Formless sublime and negative representation

ravennnn April 17, 2021 at 18:02 2400 views 3 comments Philosophy of Art

Hey guys, I am new to philosophy and it might be a very basic question but I was wondering whether Kant's idea of the formless sublime is the same thing as 'negative representation'?
Thanks a lot!

Comments (3)

Zophie April 17, 2021 at 18:50 ¶ #523985 0 likes

If Kant's idea of the formless sublime is a "viscous contingency of empirical phenomena" (which I interpret as a transcendental real that lacks ultimate logical foundation) and negative representation is the 'raw' noumena/substance/dedomena that is represented by positive data/theories/schema, then they are analogous but not identical.

If they were the same thing they would have the same terms. That difference lies in the context of a third element which is missing from your question.

Gregory April 18, 2021 at 03:23 ¶ #524197 0 likes

Negative refers to process and formlessness does as well

Zophie April 18, 2021 at 03:25 ¶ #524199 0 likes

Thanks, Gregory.