, through analysis of the universe. Naturalism= the thesis that the natural world comprises the totality of existencr.
I further narrow it down to the thesis that everything that exists has a common ontological structure: a particular with intrinsic properties and extrinsic (relational) properties to other existents. This implies everything is the same kind of thing, which I label, "physical".
I've said before, quantum physics demolishes such a Newtonian conception of reality. At the fundamental level, the properties of sub-atomic primitives are indeterminate until measured. But of course, that can be swept aside, because 'physicalism doesn't depend on physics'. It's more a kind of 'language game'.
There's no need to dispense with physicalism. It's phenomenally successful and accurate in many ways. But that doesn't mean it can explain all of reality, and we have no justification for insisting it must be able to. Nobody can even describe consciousness in physical terms, much less explain it. Many people who are leaders in relevant fields - people like Anil Seth, Antonio Damasio, Peter Tse, Brian Greene, Donald Hoffman, and David Eagleman - most of whom think physicalism must be the answer, say we don't have a theory, and don't even have any idea what such a theory would look like.
You're referring to complementary properties, like the position & momentum of an electron.
These are not intrinsic properties of an electron (like -1 electic charge, and 0 mass). They are relations (relational properties) to other objects. In a dynamic system, relations are constantly changing; e.g. the distance to your home changes as you drive toward it. At exactly one point in your path, a distance relation of 5km emerged. So the emergence of new relational properties is perfectly consistent with the model.
I’m probably not the person to critique this as I’m not a trained philosopher and come to this from a different school, so the other end of the stick so to speak.
I will say though that; “everything that is causally connected to ourselves through the laws of nature”. Is a catch all so big that due to it being an open ended set, it inevitably includes things which are regarded by Western philosophy as wishful thinking, woo woo etc.
This is where it gets interesting. I would use the word material rather than physical. That there is a spectrum of material including subtle (mental) materials. With physical material at the more dense, or concrete end of the spectrum. I go further in that I regard within the domain of subtle materials, a transcendent super subtle material for which mind (which is on the spectrum) is the correlate of physical material as seen at the bottom of the spectrum and the super subtle material is a higher, or transcendent mind.
Due to the solid concrete incorruptibility (in normal life) of dense physical material, the subtlety of the higher materials is drowned out, or confined. To the extent that our true nature as pure mind is constrained to such an extent that we are confined in a Neanderthal Stone Age (by comparison, and no disrespect for Neanderthals) life of moving concrete objects around the place. And subject to the consequences of dense physical bodies.
This is the problem, or so they say. That if they are entirely separate, how do they happen to come together? I like you don’t see it as so much of a problem, but people who subscribe to the distinction between idealism and materialism see a yawning chasm between the two.
If you mean this is the model, then it is falsified by physics. So this:
Quoting Relativist
Is post measurement. The point at issue is what exists prior to the act of measurement. Prior to measurement there’s no determinate object with intrinsic properties.
Here are 2 aspects of the model you are overlooking:
1. Strict identity means conforming with Leibniz' law. Individual (strict) identity does not endure over time, because from one instant to the next, the world changes - and therefore relations change. What we refer to as an individual identity over time is a perdurance. A perduring identity is something we reference; it is not a fundamental ontological category of existent. So it's necessarily false to say that an object has set of properties s1 at time t1, and that identical object has set of properties s2 at time t2.
We can reference a loose (perduring) identity by pointing to the intersection of s1 and s2. This looslely defined object perdures between t1 and t2.
2. A pure state quantum system has definite properties: it evolves deterministically per a Schroedinger equation. These properties are not classical properties. The act of measurement entails that system becoming entangled with something external to that quantum system- producing classical relations to the measurement device.
Here's a sequence of events:
t0 (prior to measurement) there is a 2 "object" state of affairs consisting of a pure state quantum system and a measurement device.
t1 (point of measurement): the original 2 object state of affairs perdures into a new state of affairs that includes an entanglement between the quantum system and the measurement device. As a consequence of the entanglement, the quantum system has new, classical relations that didn't previously exist. Of course, this is a subjective view, from the perspective of humans; what is physically going on is dependent on whichever interpretation of QM is correct- but I see no reason to think there isn't law-directed behavior going on.
But they might only appear to be entirely separate from our limited perspective, from another perspective they might be related.
Right. I'm just saying that either scenario - two entirely separate things coming together, or one ground manifesting as entirely separate things - presents a yawning chasm.
Of course, many don't think the mind is non-physical, so don't think either scenario is what's going on.
[Technically, I don't think the mind is non-physical. I think there are minds much simpler than the human mind. And I guess it's possible for a living thing to have no mind at all? But I think consciousness is always present, and that is what's non-physical.]
As you noted, naturalism is more open-ended. Materialism is less so, and physicalism is most restrictive. More restrictive= a more parsimonious ontology, which is why I go with it.
The problem is that consciousness is informational, not physical. Explaining consciousness in physical terms runs into the same problem that explaining any informational process in physical terms does. Imagine starting with the notion of computation, or the notion of War and Peace,
and trying to leap directly to a physical explanation of these. You need to first construct an informational narrative, and only then explain how this narrative is instantiated physically.
I can relate to the idea that consciousness is everywhere, but not necessarily that physical material is conscious, as I regard it as an artificial construct.
I can see that and I can’t deny that it is compelling. I just feel it misses a lot, for me physical material is an accretion, a world of surfaces and doesn’t tell us anything about what is real. So I’m coming from the complete opposite position from you.
It seems kind of crazy that a primary particle can have mass [I]and[/I] charge. How can that be? What [I]are[/I] physical properties that primary particles can have more than one? Brian Greene doesn't even know what mass or charge are.
There's no way to rule out the possibility that there is another property there. Not a physical one, but an experiential property.
That's obviously not evidence to support my position. It's just speculation. But it's not more speculative than something non-physical emerging from physical arrangements,
Quoting PunshhhWhat do you mean by artificial?
I, on the other hand, have had to do the opposite and reign in my penchant for the weird.
If you answer Yes to either, how does "You need to first construct an informational narrative" apply?
I would ask for more information about how that same part of your sentence applies to consciousness, but perhaps I'll gain some understanding from your response to the above.
The wavefunction does define the quantum state of the system, [U]mathematically[/u]: it quantifies the probability of each possible measurement outcome; ontologically, the system is in a particular quantum state. The true ontology is unknown, but I'll illustrate it in terms of superposition of eigenstates with wavefunction collapse.
Prior to the measurements, there exists an eigenstate corresponding with each of the possible measurements, all existing in superposition. The measurement entangles with one eigenstate. Let's assume that this reflects a collapse of the wave function - such that the other eigenstates disappear. In this analysis, the classical property (a definite position) did not come into existence ex nihilo- it was present in superposition with all the other eigenstates. But it is now a classical relational property because of the collapse.
Quoting Wayfarer
Of course! Formally, it is just a mathematical tool for making predictions. But clearly, it reflects the actual (unknown) ontological basis.
But what typically comes my way are hypotheses about some narrow metaphysical issue. Example: libertarian free will. I acknowledge it's possible, but since it's inconsistent with physicalism, I lean strongly away from it.
However
Quoting Relativist
I have never claimed the theory is provably true; I merely said one can justifiably judge it an inference to best explanation.
I'm not going to continue to argue this point, which is simply this: that 'the thesis that everything that exists has a common ontological structure: a particular with intrinsic properties' cannot be sustained on the basis of physics.
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After this post, I'll be offline a couple of days.
(FWIW: A state of affairs does not perdure. Perdurance applies to individual identities).
Yes, of course "objecthood" (state-of-affairs-hood) is not in question - it's a first principle of the ontological theory. You had alleged that the theory is incompatible with QM. If this were true, it would falsify the theory. But I demonstrated that it IS consistent.
Quoting Wayfarer
You're misinterpreting what I said. I was referring to the "true ontology" of QM. As you know, there are a number of interpretations - each of which is an ontological hypothesis. Our lack of knowledge which one is correct does not entail that it is NOT a state of affairs with determinate* properties! See this:
[I]"according to textbook quantum mechanics, there are two different ways that wave functions can behave. When they are not being measured, they obey the Schrödinger equation. That behavior isn’t too much different from what we encountered in classical mechanics: wave functions evolve smoothly, reversibly (information about the state is conserved), and deterministically. But at the moment of measurement, we throw Schrödinger out the window. The wave function collapses suddenly, irreversibly, and indeterministically, in accordance with the Born rule.
The measurement problem is, essentially, “What’s really going on when we measure a quantum system?”[/i]
"Quanta and Fields: The Biggest Ideas in the Universe", Sean Carroll, P38
"Indeterminism" arises at the point of measurement. This doesn't entail indeterminate properties of any state of affairs (both the pre-measurement and post measurement states of affairs have deterministic properties); it's consistent with a law of nature with a probabilistic outcome.
_____________________________________
* The fact that the unmeasured wavefunction evolves deterministically implies the system's properties are determinate. "Fixed position" is not a property of the wavefunction. It's analogous property is of a non-localized position and momentum:
[I]"the essence of the uncertainty principle isn’t about measurements at all. It has implications for measurements—if we measure either position or momentum precisely, the wave function will collapse and we will have no idea what the other one would be immediately thereafter—but it’s really a feature of quantum states even before we measure them. The point is not that you inevitably bump into a quantum system while measuring it and therefore change it. It’s that there do not exist any states in which both position and momentum are highly localized at the same time. This is hard to internalize if we remain stuck with classical intuition, thinking of position and momentum as things that really exist; it’s easier to swallow if we think of them as sets of possible observational outcomes that we derive from an underlying quantum state."[/i] - Carroll, p55
I don’t know, I thought that was your position.
For me it’s more a case that consciousness is fundamental in the higher (subtle) realms. Not necessarily physical realms.
I thought the idea was that mass and energy and everything else like charge and extension were all interchangeable in Einstein’s spacetime.
A construction by a being or intelligence to carry out a purpose.
Quoting PunshhhCould be? I don't know anything about that stuff. :grin:
Quoting PunshhhAn intelligence wants to do something that it needs consciousness to accomplish, so it constructs consciousness?
It is quite difficult to explain, but is also quite simple.
I’ll approach it in two ways, firstly, imagine a spectrum like the electromagnetic spectrum. The spectrum is a scale of different wavelengths from very long at the bottom end and very short at the top end. Physical matter is near the bottom and as you go further up, you get mind, then soul, then spirit. The soul and the spirit are in subtle realms like heaven in the bible. They are all the same thing, material, but at different frequencies, or wavelengths. Due to the nature of the universe these different wavelengths present in different ways.
Secondly, from the top down. Pure being expresses itself in more and more complex ways as you go down the spectrum until at the bottom you get the most complex, almost infinitely complex as physical matter. Necessarily it is a complex story being expressed at this point.
I’m saying that consciousness is the ground from the soul upwards and consciousness below this point requires a living entity to be grounded there. Which hosts it. That this physical material is an artificial construct to ground consciousness in such a dense kind of expression. It is artificial because consciousness can’t function as a ground there and consciousness is an essential ground for being. So for consciousness and being to be there an artificial realm is generated, in which they are hosted.
Yes, that’s pretty much it.
Why is physicalism inconsistent with a libertarian free will account?
Right, so I would need a reason that physicalism, on every interpretation, entails determinism; or alternatively, a reason why your specific form of physicalism is the correct one (were I to agree with you that determinism is entailed by physicalism).
One could easily identify alternatives to components of this theory, but it would raise other questions that aren't dealt with- there's not a lot of comprehensive theories.
So, it would be no different than the LLMs in that they are changed by their experiences.
Good follow-up questions, that forced me to clearly think through what I'm trying to say. I would answer 'Yes' to both.
Lets just take DNA for now. When you talk about DNA, your perspective is toward a phenomenon that has already been well explained. This is not where we are at with consciousness.
By the time that there was a search for a molecular mechanism, it was already well understood that the transmission of traits was informational. And, how the logic of genetic recombination functioned was shockingly well understood, all deduced from behavior alone. Here is an illustration of gene crossover, from 1916:
What I was really trying to say, is that for phenomena that are fundamentally informational, there are two sequential questions:
1. How can this phenomenon be understood informationally?
2. How is this informational schema we now understand be instantiated physically?
With DNA, the answer to 1 began with Mendel, and was completed by the time images like the above were made. Crucially, only by answering 1, can 2 be answered. Without answering 1, 2 cannot even be properly posed. This is exactly what we see all the time with consciousness:
1. How can consciousness be instantiated physically?
This is the wrong question. Lacking insight into how consciousness can be realized informationally, we cannot begin to look for that realization physically. We just don't know what we are looking for.
Imagine extending that syndrome to experience as a whole where someone would say they were not aware of experiencing anything, even though being able to navigate environments, guess correctly what has been said to them, guess what they had just tasted or smelt or what kind of object they had felt or touched and indeed respond to the question as to whether they experienced anything. all; without any conscious awareness of having experienced anything at all.
The P-zombie case, as specified would seem to be the very opposite to that, in that the zombie would say that they had seen, heard, felt, tasted, etc., while not having actually had any experience of anything at all.
While the experience-blindness case seems weird in that experience is occurring without being conscious of it, the zombie case seems altogether impossible in that they would be reporting experiences which, by stipulation, they didn't have.
Not sure which bullet you are referring to...
But the sights, tastes, sounds, etc had to be detected in some way. That set of of detected things will be remembered, and that's what the experience is to them.
In contrast the "blind experiencer" can detect the sights sounds and so on, perhaps not as reliably and with as much subtlety of detail as the conscious experiencer, but they cannot report on it because they believe that they have detected nothing. Let's say this is a failure of connections between brain regions or functions.
So, now it looks like the zombie and the blind-experiencer are actually similar, except that the zombie who has no experience at all nevertheless speaks as though it does, whereas the other consciously believes it has no experience, which amounts to saying it, like the zombie, has no conscious experience. However in fact it does have experiences albeit unconsciously.
The question then seems to be as to how it would be coherent to say in the case of the zombie, that all these feelings, experiences, sights, sounds and so on can be detected and yet to simultaneously say that nothing was experienced, when the zombie itself speaks about he experiences.
Another point that comes to mind is that I think we are not consciously aware of probably almost everything we experience, in the sense of "are aware of' like when, for example, we drive on autopilot.
I think information is of extreme importance for consciousness. But I don't have a clear idea on various specifics. What do you mean by "consciousness is informational"?
This depends on how one defines "conscious". If it's defined as a state that necessarily includes qualia, then it's true. But a qualia-absent being could have something very similar.
Representationalists say that qualia are "representational states": pain represents body damage, with an acuteness proportional to the damage; a physical texture represents some physical property of the object; a visual image represents the surroundings we are within...
If those representations could be made in computable ways, without qualia, this arguably results in a form of consciousness. They could even have unconscious experiences: capturing representations of aspects of the world, but only storing them in memory- not in active use by the executive function.
I mean that consciousness is best understood in terms of information, not physics. Some phenomena should be thought of as material: rocks, gravity, light. But others cannot be understood physically: numbers, ideas, computer programs, novels. I claim that consciousness belongs to the latter category.
Think of a book, Moby Dick. You could try to understand it physically: "Moby Dick" is this specific arrangement of glyphs on paper. But then you look at another edition, or the book in another language, or an ebook edition, and you are totally flummoxed. You will conclude that analyzing Moby Dick as a physical phenomenon is hopeless.
The same is true for consciousness. Analyzing consciousness physically is hopeless, and leads to the hard problem. Because, consciousness is informational. Evidence?
Does consciousness have mass? Does it have a position, or velocity? What material is it made of? None of these seem answerable. In fact, to answer the latter, some want to invent an entirely new substance, with no physical evidence, no evidence at all in fact, other than that consciousness exists, therefore this substance must exist.
On the other hand, what is consciousness, phenomenologically? One thing you can say: each and every conscious moment discloses information. Every of our senses discloses information about the external world, or of our bodies. And every emotion discloses information about our minds.
Consciousness informs, it is informational, not physical. And so to understand it, it must be understood as informational. Only then can we understand how the brain implements it.
Quoting hypericinOk, what's the plan? How do we understand it as informational? What do you have *ahem* in mind?
[i] There is a sentry in a watchtower, looking through a telescope. The watchtower stands on top of a headland which forms the northern entrance to a harbour. The sentry’s job is to keep a lookout.
When the sentry sees a ship on the horizon, he sends a signal about the impending arrival. The signal is sent via a code - a semaphore, comprising a set of flags.
One flag is for the number of masts the ship has, which provides an indication of the class, and size, of the vessel; another indicates its nationality; and the third indicates its expected time of arrival - before or after noon.
When he has made this identification he hoists his flags, and then tugs on a rope which sounds a steam-horn. The horn alerts the shipping clerk who resides in an office on the dockside about a mile away. He comes out of his office and looks at the flags through his telescope. Then he writes down what they tell him - three-masted ship is on the horizon; Greek; arriving this afternoon.
He goes back inside and transmits this piece of information to the harbourmaster’s cottage via Morse code, where it is written in a log-book by another shipping clerk, under ‘Arrivals’.
In this transaction, a single item of information has been relayed by various means. First, by semaphore; second, by Morse code; and finally, in writing. The physical forms and the nature of the symbolic code is completely different in each step: the flags are visual, the morse code auditory, the log book entry written text. But the same information is represented in each step of the sequence.
The question I want to explore is: in such a case, what stays the same, and what changes?[/i]
It was an epic thread, but my view is that the physical form changes, while the meaning stays the same, which says something important about the nature of information.
hehehe. Good.
Quoting hypericin
I'm unsure this is true but I like it. Consciousness may only appear that way the experiencer, so in some sense yeah that's right - but it might just be the limiting factor to us ever understanding it rather than a accurate take on it.
You may be right. But definitely worth pursuing, and I hope hypericin has something in mind.
What is information, in the absence of consciousness? Words on a page have to be interpreted by a conscious mind.
I'm fine with examining aspects of mental activity in terms of information, but information needs to be grounded in something else, to avoid circularity.
If a walking robot with a mechanical eye is approaching a cliff, and turns to avoid it, was it because there was information? Photons hit the robot's sensor, a signal traveled to the hard drive, which is programmed to turn the body away from drop greater than X.
Of course, and I agree information is relevant to ongoing mental activity. What I was referring to was understanding the fundamental nature of consciousness - the hardware that produces it. I should have been more clear. Sorry.
If information can exist in the presence [I]or[/I] absence of consciousness, then consciousness isn't part of its grounding. What [I]is[/I] it grounded in?
Principles:
1. Consciousness is informational
2. Consciousness is naturalistic. (No woo!)
3. Consciousness arose due to selective pressure.
Why?
Given our principles, we can make an educated guess why consciousness arose. Consciousness is an extremely efficient means of organizing and processing information. Look at how we phenomenologically experience the information we receive. Sight as spatially organized, painted with color giving surface information. Sound as directionally and positionally co-located in space, but otherwise orthogonal to space. Smell as non-positional, and orthogonal to both. And so on. And then you have bodily awareness its own dimensions of feeling.
We integrate all of this, into a holistic sense of everything that is happening. And crucially, based on conscious and unconscious decision making, we can attend to a narrow band of the overwhelming amount of information we receive. Our slow-brain (aka conscious) processing of this information is experienced as thoughts, themselves phenomenal, but marked as interior. Experiences and thoughts trigger memories, also phenomenal. We integrate all this, make predictions, and ultimately act.
Contrast this with an organism trying to manage all this without consciousness. Just electrical signals, without qualitative feel. Imagine, from an engineering standpoint, the complexity of trying to organize a system that can integrate, analyze, and act on such an immense quantity of information. As the bandwidth and the number of streams of information grow, the task would become totally overwhelming.
TLDR:
Conscious brains DON'T process all information streams directly.
Conscious brians DO convert streams to conscious experiences, then process those.
As informational inputs from the environment and the self grow to a certain point, consciousness becomes mandatory.
Who
Given this, we can gain a better perspective on who we are. In one sense, we are human animals, we are our bodies. But in another sense, we are, specifically, the portion of the brain tasked with decision making. The portion that makes use of conscious information, attends to it, thinks about it, predicts with it, remembers it, and ultimately, acts. Everything that is not processed as phenomenal consciousness, to us, does not exist. It is unconscious.
We, the 'we' that experiences, that imagines a 'self', are the specific part of the brain that connect to the world, and to our own bodies, by phenomenal consciousness, and nothing more. And so at the same time, we are imprisoned by it.
What?
From our perspective, everything is conscious. To be aware of anything is to be conscious of it, definitionally. It is quite easy to mistake consciousness for reality. It is not. It is the result of intensive work by the brain, processing immense amounts of information so we may integrate and ultimately act on it.
Consciousness is unreal, where what is unreal exists in the head, but not outside it.
Consciousness is an illusion, where an illusion is that which presents as something it is not.
Consciousness is virtual, where the virtual exists only in terms of a system which supports it.
I think these facts are crucial to keep in mind. It is easier to explain something unreal, illusory, and virtual, rather than something real and actual. But still, the unreal still exists, as unreal. The illusion still exists, as illusion. Explanation is still required.
How?
This is all really framing for a revised hard problem:
How and why does biology's method of organizing information lead to qualitative states? How could any such method lead to qualitative states?
Of course I cannot answer this. But perhaps the preceding offers some context, and clues. We don't have to explain something that exists. Only something that exists, for us, from our own persepctive. We are already familiar with computers, information processing systems that can support arbitrary virtual worlds. I contend that the brain is the ultimate such system.
Still, there is a lot of mind bending to do. Computers can support virtual worlds. But they cannot support them as something experienced for themselves. Only for the user. I take it as axiomatic that consciousness is naturalistic, it unproblematically fits into the natural world as an informational phenomenon. But how does it work? Can we build such a machine? What are the principles? Can we program a computer so that it experiences? Or is this a kind of information processing that a computer cannot support?
Fundamental conceptual leaps still need to be made. But perhaps less fundamental than prodding pink tissue, and wondering how it could make the feels.
That was part of my point: information does not exist in the absence of (an aspect of) consciousness. Characters on a printed page are not intrinsically information; it's only information to a a conscious mind that interprets it- so it's a relational property.
I think you are talking about meaning, not information. Meaning is interpreted information. Also, there is no necessary involvement of consciousness. Machines can interpret information and derive meaning from it.
There's a well-known and often-quoted aphorism from Norbert Weiner:
So what we to do? Admit it! So if we admit that information is fundamental, like matter and energy, that goes some way to addressing this insight. But really not that far - as you grasp, designating something 'information' really doesn't get us that far.
Quoting hypericin
But can they? :chin: I've been interacting with AI since the day it came out - actually three weeks since the essay in the OP was published on Medium - and I think all of the ones I use (ChatGPT, Claude.ai and gemini.google would query that. I put the question to ChatGPT, which replied:
My experience with AI systems strongly suggests they do not possess this. Whatever meaning appears is supplied by the human user in their engagement with the output, not generated in the system itself. But it's an amazingly realistic simulcrum, I'll give you that! And also, not a hill I would wish to die on, as it is another of those very divisive issues.
(I created another thread on that topic, https://thephilosophyforum.com/discussion/16095/artificial-intelligence-and-the-ground-of-reason/p1, which also has a link to a rather good Philosophy Now essay on the subject.)
Interesting, it certainly seems to mean something. Definitely in everyday conversation it does. And so does it in the sense we are discussing, as something fundamental in the universe, alongside matter. Of course as with so many things, pinning down exactly what it means is nontrivial.
Quoting Wayfarer
I don't think LLMs could function as they do without understanding in some form (of course, without the sentience connotation the word usually caries). 'Intentionality' is out, and I'm not quite sure what 'normativity' is doing here.
I'll be sure to check out the thread, I like the topic.
Yes, I was seeing information (the same information) as meaning different things to different observers, depending on their position in the ecosystem. To different organisms the information that gravity moves materials downwards has different meanings, for the plant, it is that the roots will seek to move down and the shoots to move up. For a bird, the same information it means to fly the right way up and not upside down. For Isaac Newton it means the theory of the attraction between celestial bodies.
So is there no information (about gravity) if there is no plant, bird, or Isaac Newton (no life)?
And, in the right environment, S1 [I]will[/I] be interpreted as P1.
Consciousness is not involved in this interpretation, which, as you say, is not necessary. A machine is not interpreting the information. And even if a machine that interprets information is not conscious, it was built by human consciousness to operate in such a way as to interpret information.
It seems the laws of physics interpret the information encoded in DNA. In fact, the laws of physics encoded the information into DNA in the first place.
Quoting hypericinAlthough I know what you mean, I wouldn't use the word "parasitic", because information doesn't harm the material medium.
I don’t know if this addresses the question, or whether I’m missing something.
If we take away Newton (and all of humanity) from the situation described. There are still celestial bodies under attraction, because the birds and plants are still flying and growing as before, which requires them to be there as before. But we lose houses, cars, TV, etc. and all the information involved in creating them. If we take away all birds and plants, the water and air they use are still there. But it is just a barren landscape of rock, sand and water. There are no forests, or bird song and all the information involved therein.
If we then take away all the atoms, is there nothing left, or are we just taking away the barren landscape of rock and water and the information they hold and leaving something more primordial, such as sub atomic particles, or dark energy, presumably there is something left, there is space and time. Just without any of the information involved in a cosmos with atoms.
Einstein would say presumably that when we take away the atoms, we are also taking away the space and time and the information involved in that. Does that then mean that existence has been taken away at that point and all the information involved in that?
Or does some of that information, like mathematical principles, remain and if it remains, where (and when) does it remain?
There does seem to be a cut off point here, at the point of atomic structure. So in my thought experiment, there are four things, Newton, birds, plants and atoms, all grouped together as one existing thing. Like a bubble, all self contained, sitting, floating in a nothingness. All information presumably is also in this bubble too. Or is there some information outside the bubble, universal information?
If a new bubble were to form, where does it’s information originate?
This would suggest to me that the bubble isn’t in nothingness, that it is born, that there is more out there, but that within our bubble there is a self identification an integration, a unit, a being. A frequency on a scale.
That's a tricky thought-experiment! I don't actually devote a lot of time to 'what if nothing existed?' I take pretty much at face value what science tells us about cosmology and the formation of planets. I still feel as though the beginning of life and the engine of evolution is deeply mysterious.
The book I keep mentioning, Mind and the Cosmic Order, Charles Pinter, is really helpful on this question. He argues 'that the meaningful connectedness between things — the hierarchical organization of all we perceive — is the result of the Gestalt nature of perception and thought, and exists only as a property of mind. These insights give the first glimmerings of a new way of seeing the cosmos: not as a mineral wasteland but a place inhabited by creatures.' So it's not as if consciousness is a mysterious essence, but that emergence of organic life is the medium in which objects and structures become navigable and intelligible. That's why I continue to argue that mind is not an emergent phenomenon, an unexplained add-on to the doings of matter and energy but is intrinsic to the order of nature. Not as a consequence but as its ground.
As you know, I am sympathetic with transcendental/epistemic idealists views. However, a problem that IMO is left unadressed is the problem of how can the minds of beings that live in the universe manage to 'ordain' their experiences if the 'things in themselves' are completely 'unknowable'.
Even someone like Bernard d'Espagnat would argue that we can know the 'physical world in itself' by studying the empirical world. However, such a knowledge is distorted, imperfect and so on (and, indeed, we can't neglect the role of the mind in organizing the experiences).
Personally, I don't think that it is even coherent to think of some kind of 'unstructured reality'. Clearly, their 'structure', which might be regarded as some sort of 'information', doesn't exist outside their physical instantations. For instance, the 'property of being an electron' (i.e. being a particle with a given mass, charge and so on) doesn't seem to be something that can exist without electrons.
Something like mathematical principles and 'laws of logic', however, don't seem to rely on physical instantations. This IMO is shown by the fact that any attempt to explain them assumes them in the first place.
Pinter’s book, Mnd and the Cosmic Order, is a cognitive science book, not a book about transcendental idealism.It definitely has a philosophical component, but it would be wrong to describe it as a philosophy text.
As @Wayfarer points out, what information means is quite context dependent. For the specific meaning you have in mind, symbolic or encoded information, I would say, yes! I think you are right. If life arose on earth first, DNA may indeed mark the emergence of symbolic information.in the universe.
What is interesting is how the seed of DNA birthed the Cambrian explosion of symbolic information. From chemical communication to vocal, to language, to our current lives which seem totally dominated by symbols. All this required the kindling of DNA, which launched and spread all the symbolic regimes in the universe.
This is certainly a reasonable position. And yet, the fact that information can remain constant durung radical transformations of matter does seem to suggest a kind of independence.
If it has true independence, it would be as mathematics. At least computationally, any set of information can be represented as a single, potentially enormous, number. And if anything has a platonic existence, independent of the material world, it is math.
Yes, this quite the conundrum. We’re either missing something, or have a perspective which generates these paradox’s.
I like the idea that mathematical information is innate in existence when it comes into existence. But it doesn’t solve the conundrum. Only suggests that the rational conclusion is that there never was a before before existence. But that leads to an infinite regress.
Yes, very much so, for me mind is not just the intelligent part of us we are consciously aware of, but something about the whole being. Also that there is a transcendent aspect to it like the way that mathematic principles have an air of the transcendent about them.
The idea that the physical universe is also a mental construct is what I was getting at, but not in the mind of us little minnows. But greater beings, perhaps in a hierarchy of beings.
I would also add that it also appears that some 'physical objects' are more like convenient abstractions that are useful for our purposes. For instance, arguably a 'chair' isn't a physical object but rather a concept.
However, it also seems that physical reality has a structure/order/form independent of us. Otherwise, arguably, our mental faculties could not make intelligible models of it.
Quoting Punshhh
Given the seeming non-contingent character of mathematical truths, I think that they are aspects of the 'Ground of Being', i.e. aspects of that which makes existence of particular entities -which seem to be contingent - possible.